Pediatric Fractures — MCQs
Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis of non-accidental injury?
Which is the most common elbow fracture in children?
Which of the following is false regarding clavicle?
Which of the following is NOT a common fracture in children?
In a radiograph of suspected non-accidental injury, which of the following fractures is LEAST specific for child abuse?
Fracture of the femur in young children (2-5 years) is typically treated by:
What is the angle shown in the image known as?
A 4-year-old child while playing suddenly had his elbow pulled by his servant maid's hand and is now continuously crying, not allowing anyone to touch his elbow. He is keeping his elbow extended. What is the most likely diagnosis?
4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex of the radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as -
Which one of the following is the most ideal treatment for a displaced fracture of the lateral condyle of the humerus in a 7-year-old child?
Pediatric Fractures Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis of non-accidental injury?
- A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
- B. Scurvy
- C. Caffey's disease
- D. Osteopetrosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Osteopetrosis*** - Osteopetrosis is a rare genetic disorder characterized by **increased bone density** due to defective osteoclast function - While it causes bones to be brittle and prone to fracture, it has **distinctive radiological features** including diffuse sclerosis and "bone-within-bone" appearance - The **increased bone density on X-ray** is pathognomonic and readily distinguishes it from NAI, making it **less likely to be confused** with non-accidental injury in clinical practice - Fractures occur but the radiological pattern is diagnostic of the underlying metabolic bone disease *Incorrect: Osteogenesis imperfecta* - This is a **classic differential** for NAI causing **multiple brittle bone fractures** that can be mistaken for abuse - Features include **blue sclera**, **dentinogenesis imperfecta**, **wormian bones**, and **family history** - Often presents with multiple fractures at different stages of healing, mimicking the pattern seen in NAI *Incorrect: Scurvy* - Caused by **vitamin C deficiency**, leads to defective collagen synthesis - Results in **subperiosteal hemorrhages**, **metaphyseal fractures**, and **periosteal elevation** that closely mimic NAI - Additional features include **gingival bleeding**, **petechiae**, **follicular hyperkeratosis**, and **poor wound healing** *Incorrect: Caffey's disease* - Also known as **infantile cortical hyperostosis**, presents in infants under 6 months - Causes **periosteal reactions**, **bone thickening**, and **soft tissue swelling** in long bones, ribs, and mandible - The periosteal new bone formation can be mistaken for healing fractures from NAI, making it an important differential
Question 2: Which is the most common elbow fracture in children?
- A. Supracondylar fracture (Correct Answer)
- B. Olecranon fracture
- C. Medial epicondyle fracture
- D. Lateral condyle fracture
Explanation: ***Supracondylar fracture*** - These fractures account for 60-70% of all elbow fractures in children, making them the **most common type**. - They typically occur from a **fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH)**, leading to hyperextension of the elbow and forces exerted on the distal humerus. *Lateral condyle fracture* - While common, these fractures are less frequent than supracondylar fractures, typically comprising about 15-20% of elbow fractures in children. - They usually result from a direct blow or **varus stress** to the elbow. *Medial epicondyle fracture* - These fractures are less common than supracondylar fractures, often occurring in older children or adolescents during sports activities due to **valgus stress** or muscle avulsion. - They are frequently associated with elbow dislocation. *Olecranon fracture* - Olecranon fractures are relatively rare in children compared to other elbow fractures, often resulting from a direct blow or fall. - They typically involve the **proximal ulna** and are less common than fractures involving the distal humerus.
Question 3: Which of the following is false regarding clavicle?
- A. First bone to ossify
- B. Membranous ossification
- C. Fracture can be treated with figure of 8 bandage
- D. Non-union is the commonest complication of clavicle fractures (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Non-union is the commonest complication of clavicle fractures*** - While clavicle fractures are relatively common, **malunion** (healing in an imperfect position) is more frequent than non-union. - **Non-union** typically occurs in less than 5% of all clavicle fractures, making it a rare complication rather than the commonest. *First bone to ossify* - The clavicle is indeed the **first bone to ossify** in the human embryo, beginning around the 5th to 6th week of gestation. - This characteristic highlights its unique developmental pathway compared to most other bones. *Membranous ossification* - The clavicle develops primarily through **intramembranous ossification**, which involves direct ossification of mesenchymal tissue without a cartilaginous precursor. - It's one of the few bones in the body, along with some bones of the skull, that ossifies this way. *Fracture can be treated with figure of 8 bandage* - A **figure-of-eight bandage** was historically used for clavicle fractures to provide reduction and immobilization. - However, current evidence suggests that a **simple sling** is equally effective and often more comfortable, with less risk of complications like neurovascular compression.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a common fracture in children?
