Ocular Trauma Management Principles — MCQs

10 questions

A case of injury to right brow due to a fall from scooter presents with sudden loss of vision in the right eye. The pupil shows absent direct reflex but a normal consensual pupillary reflex is present. The fundus is normal. The treatment of choice is:

True about acid injury to eye are all except?

A patient presents with acute appendicitis. What is NOT to be done?

Following injury to the right temple region, a patient complains of pain in the right eye and loss of vision. On examination, the eye movements are normal, and the pupil normally reacts to light. The affected eye shows increased intraocular pressure of 32 mmHg (normal: 10-21 mmHg), mild corneal edema, and a small hyphema visible in the anterior chamber. The diagnosis is

In which condition is the swinging light test positive?

What is the correct sequence of management in a patient who presents to the casualty with an RTA? 1. Cervical spine stabilization 2. Intubation 3. IV cannulation 4. CECT

Steps in review of patient's history during secondary survey of trauma care can be summarised as

Perforating injuries with retained intraocular foreign body are more serious than those without because of:

All are ophthalmological emergencies except -

Q10

Best method of detection of a retained glass intraocular foreign body is

Ocular Trauma Management Principles Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A case of injury to right brow due to a fall from scooter presents with sudden loss of vision in the right eye. The pupil shows absent direct reflex but a normal consensual pupillary reflex is present. The fundus is normal. The treatment of choice is:

A. Pulse methyl Prednisolone 250 mg four times daily for three days
B. Emergency optic canal decompression
C. Oral Prednisolone 1.5 mg/kg body weight
D. Intensive intravenous corticosteroids as prescribed for spinal injuries to be instituted within six hours (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Intensive intravenous corticosteroids as prescribed for spinal injuries to be instituted within six hours*** - The sudden **loss of vision** with a **traumatic brow injury** and **afferent pupillary defect** (absent direct reflex, normal consensual) suggests **traumatic optic neuropathy (TON)**. - While the efficacy of corticosteroids is debated, high-dose intravenous corticosteroids, often following the **National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Study (NASCIS)** protocols (similar to spinal injury treatment), are a common initial treatment for TON, especially when administered within 6-8 hours of injury to reduce inflammation and edema around the optic nerve. *Pulse methyl Prednisolone 250 mg four times daily for three days* - This dosage regimen is a form of **pulse steroid therapy**, but the specific dose and frequency may not align with the standard high-dose IV corticosteroid protocols used for TON (e.g., typically 1g methylprednisolone daily). - While corticosteroids are used, the precise protocol and optimal dosing for TON are critical and vary from this option. *Emergency optic canal decompression* - **Optic canal decompression surgery** is considered in cases of TON where there is direct compression of the optic nerve or a lack of response to corticosteroid therapy. - It is not the initial treatment of choice for all TON cases and carries significant surgical risks; corticosteroid therapy is usually attempted first. *Oral Prednisolone 1.5 mg/kg body weight* - **Oral corticosteroids** are generally not sufficient for the acute, severe inflammation seen in traumatic optic neuropathy. - **Intravenous administration** is preferred for its rapid and higher systemic bioavailability to achieve therapeutic levels at the optic nerve.

Question 2: True about acid injury to eye are all except?

A. more destructive than alkali injuries (Correct Answer)
B. steroids are used to control inflammation
C. makes a barrier and prevent deeper penetration
D. glaucoma is most preventable complication following acid injury

Explanation: ***more destructive than alkali injuries*** - This statement is **false**. **Alkali burns** are generally more severe than acid burns because alkalis have **liquefactive necrosis**, which allows them to penetrate deeper into ocular tissues. - Acids cause **coagulative necrosis**, which forms a protective barrier that limits further penetration, making them typically less destructive than alkali injuries. *steroids are used to control inflammation* - **Topical corticosteroids** are commonly used in the management of ocular chemical burns, including acid injuries, to help **control inflammation** and reduce the risk of secondary complications. - However, their use must be carefully monitored due to potential side effects like increased intraocular pressure and delayed corneal healing. *makes a barrier and prevent deeper penetration* - **Acidic substances** cause **coagulative necrosis** of the superficial tissues, which creates a protective barrier of denatured proteins. - This barrier helps to prevent the acid from penetrating deeper into the ocular structures, thus often limiting the extent of damage compared to alkali burns. *glaucoma is most preventable complication following acid injury* - **Glaucoma** is indeed a significant complication of ocular acid injuries and can be prevented through **immediate copious irrigation**, control of inflammation, and monitoring of intraocular pressure. - While various complications can occur (corneal opacification, symblepharon, limbal stem cell deficiency), glaucoma prevention through early intervention and appropriate medical management is a key focus in acute management, making this statement acceptable as true.

