Growth Plate Injuries — MCQs
Fracture at which site affects the longitudinal growth of a bone?
All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis except which of the following?
Osteochondroma arises from which part of the bone?
Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?
All of the following are described surgical procedures for CTE V except -
The image shows a pediatric fracture involving the growth plate. Which classification system and stage best describes this fracture?
Which of the following statements regarding fractures of the lateral condyle of the humerus is false?
A 10-year-old obese boy was referred to the emergency department with a history of hip pain. He was observed to be limping and complained of severe pain. Which of the following investigations is least appropriate for this condition?
Cubitus varus is most commonly seen in:
Identify the condition shown in the given X-ray: 
Growth Plate Injuries Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Fracture at which site affects the longitudinal growth of a bone?
- A. Epiphyseal plate (Correct Answer)
- B. Diaphysis
- C. Epiphysis
- D. Metaphysis
Explanation: ***Epiphyseal plate*** - The **epiphyseal plate**, also known as the **growth plate**, is a cartilaginous disc responsible for the **longitudinal growth** of long bones. - A fracture in this region can damage the **chondrocytes** and disrupt the normal ossification process, potentially leading to **growth arrest** or limb length discrepancies. *Diaphysis* - The **diaphysis** is the **shaft** or central part of a long bone. - While a fracture here can cause pain and instability, it typically does not directly affect the **longitudinal growth** potential of the bone. *Epiphysis* - The **epiphysis** is the end part of a long bone, initially separated from the main bone by cartilage but later fused with it. - Although it contains the epiphyseal plate in growing individuals, a fracture to the epiphysis itself (excluding the growth plate) primarily affects the **joint surface** and stability, rather than longitudinal growth directly. *Metaphysis* - The **metaphysis** is the transitional zone between the diaphysis and the epiphysis, adjacent to the growth plate. - While fractures in this area can be close to the growth plate, a metaphyseal fracture generally does not directly damage the **growth plate cartilage** to the same extent as a fracture through the plate itself, making its impact on longitudinal growth less direct or severe.
Question 2: All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis except which of the following?
- A. Tubercles of humerus.
- B. Posterior tubercle of talus. (Correct Answer)
- C. Trochanters of femur.
- D. Tibial tuberosity.
Explanation: ***Posterior tubercle of talus*** - The posterior tubercle of the **talus** is not typically considered a traction epiphysis because it's an integral part of the talar body, involved in joint articulation rather than being a site of significant muscle or ligament attachment pulling on a separate ossification center. - While the **flexor hallucis longus** tendon grooves its surface, its primary function and development are not driven by the tensile forces characteristic of traction epiphyses. *Tubercles of humerus* - The **greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus** are classic examples of **traction epiphyses**. - They serve as insertion sites for the **rotator cuff muscles** (supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis), where strong repetitive pulling forces stimulate their development. *Trochanters of femur* - The **greater and lesser trochanters of the femur** are well-known examples of **traction epiphyses**. - They provide points of attachment for powerful hip and thigh muscles, such as the **gluteal muscles** (greater trochanter) and **iliopsoas** (lesser trochanter), which exert significant traction forces during growth. *Tibial tuberosity* - The **tibial tuberosity** is a prominent example of a **traction epiphysis**. - It serves as the insertion point for the **patellar ligament**, transmitting the force of the **quadriceps femoris** muscle, making it subject to repetitive traction during growth and development.
Question 3: Osteochondroma arises from which part of the bone?
- A. Medullary cavity
- B. Diaphysis
- C. Metaphysis (Correct Answer)
- D. Epiphysis
Explanation: ***Metaphysis*** - **Osteochondromas** are outgrowths of bone and cartilage that typically arise from the **metaphyseal regions** of long bones, such as the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. - This region is characterized by active **endochondral ossification**, which is the process interrupted in the formation of ostecochondromas. *Medullary cavity* - The **medullary cavity** contains bone marrow and is not the primary site of origin for osteochondromas, which are exophytic lesions. - While some tumors can extend into the medullary cavity, their origin is generally from the outer bone surfaces rather than the central cavity. *Diaphysis* - The **diaphysis** is the main or mid-section of a long bone (the shaft), and it is primarily composed of compact bone, with less active growth than the metaphysis. - Though osteochondromas can occur in the diaphysis, they are far less common than in the metaphysis, which is the site of rapid bone growth. *Epiphysis* - The **epiphysis** is the end part of a long bone, initially separated from the main bone by cartilage but later fusing with it. - While it's a site of growth, osteochondromas are very rarely found in the epiphysis, as their growth mechanism is more closely linked to the **physeal plate** located in the metaphysis.
Question 4: Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?
