Benign Bone Tumors — MCQs
Which of the following is a differential of giant cell tumor?
Bone tumor arising from epiphysis is?
What is the most appropriate treatment for a soap bubble appearance at the lower end of the radius?
Expansile lytic lesion with fluid-fluid levels involving the proximal metaphysis of fibula in an early adolescent female is typical of?
A 28-year-old lady presented with wrist pain. X-ray of the wrist shows a lytic eccentric lesion in the lower end of the radius with a soap bubble appearance. What is the next plan of management?
Which of the following is an epiphyseal tumor?
Most common benign tumor of bone?
Elderly female present with pain and swelling in the thigh. Xray shows multiple lytic lesions in distal femur with no periosteal reaction. Aspirate from the swelling shows homogenous serosanguinous fluid with RBCs. Which investigation can confirm the diagnosis?
Open reduction (OR) is not required in which fracture?
Which of the following classifications is used to assess the fracture shown below?
Benign Bone Tumors Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is a differential of giant cell tumor?
- A. Chondroblastoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Osteogenic sarcoma
- C. Ossifying fibroma
- D. Non-ossifying fibroma
Explanation: **Chondroblastoma** - Both **Chondroblastoma** and **giant cell tumor (GCT)** are epiphyseal lesions that can occur in a similar age group and have some overlapping radiographic features, making them a differential. - Histologically, chondroblastoma can contain **multinucleated giant cells**, which may be confused with those found in GCT. *Osteogenic sarcoma* - **Osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma)** is a malignant bone tumor primarily affecting the metaphysis of long bones, in contrast to GCT's epiphyseal location [1]. - Radiographically, osteosarcoma often presents with an aggressive, destructive pattern including **periosteal reaction** (e.g., sunburst, Codman's triangle), which is less typical for GCT [1]. *Ossifying fibroma* - **Ossifying fibroma** is a benign fibro-osseous lesion most commonly found in the jaws, distinctly different from GCT's predilection for epiphyses of long bones. - Histologically, it's characterized by the presence of **mineralized material** resembling bone or cementum within a fibrous stroma, unlike the abundant multinucleated giant cells of GCT [1]. *Non-ossifying fibroma* - A **non-ossifying fibroma (NOF)**, also known as a fibrous cortical defect, is typically a benign, asymptomatic, and self-limiting lesion found in the metaphysis of long bones, usually in children and adolescents. - It is characterized by **fibrous tissue** and foam cells but lacks the prominent multinucleated giant cells and epiphyseal location characteristic of GCT [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1205-1206. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1208.
Question 2: Bone tumor arising from epiphysis is?
- A. Chondroblastoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Chondrosarcoma
- C. Osteoid osteoma
- D. Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation: ***Chondroblastoma*** - **Chondroblastomas** are rare, benign cartilaginous tumors that characteristically arise in the **epiphysis** or apophysis of long bones. - They typically occur in individuals between the ages of 10 and 25 and often present with pain and swelling around the affected joint. *Chondrosarcoma* - **Chondrosarcomas** are malignant cartilaginous tumors that typically affect the **metaphysis or diaphysis** of long bones or flat bones, not the epiphysis. - They are more common in older adults and are characterized by destructive bone lesions and a cartilaginous matrix. *Ewing's sarcoma* - **Ewing's sarcoma** is a highly malignant tumor that primarily affects the **diaphysis** of long bones and flat bones like the pelvis, ribs, and scapula. - It most commonly occurs in children and young adults and is characterized by a "onion-skin" appearance on X-ray due to periosteal reaction. *Osteoid osteoma* - **Osteoid osteomas** are small, benign bone tumors characterized by a central nidus of osteoid and woven bone, typically found in the **cortex of long bones** (e.g., femur, tibia). - They are classically associated with nocturnal pain that is dramatically relieved by **NSAIDs** like aspirin, and they rarely involve the epiphysis. [1] **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1205-1206.
Question 3: What is the most appropriate treatment for a soap bubble appearance at the lower end of the radius?
- A. Local excision
- B. Excision and bone grafting (Correct Answer)
- C. Amputation
- D. Radiotherapy
Explanation: ***Excision and bone grafting*** - A **soap bubble appearance** at the lower end of the radius is highly suggestive of a **giant cell tumor (GCT)**, which is locally aggressive and has a high recurrence rate after simple curettage. - **Excision of the tumor and filling the defect with bone graft** is the preferred treatment to reduce recurrence and maintain skeletal integrity. *Local excision* - While local excision might remove the visible tumor, **GCTs are known to recur frequently** (up to 50%) after intralesional treatments like simple curettage. - It does not adequately address microscopic extensions or the risk of **local aggressive behavior**. *Amputation* - **Amputation is an overly aggressive and unnecessary treatment** for a GCT, as it is a benign but locally aggressive tumor. - It would be considered only in rare cases of extensive soft tissue invasion or intractable recurrence, which is not implied by a "soap bubble appearance." *Radiotherapy* - **Radiotherapy is generally not the first-line treatment for GCTs** due to concerns about **malignant transformation** (osteosarcoma) in a small percentage of cases, especially with high doses. - It may be considered for unresectable tumors or recurrent lesions in difficult anatomical locations, or as an adjuvant.
