Rehabilitation in Degenerative Disorders — MCQs
During reconstruction of an amputated limb which of the following is done first?
A patient prescribed crutches for residual paralysis in poliomyelitis is a type of -
Halopelvic traction is primarily used for correcting which specific spinal deformity?
Mrs. Katson, a 64-year-old obese woman with bilateral knee osteoarthritis, describes pain on most days and limiting pain at least 2 days per week. She has tried activity modification (walking less) without success. All of the following therapies have been shown to be efficacious EXCEPT:
A patient presents with a suspected cervical spine injury following an accident. What is the first step in management?
Osteoarthritis is typically not seen in which of the following joints?
Frieberg's disease involves which of the following?
A 56-year-old Type II diabetic presents with complaints of swelling in the left ankle with effusion but only minimal pain. X-rays show severe osteopenia with bone destruction, extensive osteophytosis, and loose bodies. Which of the following is NOT a component of the management of this patient?
What is the deformity most commonly seen in primary osteoarthritis of the knee joint?
Stress fracture occurs most commonly in which of the following bones?
Rehabilitation in Degenerative Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: During reconstruction of an amputated limb which of the following is done first?
- A. Arterial repair
- B. Venous repair
- C. Fixation of the bone (Correct Answer)
- D. Nerve anastomoses
Explanation: ***Fixation of the bone*** - **Bone stabilization** is the crucial first step to create a rigid framework, allowing for subsequent precise vascular and nerve repairs. - This prevents movement and tension on delicate repairs, which could lead to failure of the reconnected vessels and nerves. *Arterial repair* - While critical for blood supply, arterial repair is performed *after* bone fixation to ensure the vessels are not disrupted by later bone manipulation. - It's typically done before venous repair to establish arterial flow and identify any potential venous back pressure that needs addressing. *Venous repair* - Venous repair is usually performed after arterial repair, as establishing arterial inflow can help distend the veins, making them easier to identify and repair. - Repairing veins first without establishing arterial flow immediately is less effective and may lead to congestion once arterial flow is restored. *Nerve anastomoses* - Nerve repair is typically the last major step in an amputation reconstruction, following bone stabilization and full vascular repair. - Nerves are fragile and require a stable, well-perfused environment to optimize the chances of successful regeneration.
Question 2: A patient prescribed crutches for residual paralysis in poliomyelitis is a type of -
- A. Disability limitation
- B. Primordial prevention
- C. Primary prevention
- D. Rehabilitation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rehabilitation*** - Rehabilitation is a component of **tertiary prevention** that aims to restore maximum functional ability after permanent damage has occurred from disease. - Providing crutches to a polio patient with **residual (established) paralysis** helps restore mobility and independence, allowing the patient to adapt to their permanent disability. - This intervention occurs **after the disease has run its course** and permanent sequelae have developed, which is the hallmark of rehabilitation. *Disability limitation* - Disability limitation is another component of **tertiary prevention** but focuses on **preventing progression or complications** of an already established disease. - It applies during the **disease active phase** to minimize further damage (e.g., physiotherapy during acute polio to prevent contractures, or strict glycemic control in diabetes to prevent complications). - In this case, the paralysis is **residual (fixed)**, not active, so we are beyond the disability limitation phase. *Primordial prevention* - Primordial prevention targets the underlying environmental and social determinants to prevent the emergence of risk factors at the population level. - This occurs **before any risk factors** for disease have developed (e.g., policies to prevent emergence of sedentary lifestyles). - Not applicable to a patient with established disease. *Primary prevention* - Primary prevention aims to prevent disease occurrence by reducing risk factors or increasing resistance (e.g., polio vaccination, health education). - This intervention is applied **before the disease occurs**, which is not the case for a patient with established paralysis from poliomyelitis.
Question 3: Halopelvic traction is primarily used for correcting which specific spinal deformity?