- A. Type II (Correct Answer)
- B. Type I
- C. Type III
- D. Type IV
Explanation: ***Type II*** - The **Thurston Holland sign** is characteristic of a **Salter-Harris Type II fracture**, often described as a metaphyseal fragment (the "Thurston Holland fragment") remaining attached to the epiphyseal plate. - This fragment typically occurs at the corner of the **metaphysis**, making the fracture line extend obliquely through the physis and then along the metaphysis. *Type I* - A **Salter-Harris Type I fracture** involves a clean horizontal separation through the **growth plate (physis)** without involving the metaphysis or epiphysis. - No metaphyseal fragment is seen in Type I fractures, distinguishing it from the Thurston Holland sign. *Type III* - **Salter-Harris Type III fractures** extend from the **physis into the epiphysis**, creating an intra-articular fracture involving the joint surface. - These fractures do not involve a metaphyseal fragment, as they solely affect the physis and epiphysis. *Type IV* - **Salter-Harris Type IV fractures** involve a fracture line extending through the **epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis**, effectively dividing the bone into three parts. - While complex, Type IV injuries do not specifically describe the characteristic metaphyseal fragment that defines the Thurston Holland sign.
Question 5: All of the following are described surgical procedures for CTE V except -
- A. Dwyer's osteotomy
- B. Salter's osteotomy (Correct Answer)
- C. Posteromedial soft tissue release
- D. Triple Arthrodesis
Explanation: ***Salter's osteotomy*** - **Salter's osteotomy** is a procedure primarily used for treating **developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)**, aiming to redirect the acetabulum. - It is not a described surgical procedure for the correction of **congenital talipes equinovarus (CTEV)**. *Dwyer's osteotomy* - **Dwyer's osteotomy** is a surgical procedure performed on the **calcaneus** to correct **hindfoot varus**, typically seen in CTEV. - It involves removing a wedge of bone from the lateral aspect of the calcaneus. *Posteromedial soft tissue release* - This is a common and traditional surgical procedure for correcting severe **CTEV** by addressing the contracted soft tissues on the medial and posterior aspects of the foot. - It involves releasing structures such as the **tibial tendon**, **flexor digitorum longus**, **flexor hallucis longus**, and the **posterior ankle joint capsule**. *Triple Arthrodesis* - **Triple arthrodesis** is a salvage procedure that involves fusing three joints in the foot: the **talonavicular**, **calcaneocuboid**, and **subtalar** joints. - It is used in older children or adolescents with severe, rigid, or recurrent CTEV, often after failed conservative or primary surgical treatments.
Question 6: The image shows a pediatric fracture involving the growth plate. Which classification system and stage best describes this fracture?
- A. Gartland 3
- B. Salter Harris 3 (Correct Answer)
- C. Gartland 2
- D. Salter Harris 2
Explanation: ***Salter Harris 3*** - The image shows a **fracture extending from the epiphyseal surface down through the growth plate (physis) and exiting through the epiphysis** into the joint. This configuration is characteristic of a Salter-Harris type III fracture. - Salter-Harris Type III fractures disrupt the **articular cartilage** and can have a poorer prognosis due to potential joint incongruity and growth disturbance if not properly reduced. *Gartland 3* - The **Gartland classification** is specifically used for **supracondylar fractures of the humerus** in children, which is a different type of fracture involving the distal humerus metaphysis, not typically the growth plate itself in this manner. - Gartland type 3 refers to a **completely displaced supracondylar fracture** with no cortical contact, involving the metaphysis proximal to the growth plate. *Gartland 2* - **Gartland type 2** describes a **displaced supracondylar fracture** with an intact posterior cortex, also referring to a fracture of the distal humerus metaphysis, not a trans-growth plate fracture. - This classification is not applicable to the image which clearly depicts a fracture involving the epiphysis and physis. *Salter Harris 2* - A **Salter-Harris type II fracture** involves the **physis and extends into the metaphysis**, creating a triangular fragment known as the "Thurston Holland sign." - In the provided image, the fracture line clearly extends into the **epiphysis**, not just the metaphysis, distinguishing it from a Salter-Harris type II.
Question 7: Which of the following statements regarding fractures of the lateral condyle of the humerus is false?