Question 4: Expansile lytic lesion with fluid-fluid levels involving the proximal metaphysis of fibula in an early adolescent female is typical of?
- A. Giant cell tumor
- B. Aneurysmal bone cyst (Correct Answer)
- C. Fibrous dysplasia
- D. Hemangioma
Explanation: ***Aneurysmal bone cyst*** - An **expansile lytic lesion** with **fluid-fluid levels** is a classical radiological finding for an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). - ABCs often occur in the **metaphysis of long bones** in children and adolescents, fitting the age and location described. *Giant cell tumor* - While a **lytic lesion**, giant cell tumors typically occur in the **epiphysis** of long bones in young adults, usually after skeletal maturity. - Though they can rarely have fluid-fluid levels, they are not the typical presentation in an early adolescent. *Fibrous dysplasia* - This condition presents as a **ground-glass matrix** on imaging, often with an expansile appearance, but it typically lacks **fluid-fluid levels**. - It is a developmental anomaly where normal bone is replaced by fibrous tissue and immature bone. *Hemangioma* - Bone hemangiomas are less common in long bones and usually present as a **lytic lesion** with a characteristic **honeycomb or spoked-wheel pattern**. - They do not typically show prominent **fluid-fluid levels** in an expansile lesion.
Question 5: A 28-year-old lady presented with wrist pain. X-ray of the wrist shows a lytic eccentric lesion in the lower end of the radius with a soap bubble appearance. What is the next plan of management?
- A. Extended curettage with phenol
- B. Biopsy of the lesion (Correct Answer)
- C. Bone curettage and bone grafting
- D. Extended curettage with phenol and bone grafting
Explanation: ***Biopsy of the lesion*** - A definitive **diagnosis is crucial** before any surgical intervention for a bone lesion, especially one with a characteristic appearance like "soap bubble." Biopsy will confirm the nature of the lesion, ruling out malignancy and guiding treatment. - The presented lesion, with its **lytic, eccentric, soap-bubble appearance** in the lower radius of a young adult, is highly suggestive of a **giant cell tumor (GCT)**. However, other diagnoses like chondroblastoma or aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC) can also mimic this appearance. *Extended curettage with phenol* - This is a treatment option for certain benign aggressive bone tumors like **giant cell tumors** after diagnosis, not the initial diagnostic step. - Performing this procedure without a **histological diagnosis** could lead to inappropriate treatment for other possible lesions. *Bone curettage and bone grafting* - This is a surgical treatment method typically used for **benign bone tumors** to remove the lesion and fill the defect, but it is performed after a definitive diagnosis. - **Performing it blindly** without knowing the exact pathology carries the risk of inadequate treatment or unnecessary surgery for a lesion that might require different management. *Extended curettage with phenol and bone grafting* - This comprehensive treatment often follows a **confirmed diagnosis** of an aggressive but benign bone tumor like GCT to minimize recurrence. - It is not the **initial diagnostic step** and carries risks if the underlying pathology is not accurately identified.
Question 6: Which of the following is an epiphyseal tumor?
- A. Osteosarcoma
- B. Osteoid osteoma
- C. Chondroblastoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Adamantinoma
Explanation: ***Chondroblastoma*** - **Chondroblastoma** is a rare, benign cartilaginous tumor that typically originates in the **epiphysis** of long bones before the closure of growth plates. - It is histologically characterized by chondroblast-like cells, multinucleated giant cells, and chondroid matrix, and radiographically appears as a lytic lesion with a sclerotic rim in the epiphysis. *Osteosarcoma* - **Osteosarcoma** is the most common primary malignant bone tumor and typically originates in the **metaphysis** of long bones, particularly around the knee. - It invades the surrounding bone and soft tissues, often presenting with a **Codman triangle** or **sunburst pattern** on imaging studies. *Osteoid osteoma* - **Osteoid osteoma** is a benign bone-forming tumor primarily found in the **cortex** of long bones, although it can occur in other locations, presenting with nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs. - It is characterized by a central radiolucent nidus surrounded by reactive sclerotic bone. *Adamantinoma* - **Adamantinoma** is an extremely rare, low-grade malignant tumor that almost exclusively occurs in the **tibia diaphysis**. - It is thought to originate from epithelial cells and presents as a lytic lesion within the cortical bone, often with a polycystic appearance.
Question 7: Most common benign tumor of bone?
