Fragility Fractures — MCQs
A 70-year-old female has been on alendronate for 7 years for osteoporosis and now complains of pain in her right thigh. What is the next investigation to be performed?
A 60-year-old elderly female with a previous history of a Colles fracture is now complaining of backache. Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of this patient is incorrect?
What is the investigation of choice for diagnosing a stress fracture?
True about proximal fragment in subtrochanteric fracture is?
Osteoporosis is characterized most commonly by:
Minimum age for routine screening of osteoporosis in women according to USPSTF guidelines:
Which of the following is not typically associated with osteogenesis imperfecta?
Osteonecrosis is seen in all except
Which of the following is an osteoporotic fracture?
79 yrs old lady had fall, the following X-ray was taken. Which of the following is treatment?
Fragility Fractures Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 70-year-old female has been on alendronate for 7 years for osteoporosis and now complains of pain in her right thigh. What is the next investigation to be performed?
- A. DEXA scan
- B. Serum vitamin D levels
- C. Serum alkaline phosphate levels
- D. X-ray (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **X-ray** - Alendronate, a **bisphosphonate**, is associated with **atypical femoral fractures** after prolonged use, and an X-ray is the most appropriate initial investigation to visualize such a fracture. - Complaints of thigh pain in a patient on long-term bisphosphonate therapy should prompt imaging to rule out this serious complication. *DEXA scan* - A DEXA scan assesses **bone mineral density** but does not provide information about acute fractures or structural integrity in response to specific pain. - While it's used for osteoporosis diagnosis and monitoring, it won't directly identify an atypical femoral fracture. *Serum vitamin D levels* - Maintaining adequate **vitamin D levels** is important for bone health, but its measurement won't explain acute thigh pain or identify a fracture. - Low vitamin D levels can contribute to osteoporosis but are not the primary cause of pain suggestive of an atypical femoral fracture. *Serum alkaline phosphate levels* - **Alkaline phosphatase** levels can be elevated in conditions involving increased bone turnover, such as healing fractures or certain bone diseases. - However, it is not a direct diagnostic tool for identifying atypical femoral fractures and would not be the first line investigation.
Question 2: A 60-year-old elderly female with a previous history of a Colles fracture is now complaining of backache. Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of this patient is incorrect?
- A. Oral vitamin D3 is given along with oral calcium
- B. Teriparatide should be started before supplementing bisphosphonates (Correct Answer)
- C. Calcium requirement is 1200 mg per day
- D. Bisphosphonates can be given for 3-5 years depending on patient response and risk factors
Explanation: ***Teriparatide should be started before supplementing bisphosphonates*** - This statement is incorrect because **bisphosphonates are typically the first-line treatment** for osteoporosis, especially in patients with a history of fragility fractures like a Colles fracture. - **Teriparatide**, an anabolic agent, is usually reserved for patients with very severe osteoporosis, those who have failed bisphosphonate therapy, or those with highly accelerated bone loss. *Oral vitamin D3 is given along with oral calcium* - This is a routine and **correct practice in osteoporosis management** as calcium and vitamin D are essential for bone health. - **Vitamin D** aids in calcium absorption from the gut, and both are crucial for bone mineralization and density. *Calcium requirement is 1200 mg per day* - The recommended daily **calcium intake for postmenopausal women** and elderly individuals with osteoporosis is typically around 1200 mg. - This amount helps to maintain skeletal health and reduce the risk of fractures. *Bisphosphonates can be given for 3-5 years depending on patient response and risk factors* - This statement is correct, as **bisphosphonates are commonly prescribed for 3-5 years** to reduce fracture risk in osteoporosis. - A **"drug holiday"** may be considered after this period, depending on the patient's fracture risk and bone mineral density.
Question 3: What is the investigation of choice for diagnosing a stress fracture?
- A. X-ray
- B. CT scan
- C. MRI (Correct Answer)
- D. Bone scan
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is the most sensitive and specific imaging modality for diagnosing **stress fractures**, especially in their early stages. - It can detect **bone marrow edema** and **periosteal reactions** indicative of stress injury before cortical changes are visible on plain radiographs. *X-ray* - **X-rays** are often the initial investigation, but they have low sensitivity for **stress fractures** in the early stages as bone changes may not be apparent for several weeks. - A positive X-ray for stress fracture typically shows a **sclerotic line** or **periosteal reaction**, but this indicates a more advanced injury. *CT scan* - **CT scans** provide excellent detail of **cortical bone** and can detect subtle fractures not seen on X-rays. - While more sensitive than X-rays, CT has **higher radiation exposure** and is generally less sensitive than MRI for early detection of **bone marrow edema** associated with stress injuries. *Bone scan* - **Bone scans** (scintigraphy) are highly sensitive for detecting increased **osteoblastic activity** associated with stress fractures. - However, they are **less specific** as various conditions can cause increased uptake, and they do not provide detailed anatomical information, making MRI superior for definitive diagnosis and staging.
