Rheumatoid Hand — MCQs
40-year-old patient having arthritis of PIP and DIP along with carpometacarpal joint of thumb and sparing of wrist and metacarpophalangeal joint, most likely diagnosis is
Which of the following statements about rheumatoid arthritis is false?
A 22-year-old male medical student was seen in the emergency department with a complaint of pain in his hand. He confessed that he had hit a vending machine in the hospital when he did not receive his soft drink after inserting money twice. The medial side of the dorsum of the hand was quite swollen, and one of his knuckles could not be seen when he "made a fist." The physician made a diagnosis of a "boxer's fracture." What was the nature of the impatient student's injury?
A 54-year-old female marathon runner presents with pain in her right wrist that resulted from a fall onto her outstretched hand. Radiographic studies indicate an anterior dislocation of a carpal bone. Which of the following bones is most likely dislocated?
Rupture of extensor pollicis longus tendon occurs in all of the following except -
Diagnostic of antemortem drowning:
How can homicidal gunshot wounds be differentiated from suicidal gunshot wounds?
Appreciation of shape and size of an object placed in the hand is lost in the lesion of:
The given nature of injury will lead to the development of:
Which of the following joints are commonly affected in osteoarthritis? I. First metatarsophalangeal joint II. Proximal interphalangeal joint III. Ankle joint IV. 5th and 6th cervical vertebrae joint Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Rheumatoid Hand Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: 40-year-old patient having arthritis of PIP and DIP along with carpometacarpal joint of thumb and sparing of wrist and metacarpophalangeal joint, most likely diagnosis is
- A. osteoarthritis (Correct Answer)
- B. pseudo gout
- C. psoriatic arthritis
- D. rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation: ***Osteoarthritis*** - This classic presentation of arthritis in the **PIP, DIP**, and **first carpometacarpal (CMC) joint** with sparing of the wrist and MCP joints is highly characteristic of **osteoarthritis** [1]. - **Osteoarthritis** primarily affects cartilage and bone, leading to pain and stiffness, and commonly involves these specific hand joints [1]. *Pseudo gout* - Pseudo gout, or **calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD)**, typically causes acute, monoarticular or oligoarticular arthritis, often affecting larger joints like the knee or wrist [3]. - While it can affect the hand, its presentation is usually more acute and less chronic, and it does not typically show the joint distribution described here. *Psoriatic arthritis* - **Psoriatic arthritis** can affect the DIP joints and can cause a "sausage digit" (dactylitis), but it often also involves the wrist or other joints, and skin/nail changes of psoriasis would typically be present. - While it can involve the DIP joints, the classic sparing of wrist and MCP for this specific pattern is less typical for psoriatic arthritis compared to osteoarthritis. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** typically affects the **MCP joints** and **wrists symmetrically**, often sparing the DIP joints [2]. - The presented pattern of joint involvement, especially the sparing of the MCP and wrist joints and involvement of the DIP and CMC joints, makes rheumatoid arthritis unlikely [2].
Question 2: Which of the following statements about rheumatoid arthritis is false?
- A. More common in females
- B. Elevated CRP
- C. Associated with Fetty's syndrome
- D. Asymmetrical joint involvement (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Asymmetrical joint involvement*** - **Rheumatoid arthritis** is classically characterized by **symmetrical polyarthritis**, affecting the same joints on both sides of the body [1]. - Asymmetrical involvement would be atypical and might suggest another form of inflammatory arthritis. *More common in females* - This statement is **true**; rheumatoid arthritis has a female-to-male predilection ratio of approximately 3:1 [2]. - The higher prevalence in females suggests a possible role of hormonal or genetic factors. *Elevated CRP* - This statement is **true**; an **elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)** level is a common finding in rheumatoid arthritis, indicating systemic inflammation [1]. - CRP, along with erythrocytic sedimentation rate (ESR), is used to monitor disease activity and treatment response [1]. *Associated with Felty's syndrome* - This statement is **true**; **Felty's syndrome** is a rare but severe complication of long-standing rheumatoid arthritis [2]. - It is characterized by the triad of **rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia** [2].
Question 3: A 22-year-old male medical student was seen in the emergency department with a complaint of pain in his hand. He confessed that he had hit a vending machine in the hospital when he did not receive his soft drink after inserting money twice. The medial side of the dorsum of the hand was quite swollen, and one of his knuckles could not be seen when he "made a fist." The physician made a diagnosis of a "boxer's fracture." What was the nature of the impatient student's injury?
- A. Colles' fracture of the radius
- B. Fracture of the styloid process of the ulna
- C. Smith's fracture of the radius
- D. Fracture of the neck of the fifth metacarpal (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fracture of the neck of the fifth metacarpal*** - A **boxer's fracture** specifically refers to a fracture of the neck of the fifth metacarpal bone. - This injury commonly occurs when punching a hard object, leading to swelling and loss of the knuckle prominence. *Colles' fracture of the radius* - A **Colles' fracture** involves the distal radius, typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand, resulting in a "dinner fork" deformity. - It does not involve the metacarpals or knuckles. *Fracture of the styloid process of the ulna* - This fracture often accompanies a **Colles' fracture** of the radius but can also occur in isolation. - It's a fracture of the distal end of the ulna and does not cause the loss of a knuckle. *Smith's fracture of the radius* - A **Smith's fracture** is a fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement, often called a "reverse Colles' fracture." - It is caused by a fall on the back of the hand or a direct blow to the forearm and does not affect the metacarpals or knuckles.