- A. Osteoma
- B. Simple bone cyst
- C. Osteochondroma (Correct Answer)
- D. Osteoid osteoma
Explanation: ***Osteochondroma*** - This is the **most common benign bone tumor**, characterized by a bony spur with a cartilaginous cap. - It typically arises from the **metaphysis of long bones**, especially around the knee. *Osteoma* - Osteomas are **benign, slow-growing tumors** composed of mature compact or cancellous bone. - They are most commonly found in the **skull and facial bones**, not typically in long bones. *Simple bone cyst* - This is a **fluid-filled lesion** of bone, not a true neoplasm, frequently found in the metaphysis of long bones in children. - It is often discovered incidentally or after a **pathological fracture**. *Osteoid osteoma* - Characterized by a **small, benign bone tumor** with a central nidus of osteoid and trabecular bone, surrounded by reactive sclerotic bone. - It classically causes **nocturnal pain** that is relieved by NSAIDs.
Question 8: Elderly female present with pain and swelling in the thigh. Xray shows multiple lytic lesions in distal femur with no periosteal reaction. Aspirate from the swelling shows homogenous serosanguinous fluid with RBCs. Which investigation can confirm the diagnosis?
- A. S. PTH levels
- B. S. Calcium levels
- C. CD1a IHC
- D. Biopsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Biopsy*** - A biopsy is the **definitive diagnostic tool** for establishing the presence of malignant cells that would cause lytic lesions and serosanguinous fluid in an elderly patient. - The findings of **multiple lytic lesions** in an elderly patient, coupled with serosanguinous fluid, strongly suggest a primary bone tumor or metastatic disease, which can only be confirmed histologically. *S. PTH levels* - **Elevated PTH** levels are indicative of **hyperparathyroidism**, which can cause bone resorption and lytic lesions (osteitis fibrosa cystica). - However, in this case, the fluid aspirate points towards a more localized, possibly neoplastic process rather than a systemic metabolic bone disorder as the primary concern. *S. Calcium levels* - **Hypercalcemia** can be associated with lytic bone lesions, particularly in cases of malignancy (e.g., **multiple myeloma** or **metastatic cancer**). - While supportive, calcium levels alone are insufficient to **confirm the specific diagnosis** of the underlying cause of the lytic lesions. *CD1a IHC* - **CD1a immunohistochemistry** is primarily used to diagnose **Langerhans cell histiocytosis**, a condition typically seen in children and young adults. - Given the patient's age and the imaging findings of multiple lytic lesions, Langerhans cell histiocytosis is an unlikely diagnosis, making CD1a IHC not the primary or confirming investigation.
Question 9: Open reduction (OR) is not required in which fracture?
- A. Fracture of the patella
- B. Fracture of the outer one-third of the radius (Correct Answer)
- C. Displaced fracture of the olecranon
- D. Fracture of the condyle of the humerus
Explanation: ***Fracture of the outer one-third of the radius*** - Fractures of the **outer one-third of the radius** (distal radius fractures) often can be managed with **closed reduction and casting** if stable and adequately reduced. - While some unstable distal radius fractures require OR, many stable patterns, especially those with minimal displacement or good alignment after closed manipulation, do not. *Fracture of the patella* - Many patellar fractures lead to significant **extensor mechanism disruption**, necessitating OR with **tension band wiring** or screw fixation to restore quadriceps function. - Displaced patellar fractures, especially transverse ones, require surgical fixation to prevent extensor lag and **nonunion**. *Displaced fracture of the olecranon* - Displaced olecranon fractures disrupt the **triceps mechanism** and compromise elbow stability, almost always requiring **open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)**, typically with tension band wiring. - Without surgical repair, a displaced olecranon fracture can lead to significant loss of extension strength and **nonunion**. *Fracture of the condyle of the humerus* - Fractures of the humeral condyle, particularly in children, often require OR due to the risk of **avascular necrosis** (especially lateral condyle) and the need for **precise anatomical reduction** to prevent joint incongruity and cubitus varus/valgus deformities. - Intra-articular and displaced condylar fractures almost invariably require surgical intervention to ensure harmonious joint function and prevent long-term complications like **stiffness and deformity**.
Question 10: Which of the following classifications is used to assess the fracture shown below?
- A. Gustilo classification
- B. Salter and Harris classification
- C. Pipkins classification (Correct Answer)
- D. Weber classification
Explanation: ***Pipkins classification*** - The image shows a **femoral head fracture**, indicated by the arrow, with internal fixation. The Pipkins classification system specifically categorizes fractures of the **femoral head**. - This system helps guide treatment and prognostication for these particular hip injuries, differentiating based on location and associated injuries. *Gustilo classification* - The Gustilo classification is used for **open fractures**, assessing the extent of soft tissue damage and contamination. - The image displays a post-operative X-ray of a surgically fixed fracture, and the classification is not applicable here as it pertains to the initial presentation of an open fracture. *Salter and Harris classification* - The Salter-Harris classification system is used for **growth plate (physeal) fractures** in children. - The image shows a fracture in an adult bone (as evidenced by the fused growth plates and the morphology of the bone), making this classification irrelevant. *Weber classification* - The Weber classification is used for **ankle fractures**, specifically those involving the distal fibula. - The fracture shown in the image is of the **femoral head**, not the ankle, hence the Weber classification is not appropriate.
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