- A. Kyphosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Spondylolisthesis
- C. Scoliosis
- D. Spinal stenosis
Explanation: **Kyphosis** * **Halopelvic traction** is a technique specifically designed to apply sustained corrective forces to the spine, making it particularly effective in treating severe **kyphosis**, especially in young patients prior to surgical correction. * It aids in gradually stretching soft tissues and straightening the spinal curvature over time, often used in cases of congenital or severe developmental kyphosis. *Scoliosis* * While traction can be used in some spinal deformities, **scoliosis** (lateral curvature) is more commonly treated with **bracing** or **surgical fusion**, as halopelvic traction is less effective in correcting the rotational component. * Correction of scoliotic curves typically involves forces applied in multiple planes, which halopelvic traction is not ideally suited for. *Spondylolisthesis* * **Spondylolisthesis** involves the **slippage of one vertebra over another**, which is primarily managed through **stabilization** to prevent further slippage. * Halopelvic traction is not indicated as it could potentially exacerbate instability in the presence of vertebral slippage. *Spinal stenosis* * **Spinal stenosis** refers to the **narrowing of the spinal canal**, which compresses nerves and is usually treated with **decompressive surgery** or **conservative management** for pain relief. * Traction methods are generally not used for spinal stenosis as they do not address the underlying anatomical narrowing and may worsen symptoms.
Question 4: Mrs. Katson, a 64-year-old obese woman with bilateral knee osteoarthritis, describes pain on most days and limiting pain at least 2 days per week. She has tried activity modification (walking less) without success. All of the following therapies have been shown to be efficacious EXCEPT:
- A. Glucosamine-chondroitin (Correct Answer)
- B. Glucocorticoid steroid intra-articular injections
- C. Acetaminophen
- D. Total joint arthroplasty
Explanation: ***Glucosamine-chondroitin*** - While widely used and marketed for osteoarthritis, numerous **large, well-designed clinical trials** have consistently shown that **glucosamine-chondroitin supplements** are **not more effective than placebo** in alleviating pain or improving function in osteoarthritis. - The American College of Rheumatology (ACR) and other major medical organizations **do not recommend** its use due to a lack of evidence of efficacy. *Glucocorticoid steroid intra-articular injections* - **Intra-articular corticosteroid injections** provide **short-term pain relief** [1] and reduce inflammation in patients with osteoarthritis, especially during flares. - They are a commonly used and effective treatment for **symptomatic knee osteoarthritis** [1], although repeated injections have potential risks and may not alter long-term disease progression. *Acetaminophen* - **Acetaminophen (paracetamol)** is often recommended as a **first-line oral analgesic** for mild to moderate pain in osteoarthritis due to its relatively favorable side effect profile compared to NSAIDs for long-term use. - It works by **inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis** primarily in the central nervous system, reducing pain perception. *Total joint arthroplasty* - **Total joint arthroplasty (TJA)**, particularly **total knee replacement**, is a highly effective surgical treatment for patients with **severe, end-stage osteoarthritis** [1] who have failed conservative therapies. - It significantly **reduces pain and improves functional outcomes** [1] and quality of life for the vast majority of patients.
Question 5: A patient presents with a suspected cervical spine injury following an accident. What is the first step in management?
- A. perform imaging studies
- B. administer oxygen
- C. stabilize the cervical spine (Correct Answer)
- D. log roll the patient
Explanation: ***stabilize the cervical spine*** - In any suspected cervical spine injury, the **first and most critical step is to stabilize the cervical spine** to prevent further neurological damage. This is achieved through manual inline stabilization, followed by a **rigid cervical collar** and placement on a backboard. - This immediate stabilization is paramount before any other assessments or interventions that could potentially worsen the injury. *perform imaging studies* - While imaging studies (e.g., X-ray, CT scan) are crucial for diagnosing the extent of cervical spine injury, they should only be performed **after the spine has been adequately stabilized**. - Performing imaging prior to stabilization risks **further displacement** of vertebrae and spinal cord injury. *administer oxygen* - Administering oxygen is an important step in **maintaining adequate oxygenation** and is part of initial resuscitation, but it does not take priority over cervical spine stabilization in a trauma setting. - **Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC)** management should always incorporate cervical spine protection. *log roll the patient* - **Log rolling** is a technique used to move a patient with a suspected spinal injury, but it must be performed **only after the cervical spine is stabilized** and with sufficient personnel to ensure coordinated movement. - Log rolling is not the first step in management; rather, it is a technique for patient assessment and transfer once initial stabilization is achieved.
Question 6: Osteoarthritis is typically not seen in which of the following joints?