Question 4: A 54-year-old female marathon runner presents with pain in her right wrist that resulted from a fall onto her outstretched hand. Radiographic studies indicate an anterior dislocation of a carpal bone. Which of the following bones is most likely dislocated?
- A. Capitate
- B. Lunate (Correct Answer)
- C. Trapezoid
- D. Triquetrum
Explanation: ***Lunate*** - The **lunate bone** is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone, especially with a fall onto an **outstretched hand**. - Its central position in the proximal carpal row and its articulation with the radius make it vulnerable to **anterior dislocation** with forced dorsiflexion. *Capitate* - The **capitate** is the largest carpal bone but is more stable due to its central position and strong ligamentous attachments. - Isolated dislocation of the capitate is **rare** and usually accompanies other carpal injuries. *Trapezoid* - The **trapezoid** is a small, irregularly shaped carpal bone in the distal row, which is very stable. - Its strong articulations with the trapezium, capitate, and second metacarpal make its dislocation **extremely uncommon**. *Triquetrum* - The **triquetrum** is the second most commonly fractured carpal bone but is less prone to dislocation than the lunate. - While it can dislocate, it typically occurs with **ulnar impaction** or other complex carpal instabilities rather than an isolated anterior dislocation from a fall onto an outstretched hand.
Question 5: Rupture of extensor pollicis longus tendon occurs in all of the following except -
- A. De Quervain's disease (Correct Answer)
- B. Rheumatoid arthritis
- C. Drummers
- D. Colles' fracture
Explanation: ***De Quervain's disease*** - This condition involves **tenosynovitis** of the **extensor pollicis brevis** and **abductor pollicis longus** tendons, not a rupture of the extensor pollicis longus. - The pathology is an inflammation and thickening of the tendon sheaths, distinct from a tendon tear. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Chronic inflammation** in rheumatoid arthritis can lead to weakening and eventual rupture of tendons, including the **extensor pollicis longus**, often due to synovitis eroding the tendon. - The condition creates an environment where tendons are vulnerable to **attrition** and damage, making rupture a recognized complication. *Drummers* - Repetitive, high-force movements involved in drumming can cause significant **stress** and microscopic damage to tendons, including the **extensor pollicis longus**. - Over time, this cumulative trauma can lead to inflammation, degeneration, and eventual **rupture** due to overuse. *Colles' fracture* - A **Colles' fracture** of the distal radius can cause a delayed rupture of the **extensor pollicis longus (EPL)** tendon. - This occurs due to attrition of the tendon as it rubs over the **roughened fracture site** or due to *avascular necrosis* of the tendon as it passes through a narrow osteofibrous tunnel.
Question 6: Diagnostic of antemortem drowning:
- A. Emphysema aquosum
- B. Paltaufs hemorrhage
- C. Water in esophagus
- D. Presence of foreign material in clenched hands (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Presence of foreign material in clenched hands.*** - The presence of **foreign material** (such as weeds, sand, or gravel) in the **clenched hands** of a drowned victim suggests a struggle for survival while alive in the water. - This finding is strong evidence of **vital reaction**, indicating the individual was alive and actively struggling during submergence, making it highly indicative of antemortem drowning. *Emphysema aquosum* - Refers to **overinflation of the lungs** and is a common finding in drowning, resulting from fluid aspiration and spasmodic respiratory efforts. - While supportive of drowning, it can also be seen in other forms of **asphyxia** and is not specific enough to definitively diagnose antemortem drowning versus postmortem immersion. *Paltaufs hemorrhage* - Describes **subpleural hemorrhages** found on the lungs, often seen in cases of drowning. - These hemorrhages are a non-specific sign and can be present in other causes of death involving **venous congestion** or **asphyxia**, thus not definitive for antemortem drowning. *Water in esophagus* - While the aspiration of water is a hallmark of drowning, finding water in the **esophagus** (and stomach) can occur in both antemortem and **postmortem immersion**. - This finding alone does not reliably distinguish between someone who was alive and swallowed water during drowning versus someone who was dead and immersed in water.
Question 7: How can homicidal gunshot wounds be differentiated from suicidal gunshot wounds?