Question 3: A patient presents with acute appendicitis. What is NOT to be done?

A. Give antibiotics
B. Do primary survey
C. Perform appendectomy
D. Check for visual acuity (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Check for visual acuity*** - **Visual acuity** assessment is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of **acute appendicitis**. - This examination is typically performed in cases of suspected eye injury, vision changes, or neurological issues that affect vision. - In the context of acute appendicitis, checking visual acuity would be inappropriate and waste valuable time. *Give antibiotics* - **Antibiotics** are crucial in managing **acute appendicitis** to prevent progression to perforation and reduce postoperative infection risk. - They are typically administered preoperatively and continued postoperatively, especially in cases of complicated appendicitis. - Broad-spectrum antibiotics covering **gram-negative organisms and anaerobes** are standard practice. *Do primary survey* - A **primary survey** (ABCDE approach) is essential in any emergent patient presentation to assess and manage immediate **life-threatening conditions**. - While appendicitis itself may not be immediately life-threatening, ensuring patient stability and ruling out other serious conditions is critical. - This is standard emergency medicine practice and should always be performed. *Perform appendectomy* - **Appendectomy** (surgical removal of the appendix) is the definitive treatment for **acute appendicitis**. - This is the standard of care and should be performed once the diagnosis is confirmed and the patient is stable. - Either open or laparoscopic approach can be used depending on clinical factors and surgeon expertise.

Question 4: Following injury to the right temple region, a patient complains of pain in the right eye and loss of vision. On examination, the eye movements are normal, and the pupil normally reacts to light. The affected eye shows increased intraocular pressure of 32 mmHg (normal: 10-21 mmHg), mild corneal edema, and a small hyphema visible in the anterior chamber. The diagnosis is

A. Traumatic glaucoma (Correct Answer)
B. Optic nerve atrophy
C. Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
D. Functional loss of vision

Explanation: ***Traumatic glaucoma*** - Increased **intraocular pressure (32 mmHg)** after a **temple injury** with **corneal edema** and **hyphema** are classic signs of traumatic glaucoma. - The hyphema (blood in the anterior chamber) obstructs the **trabecular meshwork**, impeding aqueous humor outflow and leading to elevated IOP. *Optic nerve atrophy* - While optic nerve atrophy can cause **vision loss**, it is a chronic condition and typically not an acute presentation following trauma unless there is direct optic nerve damage. - It would not explain the acute findings of **hyphema**, **corneal edema**, or acutely elevated **intraocular pressure**. *Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage* - A **sub-arachnoid hemorrhage** might present with headache and loss of consciousness, or **papilledema** in severe cases, but typically would not cause such specific eye findings as **hyphema** or **corneal edema** from elevated IOP. - While a blow to the head could cause this, the direct eye findings point to a local ocular issue. *Functional loss of vision* - **Functional vision loss** (or psychogenic vision loss) is a diagnosis of exclusion where no organic cause can be found. - The presence of clear organic signs such as **hyphema**, **corneal edema**, and significantly elevated **intraocular pressure** rules out a functional cause.

Question 5: In which condition is the swinging light test positive?