- A. Supracondylar humerus
- B. Fracture of hand (Correct Answer)
- C. Radius-ulna fracture
- D. Lateral condyle humerus
Explanation: ***Fracture of hand*** - While hand fractures can occur in children, they are generally **less common** compared to fractures of the long bones, especially those of the **upper extremity**, due to the types of activities and falls children typically experience. - The small bones of the hand are often better protected or less frequently exposed to severe direct trauma in routine childhood activities that lead to fractures elsewhere. *Lateral condyle humerus* - This is a common and often challenging fracture in children, particularly affecting those aged 6-10 years. - It usually results from a fall on an **outstretched hand**, with the elbow in extension. *Supracondylar humerus* - This is one of the **most common elbow fractures** in children and is typically due to a fall on an **outstretched hand** with the elbow extended or hyperextended. - Its significance lies in the potential for neurovascular complications due to its proximity to vital structures. *Radius-ulna fracture* - **Forearm fractures** involving the radius, ulna, or both are extremely common in children, often resulting from falls onto an **outstretched hand**. - The **distal radius** is a particularly frequent site of fracture in this age group.
Question 5: In a radiograph of suspected non-accidental injury, which of the following fractures is LEAST specific for child abuse?
- A. Metaphysis corner fracture
- B. Costochondral & rib junction fracture
- C. Parietal bone fracture (Correct Answer)
- D. Sternal fracture
Explanation: ***Parietal bone fracture*** - While **parietal bone fractures** are commonly seen in both accidental and non-accidental pediatric head trauma, they are **less specific for child abuse** compared to the classic skeletal injuries listed below. - Isolated skull fractures, particularly **simple linear parietal fractures**, can result from accidental falls and require additional clinical context (age, mechanism, associated injuries) to determine if abuse is suspected. - Complex, multiple, or depressed skull fractures are more concerning, but a simple parietal fracture alone is less diagnostic than the pathognomonic fractures of NAI. *Metaphyseal corner fracture* - Also known as **"bucket handle"** or **"corner" fractures**, these are **highly specific and virtually pathognomonic** for **non-accidental injury** in infants and young children. - They result from violent **shaking, twisting, or pulling forces** applied to the extremities, causing avulsion at the metaphyseal-epiphyseal junction. - These fractures are rarely seen in accidental trauma. *Costochondral & rib junction fracture* - **Posterior rib fractures** and **costochondral junction fractures** are **highly specific for NAI** in infants. - They result from **anteroposterior chest compression** during forceful squeezing or gripping of the thorax. - Accidental rib fractures in children are rare due to chest wall elasticity, making these fractures particularly suspicious. *Sternal fracture* - **Sternal fractures** are extremely rare in children due to the **flexibility of the pediatric sternum** and chest wall. - Their presence, especially without a history of **severe high-impact trauma** (e.g., motor vehicle collision), is **highly suspicious for non-accidental injury**. - Often result from direct forceful blows or severe compression injuries.
Question 6: Fracture of the femur in young children (2-5 years) is typically treated by:
- A. Gallow's splint
- B. Open reduction (surgical intervention)
- C. Closed reduction & splintage (Correct Answer)
- D. Intramedullary nailing (surgical fixation)
Explanation: ***Closed reduction & splintage*** - In young children (2-5 years), **femur fractures** are often treated non-operatively with **closed reduction** and immediate application of a **hip spica cast** or other splintage. - This approach takes advantage of the excellent **bone remodeling potential** in young children, allowing for good functional outcomes. *Open reduction (surgical intervention)* - **Open reduction** is generally reserved for open fractures, - It is also indicated for fractures with associated neurovascular injury, compartment syndrome, or in older children where non-operative management has failed. *Gallow's splint* - The **Gallow's splint** (also known as Bryant's traction) involves suspending both legs vertically, and is typically used for **femur fractures in infants younger than 1 year** due to the risk of vascular compromise or compartment syndrome in older or heavier children. - It is not the primary treatment for children aged 2-5 years. *Intramedullary nailing (surgical fixation)* - **Intramedullary nailing** is a surgical option, usually considered for **femur fractures in older children** (typically 6 years and above) or adolescents. - It provides stable fixation but is generally avoided in very young children due to potential damage to the **growth plates** or complications related to implant size.
Question 7: What is the angle shown in the image known as?
