Rehabilitation After Arthroplasty — MCQs
A pole vaulter had a fall during pole vaulting and had paralysis of the arm . Which of the following investigations gives the best recovery prognosis -
What is the most common complication after total hip replacement?
A patient prescribed crutches for residual paralysis in poliomyelitis is a type of -
A 70-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis of the hip presents with worsening pain and limited mobility despite conservative management. What is the next appropriate step?
Locking of the knee involves which of the following?
What is the most effective management strategy for hemarthrosis?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the recovery phase after a disaster?
The Henderson-Jones classification is used for:
Which of the following is considered a fenestrated hip prosthesis?
A patient with an orthopaedic hip implant is to undergo dental extraction. What antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended?
Rehabilitation After Arthroplasty Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A pole vaulter had a fall during pole vaulting and had paralysis of the arm . Which of the following investigations gives the best recovery prognosis -
- A. Electromyography (Correct Answer)
- B. Strength Duration Curve
- C. Creatine phosphokinase levels
- D. Muscle biopsy
Explanation: Electromyography - **Electromyography (EMG)** can help assess the extent of nerve damage and reinnervation, providing insights into the potential for recovery [1]. - The presence of **spontaneous activity** (fibrillations, positive sharp waves) indicates denervation, while the appearance of **motor unit action potentials (MUAPs)** suggests reinnervation [1]. *Creatine phosphokinase levels* - **Creatine phosphokinase (CPK)** levels primarily indicate **muscle damage**, not the extent of nerve injury or recovery potential. - While muscle damage can occur with nerve injury, CPK does not provide specific prognostic information for nerve regeneration. *Strength Duration Curve* - The **strength duration curve** assesses the excitability of a nerve or muscle to electrical stimulation. - While it can differentiate between **nerve and muscle damage**, it provides less comprehensive prognostic information compared to EMG regarding the status of nerve regeneration. *Muscle biopsy* - A **muscle biopsy** would directly evaluate muscle pathology, such as atrophy or regeneration. - However, it is an **invasive procedure** and provides less direct information about nerve recovery compared to EMG, which directly assesses nerve and muscle electrical activity.
Question 2: What is the most common complication after total hip replacement?
- A. Dislocation
- B. DVT (Correct Answer)
- C. Infection
- D. Aseptic Loosening
Explanation: ***DVT*** - Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the **most common overall complication** following total hip replacement, with reported incidences as high as 40-60% without prophylaxis. - The risk of DVT is significant due to **venous stasis during surgery**, immobilization, and the inflammatory response to tissue injury. *Dislocation* - While a serious complication, **dislocation** of the prosthetic hip joint is less common than DVT, occurring in about 1-5% of primary total hip replacements. - It typically results from **improper joint positioning** or patient activities that push the hip beyond its normal range of motion. *Infection* - **Infection** is a severe but relatively rare complication, with rates for periprosthetic joint infection in total hip replacement typically ranging from 0.5% to 2%. - It can lead to significant morbidity and usually requires **further surgical intervention** for eradication. *Aseptic Loosening* - **Aseptic loosening** is a long-term complication, occurring years after the surgery, rather than an immediate post-operative complication. - This complication involves the **failure of the implant-bone interface** without evidence of infection, often due to particle disease or mechanical stress.
Question 3: A patient prescribed crutches for residual paralysis in poliomyelitis is a type of -
- A. Disability limitation
- B. Primordial prevention
- C. Primary prevention
- D. Rehabilitation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rehabilitation*** - Rehabilitation is a component of **tertiary prevention** that aims to restore maximum functional ability after permanent damage has occurred from disease. - Providing crutches to a polio patient with **residual (established) paralysis** helps restore mobility and independence, allowing the patient to adapt to their permanent disability. - This intervention occurs **after the disease has run its course** and permanent sequelae have developed, which is the hallmark of rehabilitation. *Disability limitation* - Disability limitation is another component of **tertiary prevention** but focuses on **preventing progression or complications** of an already established disease. - It applies during the **disease active phase** to minimize further damage (e.g., physiotherapy during acute polio to prevent contractures, or strict glycemic control in diabetes to prevent complications). - In this case, the paralysis is **residual (fixed)**, not active, so we are beyond the disability limitation phase. *Primordial prevention* - Primordial prevention targets the underlying environmental and social determinants to prevent the emergence of risk factors at the population level. - This occurs **before any risk factors** for disease have developed (e.g., policies to prevent emergence of sedentary lifestyles). - Not applicable to a patient with established disease. *Primary prevention* - Primary prevention aims to prevent disease occurrence by reducing risk factors or increasing resistance (e.g., polio vaccination, health education). - This intervention is applied **before the disease occurs**, which is not the case for a patient with established paralysis from poliomyelitis.
Question 4: A 70-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis of the hip presents with worsening pain and limited mobility despite conservative management. What is the next appropriate step?