- A. Ankle joints (Correct Answer)
- B. Knee joints
- C. Hip joints
- D. First metacarpophalangeal joint
Explanation: **Explanation:** Primary **Osteoarthritis (OA)** is a degenerative joint disease that characteristically affects weight-bearing joints and specific small joints of the hand. **Why Ankle Joints are the Correct Answer:** The **ankle (talocrural) joint** is remarkably resistant to primary osteoarthritis. This is due to the unique properties of ankle cartilage, which is thinner but has higher proteoglycan density and lower water content compared to the knee or hip, making it more resistant to compressive forces. While the ankle is a weight-bearing joint, OA here is almost always **secondary** (e.g., following intra-articular fractures, ligamentous instability, or rheumatoid arthritis) rather than primary/idiopathic. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Knee Joints:** The most common site for primary OA. It typically involves the medial compartment due to the mechanical axis of the lower limb. * **Hip Joints:** A major weight-bearing joint frequently affected by primary OA, often leading to total hip arthroplasty in elderly patients. * **First Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) Joint:** While OA commonly affects the **First Carpometacarpal (CMC)** joint (base of the thumb) and the **Distal Interphalangeal (DIP)** joints (Heberden’s nodes), the first MCP joint is also a recognized site for degenerative changes due to the high stresses of pinch and grip. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Nodal Distribution:** OA typically affects DIP joints (Heberden’s nodes) and PIP joints (Bouchard’s nodes). **MCP joints (except the 1st) and wrists are usually spared** (if involved, think Rheumatoid Arthritis). * **Radiological Hallmarks:** Joint space narrowing (asymmetrical), subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, and osteophyte formation. * **Kellgren-Lawrence Grading:** The standard radiological classification system for OA severity. * **Eburnation:** A pathological feature where subchondral bone becomes polished and ivory-like due to complete loss of overlying cartilage.
Question 7: Frieberg's disease involves which of the following?
- A. Tibial tuberosity
- B. Calcaneal tuberosity
- C. 2nd metatarsal (Correct Answer)
- D. 5th metatarsal
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Freiberg’s disease** is an **osteochondrosis** (avascular necrosis) affecting the head of the metatarsal. It most commonly involves the **2nd metatarsal head (Option C)** because it is the longest and most rigid metatarsal, making it susceptible to repetitive microtrauma and excessive loading during the toe-off phase of gait. It is typically seen in adolescent girls and presents with pain, swelling, and limited range of motion at the metatarsophalangeal joint. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (Tibial tuberosity):** This is the site for **Osgood-Schlatter disease**, a traction apophysitis caused by repetitive strain from the patellar tendon. * **Option B (Calcaneal tuberosity):** This is the site for **Sever’s disease**, an apophysitis of the calcaneus common in active children. * **Option D (5th metatarsal):** The base of the 5th metatarsal is the site for **Iselin’s disease** (apophysitis). While the 5th metatarsal is also prone to Jones fractures, it is not the classic site for Freiberg’s. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Demographics:** Most common in adolescent females (ratio ~3:1). * **Radiology:** Early stages show flattening and sclerosis of the metatarsal head; late stages show joint space narrowing and secondary osteoarthritis. * **Hierarchy of Involvement:** 2nd Metatarsal (most common) > 3rd Metatarsal > 4th Metatarsal. * **Management:** Conservative (activity modification, orthotics) is first-line; surgery (debridement or osteotomy) is reserved for refractory cases.
Question 8: A 56-year-old Type II diabetic presents with complaints of swelling in the left ankle with effusion but only minimal pain. X-rays show severe osteopenia with bone destruction, extensive osteophytosis, and loose bodies. Which of the following is NOT a component of the management of this patient?
- A. Resting and splinting
- B. Aspiration and compression bandage
- C. Total ankle replacement (Correct Answer)
- D. Ankle arthrodesis
Explanation: ### **Explanation** The clinical presentation of a diabetic patient with a swollen, effused ankle, minimal pain despite severe radiological destruction (osteopenia, osteophytosis, and loose bodies), is classic for **Charcot’s Arthropathy (Neuropathic Joint)**. #### **Why Total Ankle Replacement (TAR) is NOT recommended:** Total Ankle Replacement is **contraindicated** in Charcot’s neuroarthropathy. The underlying pathology involves a loss of protective sensation and autonomic dysfunction, leading to repetitive microtrauma and bone collapse. Because the bone quality is poor (severe osteopenia/destruction) and the joint is unstable due to ligamentous laxity, a prosthetic implant would lack the necessary structural support, leading to early loosening, periprosthetic fracture, and high rates of infection or amputation. #### **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Resting and splinting (A):** This is the cornerstone of management during the acute (Eichenholtz Stage 0 or I) phase to prevent further bone destruction and deformity. * **Aspiration and compression bandage (B):** Used to manage significant joint effusion and reduce swelling, which helps in decreasing inflammatory markers and improving skin integrity. * **Ankle arthrodesis (D):** While challenging, surgical fusion (arthrodesis) is a recognized treatment for late-stage, unstable Charcot joints to provide a stable, plantigrade foot, especially when conservative measures fail. #### **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "6 D’s" of Charcot Joint:** Destruction, Debris, Density (increased/sclerosis), Disorganization, Dislocation, and Distension. * **Most common cause:** Diabetes Mellitus (affects foot/ankle). Other causes include Syphilis (Tabes dorsalis - affects knee) and Syringomyelia (affects shoulder/elbow). * **Clinical Paradox:** The hallmark is the **disparity** between the severe radiographic destruction and the relatively painless clinical presentation. * **Treatment Goal:** The primary goal is a stable, infection-free, plantigrade foot; mobility (via replacement) is sacrificed for stability.
