Surgical Options for Osteoarthritis — MCQs

10 questions

Severe disability in primary osteoarthritis of hip is best managed by -

An athlete sustained an injury around the knee joint, suspecting cartilage damage. Which of the following is the investigation of choice?

A 68-year-old man presents with pain and swelling of the right knee. Investigations reveal Ahlbäck grade 2 osteoarthritic changes. What is the further management?

Surgery was performed as shown in the image below. What is the name of the procedure?

Not true about osteoarthritis

A 65-year-old presents with chronic knee pain, varus deformity, and medial joint space narrowing. BMI is 32. Best treatment option?

Which of the following joints are commonly affected in osteoarthritis? I. First metatarsophalangeal joint II. Proximal interphalangeal joint III. Ankle joint IV. 5th and 6th cervical vertebrae joint Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is false?

Deformity is most commonly seen in primary osteoarthritis of the knee joint -

Q10

What is the most appropriate surgical management for a patient with achalasia who has tried nonoperative therapies, including lifestyle modifications, calcium channel blockers, botulin toxin injections, and endoscopic pneumatic dilatation, but has not experienced symptom relief?

Surgical Options for Osteoarthritis Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Severe disability in primary osteoarthritis of hip is best managed by -

A. Arthroplasty (Correct Answer)
B. Arthrodesis
C. Mc Murray's osteotomy
D. Intra-articular hydrocortisone and physiotherapy

Explanation: ***Arthroplasty*** - **Total hip arthroplasty (THA)** is the most effective treatment for severe osteoarthritis of the hip, providing significant pain relief and functional improvement. - It involves replacing the damaged joint surfaces with **prosthetic components**, addressing advanced cartilage loss and structural damage. *Arthrodesis* - **Arthrodesis (joint fusion)** is an older technique that fixes the joint in a permanent position, eliminating pain but sacrificing all motion in that joint. - While it relieves pain, the severe loss of motion makes it generally less desirable than arthroplasty for the hip, especially in active patients. *Mc Murray's osteotomy* - **McMurray's osteotomy** is a surgical procedure primarily used for some types of **femoral neck fractures** or a specific type of **avascular necrosis** of the femoral head, not for severe osteoarthritis affecting the entire joint. - It involves cutting and realigning the bone, but it does not address advanced, widespread articular cartilage degeneration seen in severe osteoarthritis. *Intra-articular hydrocortisone and physiotherapy* - **Intra-articular hydrocortisone injections** and **physiotherapy** are conservative treatments used for mild to moderate hip osteoarthritis to manage pain and improve function. - These methods do not resolve severe structural damage and are typically insufficient for managing severe disability due to advanced osteoarthritis.

Question 2: An athlete sustained an injury around the knee joint, suspecting cartilage damage. Which of the following is the investigation of choice?

A. Clinical examination
B. Arthroscopy (Correct Answer)
C. Arthrotomy
D. X-ray

Explanation: ***Arthroscopy*** - **Arthroscopy** is the definitive investigation for **cartilage damage** as it allows for direct visualization of the knee joint's internal structures. - It not only confirms the diagnosis but can also facilitate simultaneous **repair or débridement** of damaged cartilage. *X-ray* - **X-rays** are primarily used to assess **bone structures** and detect fractures or significant joint space narrowing, not soft tissue injuries like cartilage. - They are generally **insufficient** for diagnosing subtle or early cartilage damage. *Clinical examination* - A **clinical examination** is crucial for initial assessment and suspicion of cartilage injury, but it cannot definitively diagnose the extent or type of cartilage damage. - It helps guide further investigations but is **not specific enough** to confirm cartilage integrity. *Arthrotomy* - **Arthrotomy** involves a larger incision to open the joint, which is more **invasive** than arthroscopy and typically reserved for open surgical repairs or complex reconstructions, not as a primary diagnostic tool for cartilage. - It carries a **higher risk of complications**, such as infection and prolonged recovery, compared to arthroscopy.

Question 3: A 68-year-old man presents with pain and swelling of the right knee. Investigations reveal Ahlbäck grade 2 osteoarthritic changes. What is the further management?

A. High tibial osteotomy
B. Total knee replacement
C. Conservative (Correct Answer)
D. Arthroscopic washout

Explanation: ***Conservative care*** - **Ahlbäck grade 2** is considered mild to moderate **osteoarthritis**; therefore, initial management should focus on non-surgical interventions. - This includes **pain management** (NSAIDs, analgesics), **physiotherapy**, **weight loss**, and **activity modification**. *High tibial osteotomy* - This procedure is typically reserved for **younger patients** with **varus deformity** and **unicompartmental osteoarthritis** to realign the knee, which is not indicated in this case for a 68-year-old. - It aims to shift the weight-bearing axis away from the damaged compartment to an healthier area, often considered when **total knee replacement** is being delayed. *Total knee replacement* - This is a definitive surgical option for **severe, end-stage osteoarthritis** that has failed conservative management. - Given the patient's **Ahlbäck grade 2**, less invasive treatments should be tried first as this grade does not typically warrant immediate total knee replacement. *Arthroscopic washout* - While it can provide temporary relief of symptoms by removing debris, its **long-term efficacy** in managing **osteoarthritis** has been extensively debated and is generally not recommended as a primary treatment for knee osteoarthritis. - There is little evidence to suggest that it alters the progression of the disease or provides sustained pain relief in **mild to moderate osteoarthritis**.

