Principles of Arthroscopy — MCQs
Rupture of extensor pollicis longus tendon occurs in all of the following except -
Which of the following is the most commonly used extraoral orthodontic appliance:
The operative procedure known as "microfracture" is done for the
Which of the following is a contraindication for open reduction & internal fixation (ORIF)?
Which of the following is not true about ACL injury?
Arthritis mutilans is seen in?
What is the most effective management strategy for hemarthrosis?
Axillary Nerve Injury is least likely in:
Match the following: A) Caplan syndrome- 1) Found first in coal worker B) Asbestosis- 2) Upper lobe predominance C) Mesothelioma- 3) Involves lower lobe D) Sarcoidosis- 4) Pleural effusion is seen
An athlete sustained an injury around the knee joint with suspected cartilage damage. Which of the following is the investigation of choice?
Principles of Arthroscopy Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Rupture of extensor pollicis longus tendon occurs in all of the following except -
- A. De Quervain's disease (Correct Answer)
- B. Rheumatoid arthritis
- C. Drummers
- D. Colles' fracture
Explanation: ***De Quervain's disease*** - This condition involves **tenosynovitis** of the **extensor pollicis brevis** and **abductor pollicis longus** tendons, not a rupture of the extensor pollicis longus. - The pathology is an inflammation and thickening of the tendon sheaths, distinct from a tendon tear. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Chronic inflammation** in rheumatoid arthritis can lead to weakening and eventual rupture of tendons, including the **extensor pollicis longus**, often due to synovitis eroding the tendon. - The condition creates an environment where tendons are vulnerable to **attrition** and damage, making rupture a recognized complication. *Drummers* - Repetitive, high-force movements involved in drumming can cause significant **stress** and microscopic damage to tendons, including the **extensor pollicis longus**. - Over time, this cumulative trauma can lead to inflammation, degeneration, and eventual **rupture** due to overuse. *Colles' fracture* - A **Colles' fracture** of the distal radius can cause a delayed rupture of the **extensor pollicis longus (EPL)** tendon. - This occurs due to attrition of the tendon as it rubs over the **roughened fracture site** or due to *avascular necrosis* of the tendon as it passes through a narrow osteofibrous tunnel.
Question 2: Which of the following is the most commonly used extraoral orthodontic appliance:
- A. Face mask.
- B. Head gear. (Correct Answer)
- C. None.
- D. Chin cup.
Explanation: **Head gear.** * **Headgear** is a widely recognized and utilized **extraoral orthodontic appliance** in dental practice due to its versatility in controlling maxillary growth, especially in patients with Class II malocclusion. * It consists of an **outer bow** (facebow) and an **inner bow**, connected to bands on the molars, which exerts orthopedic force on the maxilla and teeth. *Face mask.* * A **face mask** (or protraction headgear) is primarily used for **Class III malocclusions** to encourage maxillary protraction and inhibit mandibular growth. * While an important extraoral appliance, its usage is less common than headgear, as Class III skeletal patterns are less prevalent than Class II. *None.* * This option is incorrect because there are several commonly used extraoral orthodontic appliances, with **headgear** being a prime example. *Chin cup.* * A **chin cup** is an extraoral appliance used specifically for the orthopedic management of developing **Class III malocclusions** by restraining mandibular growth. * Its primary application is to redirect the growth of the mandible downward and backward, but it is less frequently prescribed compared to headgear for Class II correction.
Question 3: The operative procedure known as "microfracture" is done for the
- A. Delayed union of femur
- B. Osteochondral defect of femur (Correct Answer)
- C. Non union of tibia
- D. Loose bodies of ankle joint
Explanation: ***Osteochondral defect of femur*** - **Microfracture** is a surgical technique used to stimulate the growth of **fibrocartilage** in areas of damaged articular cartilage, such as an **osteochondral defect**. - It involves creating small holes in the **subchondral bone** to allow stem cells and growth factors from the bone marrow to form a new reparative tissue. *Delayed union of femur* - **Delayed union** typically involves an extended time for fracture healing, which is often managed through prolonged immobilization, **bone grafting**, or sometimes revision surgery. - Microfracture specifically targets cartilage repair, not the process of **bony union** after a fracture. *Non union of tibia* - **Non-union** refers to the failure of a fractured bone to heal within a reasonable timeframe, often requiring surgical intervention with **bone grafts** or **internal fixation**. - This condition involves bone healing problems, distinct from cartilage defects that microfracture addresses. *Loose bodies of ankle joint* - **Loose bodies** in a joint are typically removed surgically, often arthroscopically, to relieve pain and prevent joint damage. - This procedure does not involve the repair of cartilage defects, which is the primary goal of microfracture.
Question 4: Which of the following is a contraindication for open reduction & internal fixation (ORIF)?