A. Conjunctivitis
B. Glaucoma
C. Keratoconus
D. Optic neuritis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Optic neuritis*** - The swinging light test (also known as the **Marcus Gunn pupil** or relative afferent pupillary defect, RAPD) is positive when there is a significant **asymmetry in the afferent visual pathway** between the two eyes. - In optic neuritis, the **optic nerve** is inflamed and demyelinated, impairing the transmission of light signals to the brain, which leads to a paradoxical pupillary dilation when the light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. *Conjunctivitis* - This is an **inflammation of the conjunctiva**, the membrane lining the eyelid and sclera, which primarily affects the ocular surface. - It does not involve the optic nerve or afferent pupillary pathways, so the swinging light test would be **negative**. *Glaucoma* - Glaucoma is a condition characterized by **progressive optic nerve damage**, often associated with elevated intraocular pressure, leading to peripheral vision loss. - While it causes optic neuropathy, a positive swinging light test is typically seen only in **severe, asymmetric cases** and is not its primary diagnostic feature. *Keratoconus* - This is a non-inflammatory eye condition in which the normally round dome-shaped cornea **thins and bulges outward into a cone-like shape**. - It affects the **cornea's shape and vision quality**, but not the optic nerve or the afferent pupillary reflex pathway, thus the swinging light test would be negative.

Question 6: What is the correct sequence of management in a patient who presents to the casualty with an RTA? 1. Cervical spine stabilization 2. Intubation 3. IV cannulation 4. CECT

A. 2,1,4,3
B. 1,3,2,4
C. 2,1,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4 (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1,2,3,4*** - This sequence follows the **ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support)** protocol, prioritizing immediate life threats in order. - **Cervical spine stabilization** is the **first action upon patient contact** to prevent secondary neurological injury in any trauma patient. - **Airway management (intubation)** is then performed **with maintained in-line c-spine stabilization** - these occur nearly simultaneously but c-spine protection is instituted first. - **IV cannulation (circulation)** follows to establish vascular access for resuscitation and medications. - **CECT (imaging)** is performed last, once the patient is stabilized after addressing immediate life threats. - This follows the **ATLS Primary Survey: Airway (with c-spine protection) → Breathing → Circulation → Disability → Exposure**. *2,1,4,3* - This incorrectly places intubation **before** cervical spine stabilization is initiated. - In ATLS, **c-spine protection must be applied immediately upon patient contact** before any airway manipulation. - Delaying IV cannulation until after CECT is inappropriate as circulatory access is critical for early resuscitation. *1,3,2,4* - While this correctly starts with cervical spine stabilization, it incorrectly places **IV cannulation before intubation**. - In the ATLS primary survey, **Airway comes before Circulation** - securing the airway takes priority over establishing IV access. - This sequence could delay critical airway management in a patient with respiratory compromise. *2,1,3,4* - This sequence places **intubation before cervical spine stabilization**, which violates ATLS principles. - **C-spine stabilization must be the first action** upon approaching any trauma patient to prevent secondary spinal cord injury. - While intubation with in-line stabilization is possible, the c-spine protection must be instituted first, not after beginning airway manipulation.

Question 7: Steps in review of patient's history during secondary survey of trauma care can be summarised as

A. TRIAGE
B. ABCDE
C. AMPLE (Correct Answer)
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***AMPLE*** - The **AMPLE history** is a mnemonic used during the **secondary survey** in trauma care to gather crucial patient information - It stands for **Allergies, Medications, Past medical history/Pregnancy, Last meal, and Events** surrounding the injury. *TRIAGE* - **Triage** is the process of prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition and the likelihood of benefit from immediate treatment. - It is an initial assessment done to determine the urgency of care, not a detailed historical review for a single patient. *ABCDE* - The **ABCDE approach** (**Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure**) is part of the **primary survey** in trauma care. - It focuses on identifying and managing immediate life-threatening conditions. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **AMPLE** specifically describes the historical review process during the secondary survey.

Question 8: Perforating injuries with retained intraocular foreign body are more serious than those without because of:

A. All of the options
B. More chances of infection
C. Deleterious effects of foreign bodies (Correct Answer)
D. More chances of sympathetic ophthalmitis

