Arthrology and Infections — MCQs

Arthrology and Infections Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 221: Which of the following is an orthopedic emergency?

A. Intraarticular fracture
B. Septic arthritis (Correct Answer)
C. Fracture lateral condyle humerus
D. Fracture neck femur

Explanation: ***Septic arthritis*** - This is an **orthopedic emergency** due to the rapid destruction of cartilage and bone if not treated promptly. - It requires urgent **surgical washout** and intravenous antibiotics to prevent irreversible joint damage and systemic infection. *Intraarticular fracture* - While requiring careful management to optimize joint function, an **intraarticular fracture** is typically not an immediate emergency unless there's associated neurovascular compromise or compartment syndrome. - Surgical intervention can often be planned within a certain timeframe (days) rather than hours. *Fracture lateral condyle humerus* - This fracture in children is significant due to potential for non-union or avascular necrosis, but it is not considered an immediate **life- or limb-threatening emergency**. - Management usually involves **reduction and fixation** but does not carry the same degree of urgency as active joint infection. *Fracture neck femur* - A fractured neck of femur requires surgical intervention to prevent complications like **avascular necrosis** and optimize mobility, particularly in elderly patients. - While serious, it primarily presents a risk of long-term disability and complications, not an immediate destructive process like septic arthritis.

Question 222: What is another name for ischial bursitis?

A. Weaver's bottom (Correct Answer)
B. Trochanteric bursitis
C. Prepatellar bursitis
D. Olecranon bursitis

Explanation: ***Weaver's bottom*** - This is a common **colloquial term** for ischial bursitis, describing the condition that can arise from prolonged sitting. - The **ischial bursa** lies between the ischial tuberosity and the gluteus maximus, which can become inflamed from pressure. *Prepatellar bursitis* - This refers to inflammation of the bursa located over the **kneecap**. - It is often called **"housemaid's knee"** due to its association with prolonged kneeling. *Trochanteric bursitis* - This is inflammation of the bursa located over the **greater trochanter of the femur**, on the outer side of the hip. - It causes pain in the **lateral hip region**, often radiating down the thigh. *Olecranon bursitis* - This involves inflammation of the bursa located at the **tip of the elbow** (olecranon process). - It is sometimes called **"student's elbow"** or **"miner's elbow"** due to repetitive trauma or pressure.

Question 223: Windswept deformity is seen in which condition?

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Scurvy
C. Rheumatoid Arthritis
D. Rickets (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Rickets*** - **Windswept deformity** is characterized by bilateral knee deformities where one knee is in **valgus** and the other is in **varus**. - This condition is caused by a deficiency in **vitamin D**, **calcium**, or **phosphate**, leading to improper bone mineralization and subsequent bone deformities. *Rheumatoid Arthritis* - Rheumatoid arthritis is a **chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease** primarily affecting the synovial joints. - While it can cause joint deformities, they typically involve symmetric joint swelling, pain, and stiffness, with characteristic deformities like **ulnar deviation** or **swan-neck deformities**, rather than windswept deformity. *Hyperparathyroidism* - Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of **parathyroid hormone**, which causes increased bone resorption and elevated blood calcium levels. - It can result in bone fragility, **osteitis fibrosa cystica**, and kidney stones, but it does not cause specific windswept deformity. *Scurvy* - Scurvy results from a severe deficiency of **vitamin C**, which is essential for collagen synthesis. - It presents with symptoms like bleeding gums, poor wound healing, and perifollicular hemorrhages, but it does not typically cause windswept deformity of the knees.

Question 224: Bulge sign in the knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation?

A. 200 ml
B. < 30 ml (Correct Answer)
C. 100 ml
D. 400 ml

Explanation: **< 30 ml** - The **bulge sign** is a sensitive test for detecting small amounts of **effusion** in the knee joint. - It is typically positive with as little as 4-8 mL to 10-30 mL of fluid, making "< 30 mL" the most appropriate answer. *100 ml* - An effusion of 100 mL is a **moderate to large amount** of fluid, which would typically elicit a positive **patellar tap test (ballottement)** rather than just a bulge sign. - The **bulge sign** is designed to detect much smaller effusions. *400 ml* - This represents a **very large effusion** that would be clinically obvious and cause significant swelling and discomfort, far exceeding the threshold for a simple bulge sign. - A knee with 400 mL of fluid would likely have a tense, bulging appearance and a very prominent **patellar tap**. *200 ml* - This is also a **significant effusion** that would easily be detected by a patellar tap test and would present with gross swelling. - The **bulge sign** is specifically for subtler fluid collections.