Question 4: True about proximal fragment in subtrochanteric fracture is?
- A. Flexion
- B. Abduction
- C. External rotation
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - In a subtrochanteric fracture, the **proximal fragment** is under the influence of several strong muscle groups, leading to a characteristic displacement. - The **iliopsoas muscle** causes **flexion**, the **gluteus medius and minimus** cause **abduction**, and the **short external rotators** cause **external rotation**. *Flexion* - The powerful **iliopsoas muscle** inserts on the lesser trochanter and acts to flex the hip. - This muscle pulls the proximal fragment anteriorly and superiorly, resulting in a **flexion deformity**. *Abduction* - The **gluteus medius and minimus muscles** attach to the greater trochanter and exert a strong abducting force. - This action pulls the proximal fragment away from the midline, causing **abduction**. *External rotation* - The **short external rotators** (e.g., piriformis, obturators, gemelli) insert around the greater trochanter. - These muscles collectively cause the proximal fragment to rotate outwards, resulting in **external rotation**.
Question 5: Osteoporosis is characterized most commonly by:
- A. Increased bone density and increased bone mass
- B. Decreased bone mass and decreased bone density (Correct Answer)
- C. Increased bone formation and increased bone density
- D. Increased bone formation only
Explanation: ***Decreased bone mass and decreased bone density*** - **Osteoporosis** is fundamentally defined by a reduction in the quantity of bone tissue, leading to both **decreased bone mass** (total amount of bone) and **decreased bone density** (how tightly packed the bone tissue is) [1]. - This reduction in bone mass and density results in weakened bones that are prone to **fractures** [2]. *Increased bone density and increased bone mass* - This description represents the opposite of osteoporosis, characterizing **healthy bone** or conditions like **osteopetrosis** (but even in osteopetrosis, bone quality is often poor despite high density). - Conditions with increased bone density and mass are associated with stronger bones, not the fragility seen in osteoporosis. *Increased bone formation and increased bone density* - While increased bone formation can lead to increased bone density, this combination describes a process of **bone growth** or **healing**, not osteoporosis. - In osteoporosis, the balance between bone formation and resorption is tipped towards excessive resorption or inadequate formation [2]. *Increased bone formation only* - Increased bone formation alone, without considering resorption rates, does not fully characterize bone health or osteoporosis. - In osteoporosis, there is often a **net loss of bone** due to resorption outpacing formation or formation being insufficient to maintain bone mass [1], [2]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 665-666. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1190-1191.
Question 6: Minimum age for routine screening of osteoporosis in women according to USPSTF guidelines:
- A. 55 years
- B. 60 years
- C. 50 years
- D. 65 years (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***65 years*** - The **U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)** recommends routine osteoporosis screening with **bone mineral density (BMD) testing** for all women aged 65 years and older. - This recommendation is based on evidence that screening in this age group can effectively reduce the risk of **osteoporotic fractures**. *55 years* - This age is **too early** for routine osteoporosis screening in women according to current USPSTF guidelines. - Screening before age 65 is recommended only for younger women at **increased risk** of osteoporosis. *60 years* - This age is also **too early** for routine osteoporosis screening in women without additional risk factors. - The benefits of universal screening typically outweigh the harms beginning at age 65. *50 years* - This age is generally considered **too young** for routine osteoporosis screening. - Women in this age group are often still premenopausal or early postmenopausal and typically do not have a sufficiently high risk to warrant routine screening.
Question 7: Which of the following is not typically associated with osteogenesis imperfecta?
- A. Blue sclera
- B. Lax ligament
- C. Bilateral Hip dislocation (Correct Answer)
- D. Osteoporosis
Explanation: ***Bilateral Hip dislocation*** - While hip dislocations can occur in severe cases due to bone fragility, **bilateral hip dislocation** is not a characteristic or typical primary association with osteogenesis imperfecta. - The underlying issue is primarily **bone fragility** leading to fractures, not inherent joint instability or malformation causing bilateral dislocation. *Blue sclera* - **Blue sclera** is a classic sign of osteogenesis imperfecta, caused by the thinness of the sclera allowing the underlying choroid vessels to show through. - This is due to a defect in **Type I collagen** synthesis, which affects not only bones but also other connective tissues including the sclera. *Lax ligament* - **Lax ligaments** are common in osteogenesis imperfecta due to the generalized **connective tissue defect**, particularly involving Type I collagen. - This can contribute to joint instability, *hypermobility*, and an increased risk of sprains. *Osteoporosis* - **Osteoporosis** with reduced bone mineral density is a hallmark feature of osteogenesis imperfecta, leading to **fragile bones** and recurrent fractures. - The genetic defect in **Type I collagen** impairs bone matrix formation, resulting in weak and brittle bones.