- A. Salter Harris type IV injury
- B. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy occurs
- C. Cubitus varus occur more commonly than valgus (Correct Answer)
- D. Most common complication of surgically treated cases is cubitus valgus deformity
Explanation: ***Cubitus varus occur more commonly than valgus*** - This statement is **false**. Fractures of the lateral condyle of the humerus typically lead to **cubitus valgus** deformity, not cubitus varus, due to growth disturbances at the lateral physis. - The fragment displaces laterally and distally, leading to a loss of the normal valgus angle of the elbow. *Salter Harris type IV injury* - Fractures of the lateral condyle of the humerus are indeed classified as **Salter-Harris Type IV injuries** because the fracture line extends through the epiphysis, crosses the physis, and exits through the metaphysis. - This classification indicates involvement of the **growth plate**, which carries a higher risk of growth disturbances and deformity. *Tardy ulnar nerve palsy occurs* - **Tardy ulnar nerve palsy** is a known long-term complication of lateral condyle fractures, particularly when a cubitus valgus deformity develops. - The valgus deformity can stretch the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle, leading to delayed onset nerve symptoms and dysfunction. *Most common complication of surgically treated cases is cubitus valgus deformity* - Even with surgical treatment, **cubitus valgus deformity** remains a significant and common complication due to potential growth arrest at the lateral physis or incomplete reduction and fixation. - Inadequate reduction or fixation can lead to continued growth disturbance and subsequent angular deformity.
Question 8: A 10-year-old obese boy was referred to the emergency department with a history of hip pain. He was observed to be limping and complained of severe pain. Which of the following investigations is least appropriate for this condition?
- A. MRI of the hip
- B. CT scan of hip
- C. USG of hip (Correct Answer)
- D. X-ray of the hip
Explanation: ***USG of hip*** - An **ultrasound (USG)** of the hip is generally not the primary imaging modality for diagnosing conditions like **slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)**, which is suggested by the patient's presentation. - While USG can detect effusions or synovitis, it provides poor visualization of bony structures and the physeal plate, which are crucial for diagnosing SCFE. *X-ray of the hip* - **X-rays** (AP and frog-leg lateral views) are the **initial and most important imaging study** for diagnosing SCFE. - They effectively visualize the **epiphyseal displacement** relative to the metaphysis and are sufficient for diagnosis in most cases. *MRI of the hip* - **MRI** is highly sensitive for detecting early or subtle SCFE, especially when X-rays are inconclusive. - It can evaluate the **physeal edema**, chondral changes, and avascular necrosis, providing more detailed information than X-rays. *CT scan of hip* - A **CT scan** provides excellent bony detail and can precisely assess the **degree of physeal slip** and femoral head deformity. - It may be used for surgical planning, especially in complex cases or when the slip is difficult to assess with X-rays.
Question 9: Cubitus varus is most commonly seen in:
- A. Rickets
- B. Malunited supracondylar fracture
- C. Post-inflammatory epiphyseal damage
- D. Fracture of the lateral condyle of the humerus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fracture of the lateral condyle of the humerus*** - A fracture of the **lateral condyle of the humerus** that goes untreated or is improperly treated is a common cause of **cubitus varus** due to growth disturbance of the lateral physis. - This type of fracture often leads to **growth arrest** or **asymmetrical growth** of the distal humerus, resulting in an angular deformity. *Rickets* - **Rickets** is a metabolic bone disease characterized by defective bone mineralization, primarily affecting rapidly growing bones. - While rickets can cause various bone deformities, including bowing of the legs (genu varum), it does not directly lead to **cubitus varus** in the elbow through a specific mechanism. *Malunited supracondylar fracture* - A **malunited supracondylar fracture** of the humerus is the most common cause of **cubitus varus** deformity. - This occurs due to rotational or angular malalignment causing the distal fragment to unite in an altered position. *Post-inflammatory epiphyseal damage* - **Post-inflammatory epiphyseal damage** can lead to altered growth and angular deformities, but it is a less common and less specific cause of **cubitus varus** compared to a malunited supracondylar fracture or lateral condyle fracture. - This type of damage can result from conditions like **septic arthritis**, but its association with cubitus varus is secondary to growth plate disruption.
Question 10: Identify the condition shown in the given X-ray: 
- A. Lateral epicondyle of femur
- B. Osgood-Schlatter disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Tibial tuberosity fracture
- D. Gerdy's tubercle fracture
Explanation: ***Osgood-Schlatter disease*** - The X-ray shows fragmentation and irregularity of the **tibial tuberosity**, which is characteristic of Osgood-Schlatter disease. - This condition typically affects adolescents undergoing rapid growth spurts and presents with **pain and swelling** at the tibial tuberosity. *Tibial tuberosity fracture* - This usually involves a **clear fracture line** and displacement of the tibial tuberosity. - It is typically caused by a **sudden, forceful contraction** of the quadriceps muscle. *Lateral epicondyle of femur* - The X-ray shows changes at the **tibial tuberosity**, not the lateral epicondyle of the femur. - The lateral epicondyle is located at the **distal end of the femur**, near the knee joint. *Gerdy's tubercle fracture* - Gerdy's tubercle is the insertion point of the **iliotibial band** on the lateral aspect of the proximal tibia. - Fractures here are **rare** and would present differently on X-ray compared to the observed tibial tuberosity changes.
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