- A. Active infection
- B. Soft bones
- C. Soft tissue contractures around the fracture site
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Active infection** at the surgical site is a significant contraindication for ORIF due to the high risk of **osteomyelitis** and implant failure. - **Soft bones**, such as those found in patients with **osteoporosis**, may not adequately hold the internal fixation devices (screws, plates), leading to implant loosening or cutout. - **Soft tissue contractures** around the fracture site can make surgical access difficult, compromise soft tissue coverage, and increase the risk of wound complications and poor functional outcomes. *Active infection* - While a direct contraindication, it's not the *only* one for ORIF. - Performing ORIF in the presence of infection significantly increases the risk of **surgical site infection** and implant failure, potentially leading to chronic osteomyelitis. *Soft bones* - This is a significant challenge for ORIF, as the bone quality may not be sufficient to hold the hardware securely. - It increases the risk of **implant failure** and non-union, but again, it's not the sole contraindication listed. *Soft tissue contractures around the fracture site* - Severe contractures can **impede surgical exposure**, make anatomical reduction difficult, and compromise the vascularity of the tissues. - This can lead to increased rates of **wound complications** and poor healing, but it is one of several contraindications.
Question 5: Which of the following is not true about ACL injury?
- A. ACL is important for proprioceptive function
- B. It is a component of the O'Donoghue triad
- C. ACL is intrasynovial
- D. Anterior drawer test is the most sensitive test (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anterior drawer test is the most sensitive test*** - The **anterior drawer test** has a relatively low sensitivity (around 50-70%) for diagnosing acute ACL tears due to guarding and hamstring spasm. - The **Lachman test** is generally considered the most sensitive clinical test for ACL tears, especially in acute settings. *ACL is important for proprioceptive function* - The ACL contains **mechanoreceptors** (e.g., Pacinian and Ruffini corpuscles) that contribute to joint position sense and kinesthesia, which are crucial for dynamic stability. - Injury to the ACL can impair **proprioception**, increasing the risk of recurrent instability and future injuries. *It is a component of the O'Donoghue triad* - The **O'Donoghue triad** (also known as the "terrible triad" or "unhappy triad") consists of injuries to the **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)**, medial collateral ligament (MCL), and medial meniscus. - This classic combination of injuries commonly results from a valgus stress with external rotation applied to a flexed knee. *ACL is intrasynovial* - The ACL is paradoxically situated within the knee joint capsule but is **extrasynovial**, meaning it is surrounded by a synovial sheath but not directly bathed in synovial fluid. - This unique anatomical arrangement has implications for its healing potential and response to injury.
Question 6: Arthritis mutilans is seen in?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Spondyloarthropathy
- C. Reactive arthritis
- D. Psoriatic arthropathy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psoriatic arthropathy*** - **Arthritis mutilans** is a severe, destructive form of psoriatic arthritis characterized by marked **osteolysis** and telescoping deformities of the digits [1]. - This condition is almost exclusively associated with **psoriatic arthritis**, representing its most aggressive subtype [1]. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - While rheumatoid arthritis can cause severe joint destruction, it typically manifests as **erosive arthritis** with joint deformities like **swan-neck** and **boutonnière deformities**, but not true arthritis mutilans [3]. - The pattern of bone destruction (osteolysis) seen in arthritis mutilans is distinct from the erosions in rheumatoid arthritis. *Spondyloarthropathy* - This is a broad category that includes diseases like ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis, which primarily affect the **axial skeleton** and entheses. - While some spondyloarthropathies can cause peripheral joint involvement, they generally do not lead to the extreme osteolysis and telescoping digits characteristic of arthritis mutilans. *Reactive arthritis* - Reactive arthritis is an aseptic inflammatory arthritis that often follows infection, characterized by **oligoarthritis**, dactylitis, and enthesitis [2]. - This condition does not typically cause the severe, mutilating joint destruction seen in arthritis mutilans.
Question 7: What is the most effective management strategy for hemarthrosis?
- A. Immobilization with a P.O.P. cast
- B. Application of a compression bandage
- C. Needle aspiration to remove excess blood (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Needle aspiration to remove excess blood*** - **Aspirating the blood** from the joint effectively reduces intra-articular pressure, pain, and inflammation. - This procedure also helps prevent **synovial hypertrophy** and **cartilage damage** caused by the presence of blood in the joint. *Application of a compression bandage* - While helpful for reducing swelling and providing support, a **compression bandage alone** does not remove the accumulated blood. - It may alleviate some discomfort but does not address the underlying issue of **intra-articular blood accumulation**. *Immobilization with a P.O.P. cast* - **Immobilization** can help rest the joint and reduce pain, but it does not remove the blood from the joint space. - Prolonged immobilization can lead to **joint stiffness** and **muscle atrophy**, which are undesirable outcomes. *All of the options* - While compression and immobilization can be supportive measures, they are not the **most effective primary strategy** for managing hemarthrosis. - The direct removal of blood via **aspiration** is crucial for alleviating pressure and preventing long-term joint damage.