Question 4: Surgery was performed as shown in the image below. What is the name of the procedure?

A. Below knee amputation
B. Above knee amputation
C. Lisfranc amputation
D. Chopart amputation (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Chopart amputation*** - The image shows a disarticulation through the **talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints**, which defines a **Chopart amputation**. - This procedure removes the distal foot while preserving the **calcaneus and talus**, forming a stump that allows for some ankle motion. *Below knee amputation* - A below-knee amputation involves transection of the tibia and fibula, preserving the knee joint, which is much more proximal than shown in the image. - This type of amputation removes a significant portion of the lower leg, with the foot entirely removed, unlike the partial foot amputation depicted. *Above knee amputation* - An above-knee amputation involves disarticulation or transection through the femur, completely removing the lower leg and knee joint. - This is a much more extensive amputation than what is illustrated, which is confined to the foot. *Lisfranc amputation* - A Lisfranc amputation is a disarticulation through the **tarsometatarsal joints**, removing the metatarsals and phalanges but preserving the tarsal bones. - The image clearly shows the incision more proximally, at the midtarsal level, specifically through the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints, not the tarsometatarsal joints.

Question 5: Not true about osteoarthritis

A. Narrowing of joint space
B. Non-Inflammatory condition
C. Most common joint disease
D. DIP joint is spared (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***DIP joint is spared*** - This statement is **incorrect** because **distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints** are commonly affected in osteoarthritis. - In fact, the presence of **Heberden's nodes** (at the DIP joints) and **Bouchard's nodes** (at the PIP joints) are characteristic features of osteoarthritis. *Narrowing of joint space* - **Joint space narrowing** is a hallmark radiological feature of osteoarthritis, resulting from **cartilage loss**. - This loss of articular cartilage leads to bones rubbing against each other, causing pain and further damage [2]. *Non-Inflammatory condition* - Osteoarthritis is primarily considered a **degenerative disease** rather than a pure inflammatory one, though inflammation can play a secondary role [1]. - The dominant pathology involves the breakdown of **articular cartilage** and changes in the bone below [1], [2]. *Most common joint disease* - Osteoarthritis is indeed the **most prevalent form of arthritis** and a leading cause of disability worldwide. - It affects millions of people, particularly with increasing age, due to wear and tear on the joints [2]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 675-676. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1210-1212.

Question 6: A 65-year-old presents with chronic knee pain, varus deformity, and medial joint space narrowing. BMI is 32. Best treatment option?

A. Arthroscopic Debridement
B. Unicompartmental Knee Replacement
C. High Tibial Osteotomy
D. Total Knee Replacement (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Total Knee Replacement*** - This is the most appropriate treatment for a 65-year-old with chronic knee pain, significant **varus deformity**, and **medial joint space narrowing**, indicative of advanced **osteoarthritis**. - A **high BMI (32)** is also a factor that often points towards the need for total joint replacement when conservative measures have failed, as it contributes to increased stress on the knee. *Arthroscopic Debridement* - This procedure is generally reserved for less severe osteoarthritis symptoms or mechanical symptoms like locking, and it is **not effective** for advanced joint degeneration with significant deformity. - It would provide little to no long-term benefit for the presented severe changes and chronic pain. *Unicompartmental Knee Replacement* - While suitable for isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis, a **varus deformity** indicates damage beyond a single compartment or significant malalignment that might not be fully corrected by a unicompartmental approach. - The chronicity, age, and likely degree of degeneration suggest a more comprehensive solution is needed. *High Tibial Osteotomy* - This procedure is typically performed in younger, more active patients with **varus malalignment** and early to moderate osteoarthritis to shift weight to a healthier compartment. - At 65 years old with chronic pain and advanced joint space narrowing, a **corrective osteotomy** is less likely to provide long-term relief and may delay a more definitive solution.