Question 8: Osteonecrosis is seen in all except
- A. Fracture neck femur
- B. Paget's disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Perthe's disease
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Explanation: ***Paget's disease*** - **Paget's disease of bone (osteitis deformans)** is a localized disorder of bone remodeling, characterized by excessive and disorganized bone formation, leading to enlarged, softened, and misshapen bones, but not directly causing osteonecrosis. - While complications like **pathological fractures** and **osteosarcoma** can occur, primary osteonecrosis is not a typical feature of Paget's disease itself. *Fracture neck femur* - **Fractures of the femoral neck** can disrupt the blood supply to the femoral head, particularly the medial circumflex femoral artery, leading to **avascular necrosis** (osteonecrosis) of the femoral head. - This is a well-known and common complication, especially in displaced fractures. *Sickle cell anemia* - **Sickle cell anemia** causes sickling of red blood cells, leading to **vaso-occlusion** and impaired blood flow to bones, resulting in **bone infarcts** (osteonecrosis). - This can affect various bones, including the femoral head, humeral head, and vertebrae. *Perthe's disease* - **Perthe's disease** (Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease) is a childhood condition characterized by **idiopathic osteonecrosis** of the femoral head. - It involves the collapse and subsequent re-ossification of the femoral epiphysis due to an interruption of its blood supply.
Question 9: Which of the following is an osteoporotic fracture?
- A. Vertebrae (Correct Answer)
- B. Midshaft of Humerus
- C. Glenoid Fracture
- D. Subtrochanteric Fracture
Explanation: ***Vertebrae*** - **Vertebral compression fractures** are among the most common osteoporotic fractures, often occurring spontaneously or due to minimal trauma. - They are significant because they can lead to **loss of height**, **kyphosis**, and chronic back pain. *Midshaft of Humerus* - Fractures of the **midshaft of the humerus** are generally associated with direct trauma or high-energy impacts, rather than fragility due to osteoporosis. - While possible in osteoporotic individuals, they are not considered a classic or common osteoporotic fracture site compared to others. *Glenoid Fracture* - A **glenoid fracture** typically results from a **high-energy impact** to the shoulder, such as a fall directly onto the shoulder or a dislocation. - It is not typically classified as a common osteoporotic fracture, which are usually fragility fractures from low-energy trauma. *Subtrochanteric Fracture* - **Subtrochanteric femoral fractures** are located just below the lesser trochanter. While the femur is a common site for osteoporotic fractures (e.g., femoral neck), subtrochanteric fractures are often associated with falls from a greater height or high-impact trauma. - Historically, they have also been linked to long-term use of certain anti-resorptive medications like **bisphosphonates**, which can paradoxically increase the risk of these atypical femur fractures with prolonged use.
Question 10: 79 yrs old lady had fall, the following X-ray was taken. Which of the following is treatment?
- A. Hip spica
- B. Nailing
- C. Hemiahroplasty (Correct Answer)
- D. Total Hip Replacement
Explanation: ***Hemiarthroplasty*** - The X-ray shows a **displaced femoral neck fracture** in an elderly patient, which typically has a high risk of **avascular necrosis** of the femoral head due to disruption of blood supply. - Hemiarthroplasty involves replacing only the **femoral head and neck** with a prosthetic component, leaving the acetabulum intact, which is suitable for elderly patients with good acetabular cartilage and less active lifestyles. *Hip spica* - A hip spica cast is primarily used for **pediatric femur fractures** or certain types of hip dislocations in children, not for displaced femoral neck fractures in elderly adults. - This method would not provide stable fixation or address the high risk of **avascular necrosis** associated with these fractures in older patients. *Nailing* - Nailing (intramedullary nailing) is typically used for **intertrochanteric fractures** or subtrochanteric fractures, where the fracture line is distal to the femoral neck. - For displaced femoral neck fractures, nailing alone may not provide adequate stability and carries a higher risk of **non-union** or **avascular necrosis** compared to arthroplasty in elderly patients. *Total Hip Replacement* - Total hip replacement involves replacing both the **femoral head and the acetabulum** with prosthetic components. - While an option for femoral neck fractures, it is generally reserved for younger, more active patients or those with pre-existing **acetabular pathology** like arthritis, as it is a more extensive and complex procedure than hemiarthroplasty.
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