Question 225: How is Brodie's abscess classified?

A. Acute osteomyelitis
B. Subacute osteomyelitis
C. Septic arthritis
D. Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess)*** - Brodie's abscess is a **subacute or chronic localized osteomyelitis**, characterized by an intraosseous abscess often surrounded by a thick layer of sclerotic bone. - It represents a **contained infection** within the bone, lacking the widespread inflammatory response seen in acute forms. *Acute osteomyelitis* - Characterized by a **rapid onset** of severe pain, fever, and inflammation, usually within days to weeks of infection. - It involves a **widespread inflammatory process** and potential for bone destruction, differentiated from the contained and indolent nature of Brodie's abscess. *Subacute osteomyelitis* - This term describes an osteomyelitis with a more gradual onset and less severe symptoms than acute osteomyelitis, typically lasting several weeks to a few months. - While Brodie's abscess can present subacutely, it is specifically classified as a **form of chronic osteomyelitis** due to its localized, walled-off nature and prolonged course. *Septic arthritis* - Involves an infection within a **joint space**, leading to inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage. - It is distinct from Brodie's abscess, which is an infection of the **bone tissue itself**, not the joint.

Question 226: Which of the following statements about Pott's spine is false?

A. There is disc space narrowing on x-ray
B. Back pain is an early symptom
C. Commonest at dorsolumbar junction
D. Always heals by chemotherapy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Always heals by chemotherapy*** - This statement is false because while **chemotherapy** (anti-tubercular drugs) is the primary treatment for **Pott's disease** (tuberculosis of the spine), healing is not always guaranteed and can sometimes require **surgical intervention** in cases of severe neurological deficit or instability. - The success of treatment depends on early diagnosis, patient compliance, and the severity of the disease, and not all cases resolve completely without residual issues. *Commonest at dorsolumbar junction* - **Pott's spine**, or **vertebral tuberculosis**, most frequently affects the **thoracic** and **lumbar regions**, particularly the **dorsolumbar junction** (T9-L1). - This predilection is attributed to the rich vascular supply and increased mechanical stress in this area. *Back pain is an early symptom* - **Back pain** is often one of the **earliest and most common symptoms** of Pott's spine, due to inflammation and destruction of vertebral bodies. - The pain is typically **localized**, progressive, and may worsen with movement. *There is disc space narrowing on x-ray* - **X-rays** of Pott's spine often show **disc space narrowing** along with vertebral destruction and collapse, differentiating it from pyogenic osteomyelitis where disc spaces might be initially preserved. - This narrowing is a consequence of the tuberculous infection spreading from the vertebral body to the adjacent **intervertebral disc**.

Question 227: Cloacae are openings found in which of the following?

A. Sequestrum
B. Involucrum (Correct Answer)
C. Normal bone
D. Myositis

Explanation: ***Involucrum*** - **Cloacae** are openings or sinuses that develop in the **involucrum**, which is the new bone formation that surrounds a segment of necrotic bone (sequestrum) during osteomyelitis. - These openings act as channels for the discharge of **pus** and inflammatory debris from the infected bone to the external environment. *Sequestrum* - A **sequestrum** is a piece of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from the surrounding healthy bone due to osteomyelitis. - While central to the pathology, the cloacae are openings *through the involucrum* that encases the sequestrum, not in the sequestrum itself. *Normal bone* - **Normal bone** does not contain cloacae; these structures are a pathological feature indicative of chronic osteomyelitis. - Healthy bone remodels and resorbs normally, without the formation of channels for pus drainage. *Myositis* - **Myositis** is an inflammation of the **muscles**, not bone, and does not involve the formation of cloacae. - While it can be caused by infection, the pathological changes are localized to muscle tissue.