- A. NSAIDs
- B. Physical therapy
- C. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections
- D. Total hip replacement (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Total hip replacement*** - For **severe osteoarthritis (OA)** causing significant pain and **functional impairment** despite failed conservative management, **total hip replacement** is the most definitive and effective treatment. - This procedure alleviates pain and restores **mobility**, dramatically improving the patient's quality of life. *NSAIDs* - **NSAIDs** are typically part of **initial conservative management** for symptomatic relief in mild to moderate OA, but they have already failed in this patient. - Continued use in elderly patients carries risks of **gastrointestinal, renal, and cardiovascular side effects**, making it a less desirable long-term solution. *Physical therapy* - **Physical therapy** is a crucial component of conservative management to improve **strength, flexibility, and function**, but it often becomes insufficient in advanced OA. - Since this patient has worsening symptoms despite conservative measures, physical therapy alone is unlikely to provide adequate relief. *Intra-articular corticosteroid injections* - **Corticosteroid injections** can provide temporary pain relief by reducing inflammation but do not address the underlying **structural damage** of severe OA. - Their effectiveness diminishes over time, and repeated injections are discouraged due to potential cartilage damage.
Question 5: Locking of the knee involves which of the following?
- A. Internal rotation of the tibia with the foot on the ground
- B. Contraction of the popliteus muscle
- C. Internal rotation of the femur with the foot on the ground (Correct Answer)
- D. External rotation of femur with the foot off the ground
Explanation: ***Internal rotation of the femur with the foot on the ground*** - When the foot is on the ground (closed kinematic chain), the **femur rotates internally on the tibia** during the end stages of knee extension. This creates a more stable, "locked" position of the knee. - This **terminal rotation of the femur** increases the contact area and tension in the cruciate ligaments, enhancing joint stability for weight-bearing. *Internal rotation of the tibia with the foot on the ground* - This describes the action of the **popliteus muscle** when "unlocking" the knee from full extension, not the locking mechanism itself. - With the foot on the ground, the tibia is fixed, and internal rotation would typically be a movement for unlocking, not locking. *Contraction of the popliteus muscle* - The **popliteus muscle** is primarily responsible for **unlocking the knee** from full extension, by causing internal rotation of the tibia (or external rotation of the femur). - Its contraction would lead to initial flexion of the knee, releasing the locked position, not establishing it. *External rotation of femur with the foot off the ground* - With the foot off the ground (open kinematic chain), **external rotation of the tibia** occurs during the final degrees of extension to lock the knee, not external rotation of the femur. - The locking mechanism requires specific relative rotation between femur and tibia; external rotation of the femur alone would not achieve the screw-home mechanism necessary for knee locking.
Question 6: What is the most effective management strategy for hemarthrosis?
- A. Immobilization with a P.O.P. cast
- B. Application of a compression bandage
- C. Needle aspiration to remove excess blood (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Needle aspiration to remove excess blood*** - **Aspirating the blood** from the joint effectively reduces intra-articular pressure, pain, and inflammation. - This procedure also helps prevent **synovial hypertrophy** and **cartilage damage** caused by the presence of blood in the joint. *Application of a compression bandage* - While helpful for reducing swelling and providing support, a **compression bandage alone** does not remove the accumulated blood. - It may alleviate some discomfort but does not address the underlying issue of **intra-articular blood accumulation**. *Immobilization with a P.O.P. cast* - **Immobilization** can help rest the joint and reduce pain, but it does not remove the blood from the joint space. - Prolonged immobilization can lead to **joint stiffness** and **muscle atrophy**, which are undesirable outcomes. *All of the options* - While compression and immobilization can be supportive measures, they are not the **most effective primary strategy** for managing hemarthrosis. - The direct removal of blood via **aspiration** is crucial for alleviating pressure and preventing long-term joint damage.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the recovery phase after a disaster?
