Arthrology and Infections Practice Questions

Q: What is another name for ischial bursitis?

Weaver's bottom. ***Weaver's bottom*** - This is a common **colloquial term** for ischial bursitis, describing the condition that can arise from prolonged sitting. - The **ischial bursa** lies between the ischial tuberosity and the gluteus maximus, which can become inflamed from pressure. *Prepatellar bursitis* - This refers to inflammation of the bursa located over the **kneecap**. - It is often called **"housemaid's knee"** due to its association with prolonged kneeling. *Trochanteric bursitis* - This is inflammation of the bursa located over the **greater trochanter of the femur**, on the outer side of the hip. - It causes pain in the **lateral hip region**, often radiating down the thigh. *Olecranon bursitis* - This involves inflammation of the bursa located at the **tip of the elbow** (olecranon process). - It is sometimes called **"student's elbow"** or **"miner's elbow"** due to repetitive trauma or pressure.

Q: Which of the following is an orthopedic emergency?

Septic arthritis. ***Septic arthritis*** - This is an **orthopedic emergency** due to the rapid destruction of cartilage and bone if not treated promptly. - It requires urgent **surgical washout** and intravenous antibiotics to prevent irreversible joint damage and systemic infection. *Intraarticular fracture* - While requiring careful management to optimize joint function, an **intraarticular fracture** is typically not an immediate emergency unless there's associated neurovascular compromise or compartment syndrome. - Surgical intervention can often be planned within a certain timeframe (days) rather than hours. *Fracture lateral condyle humerus* - This fracture in children is significant due to potential for non-union or avascular necrosis, but it is not considered an immediate **life- or limb-threatening emergency**. - Management usually involves **reduction and fixation** but does not carry the same degree of urgency as active joint infection. *Fracture neck femur* - A fractured neck of femur requires surgical intervention to prevent complications like **avascular necrosis** and optimize mobility, particularly in elderly patients. - While serious, it primarily presents a risk of long-term disability and complications, not an immediate destructive process like septic arthritis.

Q: Windswept deformity is seen in which condition?

Rickets. ***Rickets*** - **Windswept deformity** is characterized by bilateral knee deformities where one knee is in **valgus** and the other is in **varus**. - This condition is caused by a deficiency in **vitamin D**, **calcium**, or **phosphate**, leading to improper bone mineralization and subsequent bone deformities. *Rheumatoid Arthritis* - Rheumatoid arthritis is a **chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease** primarily affecting the synovial joints. - While it can cause joint deformities, they typically involve symmetric joint swelling, pain, and stiffness, with characteristic deformities like **ulnar deviation** or **swan-neck deformities**, rather than windswept deformity. *Hyperparathyroidism* - Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of **parathyroid hormone**, which causes increased bone resorption and elevated blood calcium levels. - It can result in bone fragility, **osteitis fibrosa cystica**, and kidney stones, but it does not cause specific windswept deformity. *Scurvy* - Scurvy results from a severe deficiency of **vitamin C**, which is essential for collagen synthesis. - It presents with symptoms like bleeding gums, poor wound healing, and perifollicular hemorrhages, but it does not typically cause windswept deformity of the knees.

Q: Bulge sign in the knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation?

< 30 ml. **< 30 ml** - The **bulge sign** is a sensitive test for detecting small amounts of **effusion** in the knee joint. - It is typically positive with as little as 4-8 mL to 10-30 mL of fluid, making "< 30 mL" the most appropriate answer. *100 ml* - An effusion of 100 mL is a **moderate to large amount** of fluid, which would typically elicit a positive **patellar tap test (ballottement)** rather than just a bulge sign. - The **bulge sign** is designed to detect much smaller effusions. *400 ml* - This represents a **very large effusion** that would be clinically obvious and cause significant swelling and discomfort, far exceeding the threshold for a simple bulge sign. - A knee with 400 mL of fluid would likely have a tense, bulging appearance and a very prominent **patellar tap**. *200 ml* - This is also a **significant effusion** that would easily be detected by a patellar tap test and would present with gross swelling. - The **bulge sign** is specifically for subtler fluid collections.

Q: How is Brodie's abscess classified?

Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess). ***Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess)*** - Brodie's abscess is a **subacute or chronic localized osteomyelitis**, characterized by an intraosseous abscess often surrounded by a thick layer of sclerotic bone. - It represents a **contained infection** within the bone, lacking the widespread inflammatory response seen in acute forms. *Acute osteomyelitis* - Characterized by a **rapid onset** of severe pain, fever, and inflammation, usually within days to weeks of infection. - It involves a **widespread inflammatory process** and potential for bone destruction, differentiated from the contained and indolent nature of Brodie's abscess. *Subacute osteomyelitis* - This term describes an osteomyelitis with a more gradual onset and less severe symptoms than acute osteomyelitis, typically lasting several weeks to a few months. - While Brodie's abscess can present subacutely, it is specifically classified as a **form of chronic osteomyelitis** due to its localized, walled-off nature and prolonged course. *Septic arthritis* - Involves an infection within a **joint space**, leading to inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage. - It is distinct from Brodie's abscess, which is an infection of the **bone tissue itself**, not the joint.

Q: What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?

Fibrous ankylosis. ***Fibrous ankylosis*** - Joint tuberculosis commonly leads to **fibrous ankylosis** due to chronic inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage, promoting the formation of fibrous tissue that limits joint movement. - This complication results from the body's attempt to heal the persistent inflammatory process, creating a stiff and immoveable joint. *Bony ankylosis* - While possible in severe, long-standing cases, **bony ankylosis** (fusion of bones) is less common in joint tuberculosis than fibrous ankylosis. - It typically occurs in diseases like **ankylosing spondylitis** or advanced rheumatoid arthritis, where new bone formation bridges joint spaces. *Normal healing* - **Normal healing** with full restoration of joint function is rare in untreated or late-diagnosed joint tuberculosis due to the destructive nature of the infection. - The disease often causes significant damage to cartilage and bone, precluding complete recovery without sequelae. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **fibrous ankylosis** is a well-recognized and frequent complication of joint tuberculosis. - The chronic inflammatory response and tissue destruction inherent to the disease make complications highly probable.

Q: Which of the following statements about Pott's spine is false?

Always heals by chemotherapy. ***Always heals by chemotherapy*** - This statement is false because while **chemotherapy** (anti-tubercular drugs) is the primary treatment for **Pott's disease** (tuberculosis of the spine), healing is not always guaranteed and can sometimes require **surgical intervention** in cases of severe neurological deficit or instability. - The success of treatment depends on early diagnosis, patient compliance, and the severity of the disease, and not all cases resolve completely without residual issues. *Commonest at dorsolumbar junction* - **Pott's spine**, or **vertebral tuberculosis**, most frequently affects the **thoracic** and **lumbar regions**, particularly the **dorsolumbar junction** (T9-L1). - This predilection is attributed to the rich vascular supply and increased mechanical stress in this area. *Back pain is an early symptom* - **Back pain** is often one of the **earliest and most common symptoms** of Pott's spine, due to inflammation and destruction of vertebral bodies. - The pain is typically **localized**, progressive, and may worsen with movement. *There is disc space narrowing on x-ray* - **X-rays** of Pott's spine often show **disc space narrowing** along with vertebral destruction and collapse, differentiating it from pyogenic osteomyelitis where disc spaces might be initially preserved. - This narrowing is a consequence of the tuberculous infection spreading from the vertebral body to the adjacent **intervertebral disc**.

Q: Cloacae are openings found in which of the following?

Involucrum. ***Involucrum*** - **Cloacae** are openings or sinuses that develop in the **involucrum**, which is the new bone formation that surrounds a segment of necrotic bone (sequestrum) during osteomyelitis. - These openings act as channels for the discharge of **pus** and inflammatory debris from the infected bone to the external environment. *Sequestrum* - A **sequestrum** is a piece of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from the surrounding healthy bone due to osteomyelitis. - While central to the pathology, the cloacae are openings *through the involucrum* that encases the sequestrum, not in the sequestrum itself. *Normal bone* - **Normal bone** does not contain cloacae; these structures are a pathological feature indicative of chronic osteomyelitis. - Healthy bone remodels and resorbs normally, without the formation of channels for pus drainage. *Myositis* - **Myositis** is an inflammation of the **muscles**, not bone, and does not involve the formation of cloacae. - While it can be caused by infection, the pathological changes are localized to muscle tissue.