Question 8: Axillary Nerve Injury is least likely in:
- A. Intramuscular injection
- B. Shoulder dislocation
- C. Improper use of crutch (Correct Answer)
- D. Fracture proximal humerus
Explanation: Improper use of crutch - **Improper crutch usage** primarily affects the **radial nerve** in the axilla due to direct compression against the humerus. - While it can cause nerve damage, the **axillary nerve** is less commonly injured by crutch use as it lies more distally and laterally, protected by the deltoid muscle. *Intramuscular injection* - Injections in the **deltoid muscle** can directly injure the **axillary nerve** due to its superficial course around the surgical neck of the humerus. [1] - This risk is higher with improper technique or very deep injections, leading to **deltoid weakness** and **sensory loss** over the lateral shoulder. *Shoulder dislocation* - **Anterior shoulder dislocations** are a common cause of **axillary nerve injury** due to the stretching or tearing of the nerve as the humeral head displaces. - The nerve wraps around the **surgical neck of the humerus**, making it vulnerable during dislocation. *Fracture proximal humerus* - Fractures of the **surgical neck of the humerus** often lead to **axillary nerve damage** because the nerve lies in close proximity to this region. - The blunt force or displacement of bone fragments can directly compress or lacerate the nerve.
Question 9: Match the following: A) Caplan syndrome- 1) Found first in coal worker B) Asbestosis- 2) Upper lobe predominance C) Mesothelioma- 3) Involves lower lobe D) Sarcoidosis- 4) Pleural effusion is seen
- A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
- B. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 (Correct Answer)
- C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
- D. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Explanation: **A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2** - **Caplan syndrome** was first described in **coal workers** with **rheumatoid arthritis** and progressive massive fibrosis. - **Asbestosis** is often associated with **pleural effusion**, which can be benign or malignant. - **Mesothelioma** typically involves the **lower lobes** of the lungs, specifically the pleura, and is strongly linked to asbestos exposure. - **Sarcoidosis** is characterized by **non-caseating granulomas**, which have a predilection for the **upper lobes** of the lungs. *A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1* - This option incorrectly states that Caplan syndrome involves the lower lobe; **Caplan syndrome** is defined by the presence of large nodules in the lungs of coal workers with rheumatoid arthritis, and their specific lobar distribution is not a defining characteristic. - This option incorrectly states that Mesothelioma has an upper lobe predominance; **Mesothelioma** is a pleural malignancy and typically involves the **lower lobes**, extending along the pleura. *A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1* - This option incorrectly associates Caplan syndrome with pleural effusion; **Caplan syndrome** manifests as rheumatoid nodules in the lungs, not primarily pleural effusion. - This option incorrectly states that Asbestosis has an upper lobe predominance; **Asbestosis** predominantly affects the **lower lobes** of the lungs, causing interstitial fibrosis. *A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1* - This option incorrectly states that Caplan syndrome has an upper lobe predominance; the defining feature of **Caplan syndrome** is the combination of rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis, not specific lobar involvement. - This option correctly identifies pleural effusion with asbestosis and lower lobe involvement with mesothelioma, but **Caplan syndrome** is not characterized by upper lobe predominance.
Question 10: An athlete sustained an injury around the knee joint with suspected cartilage damage. Which of the following is the investigation of choice?
- A. X-ray
- B. Clinical examination
- C. Arthroscopy (Correct Answer)
- D. Arthrotomy
Explanation: **Explanation:** The investigation of choice for suspected intra-articular cartilage damage is **Arthroscopy**. It is considered the **"Gold Standard"** because it allows for direct visualization of the articular surfaces, menisci, and ligaments under magnification. Unlike imaging, it provides a dynamic assessment of the tissue's integrity and allows the surgeon to perform immediate therapeutic interventions (e.g., debridement or chondroplasty). **Analysis of Options:** * **X-ray (Option A):** X-rays are excellent for visualizing bony injuries or fractures but are poor at showing soft tissues like cartilage or menisci. They are usually the first-line screening tool but are not definitive for cartilage damage. * **Clinical Examination (Option B):** While essential for initial diagnosis (e.g., McMurray’s or Lachman tests), clinical exams are subjective and can be limited by pain, swelling, or muscle guarding in an acute athlete injury. * **Arthrotomy (Option D):** This involves a large surgical incision to open the joint. It is highly invasive and has been largely replaced by arthroscopy due to higher morbidity and longer recovery times. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **MRI vs. Arthroscopy:** While MRI is the investigation of choice for *non-invasive* screening of soft tissue injuries, **Arthroscopy** remains the overall "Gold Standard" for definitive diagnosis and treatment. * **Triad of O'Donoghue:** Often seen in athletes, involving injury to the ACL, MCL, and Medial Meniscus. * **Arthroscopy Media:** Normal saline or Ringer’s Lactate is used to distend the joint during the procedure. * **Common Portals:** The anterolateral portal is the most common primary portal used in knee arthroscopy.
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