Question 7: Which of the following joints are commonly affected in osteoarthritis? I. First metatarsophalangeal joint II. Proximal interphalangeal joint III. Ankle joint IV. 5th and 6th cervical vertebrae joint Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. I, II, III and IV
B. I and II only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II and IV only (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***I, II and IV only*** - **Osteoarthritis** commonly affects joints that bear significant weight or are subject to repetitive stress, such as the **first metatarsophalangeal joint**, **proximal interphalangeal joints**, and the **cervical spine**. - Degenerative changes in these joints, including cartilage loss and **osteophyte formation**, are characteristic findings in osteoarthritis. *I, II, III and IV* - While the first metatarsophalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joints, and cervical vertebrae are commonly affected, the **ankle joint** is typically spared in primary osteoarthritis. - Ankle involvement in osteoarthritis is usually secondary to **trauma** or inflammatory arthritis rather than primary degenerative change. *III and IV only* - This option misses the common involvement of the **first metatarsophalangeal joint** and **proximal interphalangeal joints**, which are frequently affected in osteoarthritis. - The ankle joint is less commonly involved in primary osteoarthritis compared to other load-bearing joints like the **knee** and **hip**. *I and II only* - This option incorrectly omits the **cervical vertebrae**, which are a very common site for osteoarthritis, often leading to neck pain and **radiculopathy**. - While the metatarsophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints are correct, the exclusion of the cervical spine makes this option incomplete.

Question 8: Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is false?

A. Progressive softening of the articular cartilage
B. It is an inflammatory arthritis (Correct Answer)
C. Does not involve synovial joints
D. Does not produce marginal osteophytes

Explanation: ***It is an inflammatory arthritis*** - This statement is **false** because **osteoarthritis (OA)** is fundamentally a **degenerative joint disease**, not a primary inflammatory arthritis. - While it can have an inflammatory component, this is secondary to cartilage breakdown, and it does not share the systemic inflammatory features of conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. *Does not involve synovial joints* - This statement is false because **osteoarthritis** primarily affects **synovial joints**, such as the knees, hips, and hands. - It involves the progressive degeneration of articular cartilage within these synovial joints, leading to pain and dysfunction. *Progressive softening of the articular cartilage* - This statement is true, as **progressive softening of the articular cartilage** is a key pathological feature of **osteoarthritis**. - This softening precedes fibrillation and eventual loss of cartilage, leading to bone-on-bone contact and further joint damage. *Does not produce marginal osteophytes* - This statement is false because the formation of **marginal osteophytes** (bone spurs) is a hallmark feature of advanced **osteoarthritis**. - These bony outgrowths develop at the joint margins as the body attempts to repair or stabilize the damaged joint.

Question 9: Deformity is most commonly seen in primary osteoarthritis of the knee joint -

A. Genu varus (Correct Answer)
B. Genu valgum
C. Genu recurvatum
D. Flexion contracture

Explanation: ***Genu varus*** - **Genu varus** (bow-legged deformity) is the most common angular deformity seen in **primary osteoarthritis of the knee**, particularly due to greater wear in the medial compartment. - This deformity places increased stress on the medial compartment, exacerbating the progression of osteoarthritis in that region. *Genu valgum* - **Genu valgum** (knock-knee deformity) is less common in primary knee osteoarthritis compared to genu varus. - It typically results from greater involvement of the **lateral compartment** of the knee joint. *Genu recurvatum* - **Genu recurvatum** is characterized by hyperextension of the knee joint. - This deformity is often associated with ligamentous laxity or neuromuscular conditions, rather than being the primary or most common deformity in knee osteoarthritis. *Flexion contracture* - A **flexion contracture** refers to the inability to fully extend the knee, causing the knee to be perpetually bent. - While common in advanced knee osteoarthritis due to pain, muscle spasm, and joint space narrowing, it is a contracture, not an angular deformity like genu varus or valgus.

Question 10: What is the most appropriate surgical management for a patient with achalasia who has tried nonoperative therapies, including lifestyle modifications, calcium channel blockers, botulin toxin injections, and endoscopic pneumatic dilatation, but has not experienced symptom relief?

A. Repeat pneumatic dilation with higher pressures
B. Esophagectomy
C. Surgical esophagomyotomy proximal to the LES
D. Modified Heller myotomy and partial fundoplication (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Modified Heller myotomy and partial fundoplication*** - A **Heller myotomy** involves incising the muscle fibers of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) to relieve obstruction, which is the definitive treatment for achalasia. - A **partial fundoplication** is added to prevent **postoperative gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**, a common complication of myotomy. *Esophagectomy* - **Esophagectomy** is a highly invasive procedure involving removal of the esophagus, reserved for end-stage achalasia with **megaesophagus** or **recurrent aspiration**, not typically first-line surgical management. - It carries significant morbidity and mortality risks, making it an option only as a **last resort** when other treatments have failed and the esophagus is severely diseased. *Surgical esophagomyotomy proximal to the LES* - A myotomy specifically targets the **hypertonic LES** to relieve dysphagia. Performing it significantly proximal to the LES would not address the primary pathology. - While myotomy is the correct approach, its efficacy depends on precise dissection of the muscle fibers at the **gastroesophageal junction** where the LES is located. *Repeat pneumatic dilation with higher pressures* - Although **pneumatic dilation** is an effective *nonoperative* treatment, the patient has already undergone it without relief, indicating a **refractory case**. - Repeating the procedure with higher pressures increases the risk of **esophageal perforation** without necessarily improving long-term outcomes in a patient who has already failed multiple prior treatments.

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free