Question 9: What is the deformity most commonly seen in primary osteoarthritis of the knee joint?
- A. Genu valgum
- B. Genu recurvatum
- C. Genu varus (Correct Answer)
- D. Procurvatum
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Genu varus** In primary osteoarthritis (OA) of the knee, the **medial compartment** is the most common site of cartilage degeneration. This occurs because the mechanical axis of the lower limb normally passes slightly medial to the center of the knee joint, causing the medial compartment to bear approximately 60-70% of the load during walking. As the medial articular cartilage thins and the joint space narrows, the tibia tilts medially relative to the femur, resulting in a **bow-legged** appearance known as **Genu varus**. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Genu valgum (Knock-knees):** This is less common in primary OA. It occurs when the lateral compartment undergoes preferential degeneration. It is more frequently associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis or secondary OA. * **B. Genu recurvatum:** This refers to hyperextension of the knee. It is typically caused by ligamentous laxity (e.g., polio, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome) or quadriceps weakness, rather than primary degenerative changes. * **D. Procurvatum:** This is a forward bowing of the bone (fixed flexion deformity). While OA can lead to a fixed flexion deformity due to posterior capsular contracture, "Genu varus" is the classic coronal plane deformity described. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Kellgren-Lawrence Grading:** The standard radiological classification for OA (Grade 0-4), based on joint space narrowing, osteophytes, and sclerosis. * **First Sign on X-ray:** Often subchondral sclerosis or small osteophytes; however, joint space narrowing is the hallmark. * **Management:** High Tibial Osteotomy (HTO) is a high-yield surgical option for young, active patients with isolated medial compartment OA and varus deformity to realign the weight-bearing axis. * **Heberden’s Nodes:** Found at the DIP joints (characteristic of primary OA).
Question 10: Stress fracture occurs most commonly in which of the following bones?
- A. Metatarsals (Correct Answer)
- B. Metacarpals
- C. Calcaneum
- D. Talus
Explanation: **Explanation:** A **stress fracture** (also known as a fatigue fracture) occurs due to repetitive mechanical stress or rhythmic muscle action on a bone that has not had time to adapt to the load. Unlike traumatic fractures, these result from cumulative micro-trauma. **Why Metatarsals are correct:** The **metatarsals** are the most common site for stress fractures in the human body, specifically the **second and third metatarsals**. This is because they are relatively thin and rigid compared to the first metatarsal, bearing significant weight during the "toe-off" phase of the gait cycle. When occurring in the metatarsal shaft, it is classically referred to as a **"March Fracture,"** historically associated with military recruits or long-distance runners. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Metacarpals:** These are rare sites for stress fractures as they are not weight-bearing bones. * **Calcaneum:** This is the **second most common** site for stress fractures. It typically presents with heel pain aggravated by the "squeeze test" (mediolateral compression of the calcaneus). * **Talus:** While stress fractures can occur in the talar neck or body (often in athletes), they are significantly less common than those in the metatarsals or calcaneum. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site overall:** 2nd Metatarsal (March Fracture). * **Most common site in athletes:** Tibia (specifically the junction of the middle and lower thirds). * **Investigation of Choice:** **MRI** is the most sensitive and specific early investigation (shows marrow edema). * **X-ray findings:** Often negative in the first 2–3 weeks; later shows a faint hairline crack or exuberant callus formation. * **Female Athlete Triad:** Amenorrhea, disordered eating, and osteoporosis significantly increase the risk of stress fractures.
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