- A. Cobb angle (Correct Answer)
- B. Bohler angle
- C. Ferguson angle
- D. Baumann angle
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Cobb angle*** - The image displays a method for measuring the angle of a spinal curvature, which is known as the **Cobb angle** - This measurement is routinely used to assess the severity of **scoliosis** by drawing lines parallel to the vertebral endplates at the extreme ends of the curve and then determining the angle between these lines - The Cobb angle is the **gold standard** for quantifying scoliosis and monitoring curve progression *Incorrect Option: Bohler angle* - The **Bohler angle** is a measurement used in the assessment of **calcaneal fractures** - It is formed by two lines drawn on a lateral foot X-ray and is not relevant to spinal deformities *Incorrect Option: Ferguson angle* - The **Ferguson angle**, also known as the lumbosacral angle, measures the angle of the sacral base relative to the horizontal - It describes the degree of **lordosis** and is not used to quantify scoliosis as depicted in the image *Incorrect Option: Baumann angle* - The **Baumann angle** is an important measurement used in pediatric orthopedics to assess the alignment of the **distal humerus** after a supracondylar fracture - It is irrelevant to spinal imaging and curvature assessment
Question 8: A 4-year-old child while playing suddenly had his elbow pulled by his servant maid's hand and is now continuously crying, not allowing anyone to touch his elbow. He is keeping his elbow extended. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Radial head fracture
- B. Pulled elbow (Correct Answer)
- C. Elbow dislocation
- D. Supracondylar fracture
Explanation: ***Pulled elbow*** - This classic presentation involves a sudden pull on the extended arm, causing the **annular ligament** to slip over the **radial head**, characteristic of a pulled elbow (Nursemaid's elbow). - The child holds the arm in a pronated-extended position, refusing to use it due to pain, and cries when the elbow is touched, which aligns with the clinical picture. *Radial head fracture* - While a fracture can occur with trauma, a history of a distinct pulling mechanism and the absence of swelling or deformity make a **pulled elbow** more likely. - A radial head fracture would typically present with more localized pain and potentially **crepitus** or obvious swelling upon examination. *Supracondylar fracture* - This fracture usually results from a fall onto an outstretched hand, a different mechanism than described. - A supracondylar fracture would typically involve significant swelling, **ecchymosis**, and potential neurovascular compromise, which are not mentioned here. *Elbow dislocation* - Elbow dislocations usually result from high-energy trauma and present with obvious deformity and severe pain. - The history of a "pull" and the child holding the arm in an **extended, pronated position** are more consistent with a pulled elbow than a full dislocation.
Question 9: 4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex of the radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as -
- A. Torus Fracture
- B. Greenstick fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Galleazi Fracture
- D. Monteggia Fracture Dislocation
Explanation: ***Greenstick fracture*** - This fracture type involves a **broken anterior cortex** but an **intact posterior cortex**, leading to an exaggerated bowing of the bone, characteristic of a greenstick fracture. - It occurs predominantly in **children** due to their softer, more flexible bones, which tend to bend rather than fully break when subjected to force like a fall on an outstretched hand. *Torus Fracture* - A torus fracture, or **buckle fracture**, involves compression of the bone leading to a bulging or buckling of the cortex, usually on one side, without a complete break in the bone. - While it occurs in children, it presents as a compression injury and not with a broken cortex and intact posterior cortex with bowing. *Galleazi Fracture* - A Galleazi fracture is a fracture of the **distal radius** with **dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ)**. - This fracture pattern involves two bones and two distinct injuries (fracture and dislocation), which is fundamentally different from the described single-bone incomplete fracture. *Monteggia Fracture Dislocation* - A Monteggia fracture involves a fracture of the **proximal ulna** with **dislocation of the radial head** at the elbow. - This injury also involves two bones and two distinct components (fracture and dislocation) and affects a different anatomical location (ulna and elbow) than described.
Question 10: Which one of the following is the most ideal treatment for a displaced fracture of the lateral condyle of the humerus in a 7-year-old child?
- A. Open reduction and internal fixation (Correct Answer)
- B. Open reduction with plaster immobilization
- C. Closed reduction with plaster immobilization
- D. All of the above
Explanation: ***Open reduction and internal fixation*** - **Displaced lateral condyle fractures** in children require **anatomical reduction** and stable fixation to prevent complications like **non-union** and **cubitus valgus deformity**. - **Internal fixation** provides the necessary stability for healing and allows for earlier mobilization, which is crucial for elbow joint function. *Open reduction with plaster immobilization* - While it achieves open reduction, relying solely on **plaster immobilization** after reducing a displaced fracture of the lateral humeral condyle in a child often leads to **loss of reduction**. - This method does not provide adequate stability for this type of fracture, increasing the risk of **displacement** and **malunion**. *Closed reduction with plaster immobilization* - **Closed reduction** is typically attempted only for **minimally displaced** or **undisplaced fractures** of the lateral condyle. - Given that the fracture is described as **displaced**, closed reduction is unlikely to achieve and maintain an adequate anatomical alignment.
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