- A. Presence of multiple gunshot wounds
- B. Presence of gunpowder on hands
- C. Presence of signs of struggle (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the above
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Presence of signs of struggle*** - **Signs of struggle** (defensive wounds, abrasions, bruising, torn clothing, disturbed surroundings) are the **most reliable indicator of homicidal gunshot wounds** - **Forensic significance**: Defense wounds on hands/forearms, struggle marks, and signs of restraint strongly suggest the victim resisted an attacker - **Absent in suicide**: Suicidal acts occur without external confrontation, so defensive injuries and struggle signs are typically absent - This is the **primary forensic differentiator** between homicide and suicide in gunshot cases *Incorrect: Presence of multiple gunshot wounds* - While **more common in homicide**, multiple gunshot wounds **CAN occur in suicide** (documented as "hesitation wounds" or multiple attempts with non-fatal first shots) - **Not a reliable sole differentiator**: Cases of suicidal individuals firing multiple shots are well-documented in forensic literature, especially with small caliber weapons or when vital organs are missed - Other factors (wound location, distance, angle) are needed for complete assessment *Incorrect: Presence of gunpowder on hands* - **Gunshot residue (GSR) on victim's hands** actually **indicates suicide** rather than homicide, as it suggests the victim held and fired the weapon - In **homicide**, GSR is typically **absent** from the victim's hands (unless they struggled for the weapon) - This differentiates suicide FROM homicide, but the question asks how to identify homicide *Incorrect: None of the above* - This is incorrect because **specific forensic indicators exist** to differentiate homicidal from suicidal gunshot wounds - Signs of struggle provide the most reliable differentiation
Question 8: Appreciation of shape and size of an object placed in the hand is lost in the lesion of:
- A. Tractus gracilis
- B. Tractus cuneatus (Correct Answer)
- C. Spino-reticular tract
- D. Lateral spinothalamic tract
Explanation: ***Tractus cuneatus*** - The **tractus cuneatus** (fasciculus cuneatus) carries **fine touch**, **vibration**, and **proprioception** from the upper extremities and upper trunk. - Appreciation of an object's shape and size in the hand (stereognosis) relies on these sensory inputs; a lesion here would lead to **astereognosis**. *Tractus gracilis* - The **tractus gracilis** (fasciculus gracilis) conveys sensory information (fine touch, vibration, proprioception) primarily from the **lower extremities** and lower trunk. - A lesion here would impair sensation in the legs and lower body, not the hands. *Spino-reticular tract* - The **spino-reticular tract** is involved in conveying information related to **pain and arousal** (attention and alertness) to the reticular formation. - It is not directly involved in the discrimination of fine tactile sensations or stereognosis. *Lateral spinothalamic tract* - The **lateral spinothalamic tract** primarily transmits sensations of **pain and temperature**. - A lesion in this tract would result in impaired pain and temperature sensation but would not affect the ability to discern the shape and size of an object in the hand.
Question 9: The given nature of injury will lead to the development of:
- A. Jersey finger
- B. Mallet finger (Correct Answer)
- C. Jammed finger
- D. Boxer knuckle
Explanation: ***Mallet finger*** - The image shows a **rupture of the extensor tendon** at its insertion into the distal phalanx, or an avulsion fracture of the distal phalanx, causing an inability to extend the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. - This injury results in the characteristic **flexion deformity** of the DIP joint, known as mallet finger. *Jersey finger* - This injury involves the **rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon** from its insertion at the base of the distal phalanx. - Patients cannot actively **flex their DIP joint**, unlike the extensor tendon injury shown. *Jammed finger* - This is a general term for an **axial load injury** to the finger, usually causing a sprain or mild fracture without a specific tendon rupture as depicted. - It typically results from impact on the fingertip, leading to **ligamentous injury** or joint capsule damage. *Boxer knuckle* - **Boxer's knuckle** refers to a sagital band rupture at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint, affecting the central slip of the extensor tendon. - This injury primarily involves the **MCP joint** and not the DIP joint, as shown in the image.
Question 10: Which of the following joints are commonly affected in osteoarthritis? I. First metatarsophalangeal joint II. Proximal interphalangeal joint III. Ankle joint IV. 5th and 6th cervical vertebrae joint Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. I, II, III and IV
- B. I and II only
- C. III and IV only
- D. I, II and IV only (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***I, II and IV only*** - **Osteoarthritis** commonly affects joints that bear significant weight or are subject to repetitive stress, such as the **first metatarsophalangeal joint**, **proximal interphalangeal joints**, and the **cervical spine**. - Degenerative changes in these joints, including cartilage loss and **osteophyte formation**, are characteristic findings in osteoarthritis. *I, II, III and IV* - While the first metatarsophalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joints, and cervical vertebrae are commonly affected, the **ankle joint** is typically spared in primary osteoarthritis. - Ankle involvement in osteoarthritis is usually secondary to **trauma** or inflammatory arthritis rather than primary degenerative change. *III and IV only* - This option misses the common involvement of the **first metatarsophalangeal joint** and **proximal interphalangeal joints**, which are frequently affected in osteoarthritis. - The ankle joint is less commonly involved in primary osteoarthritis compared to other load-bearing joints like the **knee** and **hip**. *I and II only* - This option incorrectly omits the **cervical vertebrae**, which are a very common site for osteoarthritis, often leading to neck pain and **radiculopathy**. - While the metatarsophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints are correct, the exclusion of the cervical spine makes this option incomplete.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free