Q: Apparent lengthening is seen in which stage of TB Hip

Stage III. ***Stage III*** - In **Stage III (destructive stage)** of TB Hip, significant destruction of the femoral head and acetabulum can lead to superior migration of the greater trochanter. - This superior migration results in **apparent lengthening** of the limb due to the loss of bone structure and joint space. *Stage I* - **Stage I (synovitic stage)** involves inflammation of the synovium with effusion, but no significant bone destruction or joint changes that would cause lengthening. - At this stage, the joint space is usually preserved, and **no appreciable limb length discrepancy** is observed. *Stage II* - **Stage II (cartilage and early bone destruction)** begins to show destruction of articular cartilage and subchondral bone. - While there is some destruction, it is generally not extensive enough to cause the characteristic **apparent lengthening** seen in later stages. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **apparent lengthening** is a well-recognized feature during the advanced destructive phase (Stage III) of TB Hip. - The progressive nature of the disease directly contributes to specific radiographic and clinical findings like **unstable hip** and subsequent lengthening or shortening.

Q: Garre's osteomyelitis: which of the following statements is false?

Moth eaten appearance in radiography. ***Moth eaten appearance in radiography*** - This statement is **false** because Garre's osteomyelitis (also known as chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periostitis) characteristically shows periosteal new bone formation, often described as an **onion-skin appearance**, not a moth-eaten pattern. - A **moth-eaten appearance** on radiography is more indicative of aggressive bone destruction seen in conditions like Ewing sarcoma or more virulent forms of osteomyelitis, rather than the proliferative nature of Garre's. *Common in children and young adults* - Garre's osteomyelitis is indeed more commonly observed in **children and young adults**, particularly affecting the jaws (mandible). - This demographic is often exposed to the dental infections that predispose to this condition. *Occurs due to staphylococcus aureus* - **Staphylococcus aureus** is a common causative agent for osteomyelitis in general, including Garre's osteomyelitis, especially in cases where the infection originates from a dental source. - The bacterial infection leads to inflammation and subsequent periosteal reaction. *Prevalent in immune-competent patients* - Garre's osteomyelitis typically develops in **immune-competent individuals**, suggesting that the host immune response plays a role in the chronic, proliferative nature of the periosteal reaction. - Unlike some severe forms of osteomyelitis, it is not primarily associated with immunodeficiency.

Question 1

What is another name for ischial bursitis?

Accepted Answer

Weaver's bottom

Answer

Trochanteric bursitis

Answer

Prepatellar bursitis

Answer

Olecranon bursitis

Question 2

Which of the following is an orthopedic emergency?

Accepted Answer

Septic arthritis

Answer

Intraarticular fracture

Answer

Fracture lateral condyle humerus

Answer

Fracture neck femur

Question 3

Windswept deformity is seen in which condition?

Accepted Answer

Rickets

Answer

Hyperparathyroidism

Answer

Scurvy

Answer

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Question 4

Bulge sign in the knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation?

Accepted Answer

< 30 ml

Answer

200 ml

Answer

100 ml

Answer

400 ml

Question 5

How is Brodie's abscess classified?

Accepted Answer

Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess)

Answer

Acute osteomyelitis

Answer

Subacute osteomyelitis

Answer

Septic arthritis

Question 6

What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

Fibrous ankylosis

Answer

Bony ankylosis

Answer

Normal healing

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

Which of the following statements about Pott's spine is false?

Accepted Answer

Always heals by chemotherapy

Answer

There is disc space narrowing on x-ray

Answer

Back pain is an early symptom

Answer

Commonest at dorsolumbar junction

Question 8

Cloacae are openings found in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Involucrum

Answer

Sequestrum

Answer

Normal bone

Answer

Myositis

Question 9

Apparent lengthening is seen in which stage of TB Hip

Accepted Answer

Stage III

Answer

Stage II

Answer

Stage I

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

Garre's osteomyelitis: which of the following statements is false?

Accepted Answer

Moth eaten appearance in radiography

Answer

Prevalent in immune-competent patients

Answer

Common in children and young

Answer

Occurs due to staphylococcus aureus

Arthrology and Infections — MCQs

Arthrology and Infections — MCQs

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