Explanation: ***Deleterious effects of foreign bodies*** - This is the **MOST SPECIFIC and PRIMARY reason** that distinguishes retained IOFBs from perforating injuries without retained foreign bodies. - Retained intraocular foreign bodies cause **direct toxic effects** on ocular tissues depending on their composition: **siderosis bulbi** from iron (causing rust-colored deposits, retinal degeneration, and vision loss), **chalcosis** from copper (greenish deposits and inflammation), and direct mechanical trauma to delicate intraocular structures. - These **material-specific toxic effects** are unique to retained foreign bodies and occur regardless of whether infection or inflammation develops. - The foreign body acts as a constant source of **chronic inflammation and tissue damage**, leading to complications like cataract, glaucoma, retinal detachment, and progressive vision loss. *More chances of infection* - While retained IOFBs do increase the risk of **endophthalmitis** (severe intraocular infection), infection risk exists with any perforating injury, whether or not a foreign body is retained. - The question asks what makes retained IOFB cases **MORE serious** - the infection risk is elevated but not the PRIMARY distinguishing feature. - Prophylactic antibiotics can reduce infection risk, but cannot prevent the direct toxic effects of the retained material. *More chances of sympathetic ophthalmitis* - Sympathetic ophthalmitis is a rare bilateral granulomatous uveitis that can occur after **penetrating ocular trauma with uveal tissue injury**. - This risk exists with perforating injuries in general, not specifically because of the retained foreign body itself. - The presence of a foreign body is less important than uveal prolapse and inflammation in triggering this immune-mediated response. *All of the options* - While infection and sympathetic ophthalmitis are legitimate concerns, they are **not specific to retained foreign bodies** - they can occur with any penetrating injury. - The **direct deleterious/toxic effects** of the foreign body material (siderosis, chalcosis, mechanical damage) are the PRIMARY and MOST SPECIFIC reason that makes retained IOFB cases more serious. - This option is incorrect because it doesn't distinguish the unique hazard posed by the retained foreign body itself.

Question 9: All are ophthalmological emergencies except -

A. Endophthalmitis
B. CRVO (Correct Answer)
C. Acute congestive glaucoma
D. CRAO

Explanation: ***CRVO*** - Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO) is characterized by painless **vision loss** due to retinal hemorrhage and edema, but it is generally *not* considered an immediate, vision-threatening emergency in the same vein as the other options. - While it requires prompt evaluation and management to preserve vision, CRVO allows for a less urgent intervention compared to conditions that can lead to permanent vision loss within hours. *Endophthalmitis* - **Endophthalmitis** is a severe inflammation of the intraocular fluids and tissues, typically caused by infection, and can lead to rapid and irreversible vision loss if not treated urgently. - It presents with pain, redness, reduced vision, and hypopyon (pus in the anterior chamber), necessitating immediate antibiotic treatment and surgical intervention. *Acute congestive glaucoma* - **Acute congestive glaucoma** (acute angle-closure glaucoma) involves a sudden increase in intraocular pressure, causing severe pain, redness, corneal edema, and profound vision loss. - If left untreated, the high pressure can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve within hours, making it a true ocular emergency. *CRAO* - **Central Retinal Artery Occlusion (CRAO)** is a sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye due to blockage of the central retinal artery, leading to retinal ischemia. - It is an ocular emergency because irreversible retinal damage and vision loss can occur within 90-120 minutes of the occlusion, requiring immediate intervention to restore blood flow.

Question 10: Best method of detection of a retained glass intraocular foreign body is

A. USG
B. Radiography
C. Tonometry
D. CT scan (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***CT scan*** - **CT scans** are highly sensitive and specific for detecting **retained glass intraocular foreign bodies** due to their excellent spatial resolution and ability to visualize foreign materials with different densities. - Unlike MRI, CT is safe with metallic foreign bodies and provides precise localization, aiding surgical planning. *Radiography* - While helpful for detecting radio-opaque foreign bodies like metal, **plain X-rays display limited soft tissue contrast** and may struggle to visualize small or less dense objects like glass effectively within the complex orbital structures. - **Glass foreign bodies can be difficult to discern** from surrounding bony structures or soft tissues on conventional radiographs, leading to false negatives. *USG* - **Ultrasound (USG)** is effective for imaging soft tissues and can detect some foreign bodies, but its utility is limited when the object is small, non-reflective, or located deep within the globe, especially behind structures like the lens or iris. - **Acoustic shadowing** and artifact creation can also obscure the foreign body or mimic its presence, reducing diagnostic accuracy for glass. *Tonometry* - **Tonometry measures intraocular pressure** and is primarily used to screen for or monitor glaucoma. - It provides no information about the presence or location of **intraocular foreign bodies**.

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