- A. Rehabilitation
- B. Reconstruction
- C. Response (Correct Answer)
- D. Mitigation
Explanation: ***Response (Correct Answer)*** - **Response** activities occur during or immediately after the disaster event, NOT in the recovery phase - Includes immediate search and rescue, medical triage, emergency shelter provision, and acute crisis management - The goal is to **save lives, protect property**, and meet basic human needs during the acute crisis (typically 0-72 hours) - This is distinct from the recovery phase, which begins after the immediate emergency is controlled *Rehabilitation* - **Rehabilitation** is a key component of the **recovery phase** - Focuses on restoring services and infrastructure to acceptable levels after the initial emergency - Includes both physical recovery of individuals and return to functionality of critical systems like utilities and healthcare *Reconstruction* - **Reconstruction** is a major part of the **recovery phase** - Involves rebuilding infrastructure, homes, and communities, often to a better, more resilient standard than before - This is often a lengthy process aiming for long-term stability and development *Mitigation* - While **mitigation** can be incorporated into recovery planning, it is primarily focused on **future disaster prevention** - Measures taken to reduce the **loss of life and property** from future disasters - Can be implemented before a disaster strikes or planned during recovery, but the emphasis is on **risk reduction for future events** rather than immediate restoration from the current event
Question 8: The Henderson-Jones classification is used for:
- A. Diabetic foot
- B. Prosthetic joint infection (Correct Answer)
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Burns
Explanation: ***Prosthetic joint infection*** - The **Henderson-Jones classification** is a system used to categorize **prosthetic joint infections (PJI)** based on their **timing** of onset, distinguishing between early, delayed, and late infections. - This classification aids in guiding **treatment strategies**, as the approach for PJI varies depending on when the infection develops after surgery. *Diabetic foot* - **Diabetic foot ulcers** are typically classified using systems like the **Wagner classification** or the **University of Texas Wound Classification System**, which focus on wound depth, presence of infection, and ischemia. - These classifications specifically address the unique pathology and progression of **foot complications** in diabetic patients. *Pressure ulcers* - **Pressure ulcers (bedsores)** are commonly classified using the **National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel (NPUAP)** staging system or the **International Pressure Ulcer Classification System**, which categorize ulcers by depth of tissue damage. - These systems are crucial for assessing severity, guiding treatment, and predicting outcomes for **skin and underlying tissue injury** caused by sustained pressure. *Burns* - **Burns** are traditionally classified by **depth** (e.g., first, second, third, and fourth-degree burns) and **total body surface area (TBSA)** affected, using tools like the Rule of Nines. - This classification helps determine the **severity** of the burn and guides initial management, fluid resuscitation, and surgical intervention.
Question 9: Which of the following is considered a fenestrated hip prosthesis?
- A. Bipolar prosthesis
- B. Austin Moore prosthesis (Correct Answer)
- C. Thompson prosthesis
- D. All of the above
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Austin Moore prosthesis**. In orthopaedic surgery, a **fenestrated prosthesis** refers to an implant with "windows" or openings in its stem. These holes allow for bone to grow through the prosthesis (biological fixation), providing long-term stability. **1. Why Austin Moore is correct:** The Austin Moore prosthesis is a unipolar hemiarthroplasty implant used for femoral neck fractures. Its defining feature is a **fenestrated stem**. During surgery, bone chips are often packed into these fenestrations; over time, bone grows through these holes (osseointegration), anchoring the prosthesis to the femoral shaft without the need for bone cement. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Thompson prosthesis:** This is also a unipolar prosthesis, but it has a **solid (non-fenestrated) stem**. It is designed to be used with bone cement (Polymethylmethacrylate - PMMA) for fixation. * **Bipolar prosthesis:** This refers to an implant with two points of articulation (one at the acetabulum and one within the prosthetic head). While the stem design can vary, the term "bipolar" describes the head mechanism, not the presence of fenestrations. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Fixation:** Austin Moore = **Uncemented** (Press-fit/Biological); Thompson = **Cemented**. * **Indications:** Austin Moore is preferred in patients with good bone quality; Thompson is preferred in osteoporotic patients where cement provides immediate stability. * **Calcar:** The Austin Moore prosthesis has a collar that rests on the calcar femorale to prevent subsidence. * **Complication:** A common complication of unipolar prostheses (Moore/Thompson) is **acetabular erosion** (protrusio acetabuli) because the metal head rubs directly against the native cartilage.
Question 10: A patient with an orthopaedic hip implant is to undergo dental extraction. What antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended?
- A. Amoxicillin 3 times a day for 3 days before the procedure
- B. Amoxicillin 3 times a day for 1 day before the procedure
- C. Amoxicillin intravenously 1 hour before the procedure
- D. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not required (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not required.** **1. Underlying Medical Concept:** Historically, it was believed that dental procedures could cause transient bacteremia leading to Late Prosthetic Joint Infection (PJI). However, current evidence-based guidelines from the **American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS)** and the **American Dental Association (ADA)** state that there is no direct link between dental procedures and PJI. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis is **not recommended** for patients with prosthetic joint replacements undergoing dental procedures. The risks of antibiotic use (allergic reactions, *C. difficile* infection, and antimicrobial resistance) outweigh the unproven benefits of preventing joint infection. **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Options A and B:** Prophylaxis is never administered for multiple days or a full day before a procedure. If prophylaxis were indicated (e.g., for infective endocarditis), it would be a single pre-operative dose. * **Option C:** While IV antibiotics are used for surgical prophylaxis (like during the arthroplasty itself), they are not indicated for dental work in patients with joint implants. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Exception:** Prophylaxis may be considered only in **severely immunocompromised** patients (e.g., stage 3 AIDS, chemotherapy, or recent organ transplant) with poorly controlled oral infections, and even then, only after consultation between the dentist and the orthopedic surgeon. * **Timing:** If prophylaxis is deemed necessary for other reasons (like high-risk cardiac conditions), the standard dose is **2g Amoxicillin orally 30-60 minutes before** the procedure. * **High-Yield Fact:** The most common cause of Late PJI is hematogenous spread, but the source is usually skin or urinary tract infections, not dental flora.
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