Question 228: Apparent lengthening is seen in which stage of TB Hip

A. Stage III (Correct Answer)
B. Stage II
C. Stage I
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Stage III*** - In **Stage III (destructive stage)** of TB Hip, significant destruction of the femoral head and acetabulum can lead to superior migration of the greater trochanter. - This superior migration results in **apparent lengthening** of the limb due to the loss of bone structure and joint space. *Stage I* - **Stage I (synovitic stage)** involves inflammation of the synovium with effusion, but no significant bone destruction or joint changes that would cause lengthening. - At this stage, the joint space is usually preserved, and **no appreciable limb length discrepancy** is observed. *Stage II* - **Stage II (cartilage and early bone destruction)** begins to show destruction of articular cartilage and subchondral bone. - While there is some destruction, it is generally not extensive enough to cause the characteristic **apparent lengthening** seen in later stages. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **apparent lengthening** is a well-recognized feature during the advanced destructive phase (Stage III) of TB Hip. - The progressive nature of the disease directly contributes to specific radiographic and clinical findings like **unstable hip** and subsequent lengthening or shortening.

Question 229: What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?

A. Fibrous ankylosis (Correct Answer)
B. Bony ankylosis
C. Normal healing
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Fibrous ankylosis*** - Joint tuberculosis commonly leads to **fibrous ankylosis** due to chronic inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage, promoting the formation of fibrous tissue that limits joint movement. - This complication results from the body's attempt to heal the persistent inflammatory process, creating a stiff and immoveable joint. *Bony ankylosis* - While possible in severe, long-standing cases, **bony ankylosis** (fusion of bones) is less common in joint tuberculosis than fibrous ankylosis. - It typically occurs in diseases like **ankylosing spondylitis** or advanced rheumatoid arthritis, where new bone formation bridges joint spaces. *Normal healing* - **Normal healing** with full restoration of joint function is rare in untreated or late-diagnosed joint tuberculosis due to the destructive nature of the infection. - The disease often causes significant damage to cartilage and bone, precluding complete recovery without sequelae. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **fibrous ankylosis** is a well-recognized and frequent complication of joint tuberculosis. - The chronic inflammatory response and tissue destruction inherent to the disease make complications highly probable.

Question 230: Garre's osteomyelitis: which of the following statements is false?

A. Prevalent in immune-competent patients
B. Common in children and young
C. Occurs due to staphylococcus aureus
D. Moth eaten appearance in radiography (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Moth eaten appearance in radiography*** - This statement is **false** because Garre's osteomyelitis (also known as chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periostitis) characteristically shows periosteal new bone formation, often described as an **onion-skin appearance**, not a moth-eaten pattern. - A **moth-eaten appearance** on radiography is more indicative of aggressive bone destruction seen in conditions like Ewing sarcoma or more virulent forms of osteomyelitis, rather than the proliferative nature of Garre's. *Common in children and young adults* - Garre's osteomyelitis is indeed more commonly observed in **children and young adults**, particularly affecting the jaws (mandible). - This demographic is often exposed to the dental infections that predispose to this condition. *Occurs due to staphylococcus aureus* - **Staphylococcus aureus** is a common causative agent for osteomyelitis in general, including Garre's osteomyelitis, especially in cases where the infection originates from a dental source. - The bacterial infection leads to inflammation and subsequent periosteal reaction. *Prevalent in immune-competent patients* - Garre's osteomyelitis typically develops in **immune-competent individuals**, suggesting that the host immune response plays a role in the chronic, proliferative nature of the periosteal reaction. - Unlike some severe forms of osteomyelitis, it is not primarily associated with immunodeficiency.

Practice by Chapter

Septic Arthritis

Practice Questions

Osteomyelitis

Practice Questions

Tuberculosis of Bones and Joints

Practice Questions

Fungal and Parasitic Infections

Practice Questions

Diabetic Foot Infections

Practice Questions

Prosthetic Joint Infections

Practice Questions

Reactive Arthritis

Practice Questions

Management of Joint Infections

Practice Questions

Prevention of Orthopaedic Infections

Practice Questions

Biofilms in Orthopaedic Infections

Practice Questions

Antibiotic Prophylaxis

Practice Questions

Implant-Related Infections

Practice Questions

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