Secondary Open-Angle Glaucomas — MCQs

10 questions

Atropine is the drug of choice in –

An 80-year-old patient complains of pain, redness, and diminished vision in the left eye. On examination, the intraocular pressure (IOP) in the right eye is 16 mmHg, while the left eye shows 50 mmHg. The left eye also exhibits deep anterior chamber flare and a white cataract. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Recurrent anterior uveitis with increased intraocular tension is seen in which of the following conditions?

Intumescent cataract is associated with which type of glaucoma?

Secondary glaucoma associated with angle recession is seen in:

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Horner's syndrome?

Which of the following is not a risk factor for angle closure glaucoma?

Which of the following is most likely to cause bilateral angle closure glaucoma?

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with neovascular glaucoma?

Q10

Which of the following statements regarding glaucoma and its management is true?

Secondary Open-Angle Glaucomas Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Atropine is the drug of choice in –

A. Chorioretinitis
B. Lens induced glaucoma
C. Iridocyclitis (Correct Answer)
D. Closed angle glaucoma

Explanation: ***Iridocyclitis*** - Atropine is a **potent cycloplegic and mydriatic agent** often used in iridocyclitis to **relax the ciliary body muscles** and prevent the formation of posterior synechiae. - Its **long-acting effect** helps in reducing pain, inflammation, and preventing complications such as iris bombe by keeping the pupil dilated. *Chorioretinitis* - This condition primarily affects the **choroid and retina**, and while inflammation may be present, systemic or topical **corticosteroids** are typically the primary treatment. - Atropine is not indicated as a primary treatment for the inflammation itself in chorioretinitis, as its main action is on the iris and ciliary body. *Lens induced glaucoma* - The definitive treatment for lens-induced glaucoma, such as **phacomorphic glaucoma** or **phacolytic glaucoma**, is surgical removal of the cataractous lens. - Atropine would cause mydriasis, which can paradoxically worsen some forms of glaucoma by blocking the drainage angle, especially in cases of angle closure [1] [2]. *Closed angle glaucoma* - Atropine, being a mydriatic, would **dilate the pupil** and potentially exacerbate closed-angle glaucoma by further **crowding the anterior chamber angle** and blocking aqueous humor outflow [3]. - The focus in closed-angle glaucoma is to constrict the pupil (with miotics like pilocarpine) and reduce intraocular pressure.

Question 2: An 80-year-old patient complains of pain, redness, and diminished vision in the left eye. On examination, the intraocular pressure (IOP) in the right eye is 16 mmHg, while the left eye shows 50 mmHg. The left eye also exhibits deep anterior chamber flare and a white cataract. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)
B. Fuchs' heterochromic iridocyclitis
C. Malignant glaucoma
D. Phacolytic glaucoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Phacolytic glaucoma*** - The combination of **extremely high intraocular pressure** (50 mmHg) in the left eye, along with a **mature (white) cataract** and **deep anterior chamber flare**, is highly suggestive of phacolytic glaucoma. - This condition occurs when **lens proteins leak** from a hypermature cataract, triggering a macrophagic inflammatory response that **clogs the trabecular meshwork**, leading to an acute rise in IOP. *Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)* - While CRAO causes acute, profound **vision loss** in one eye, it is generally associated with a **normal or low IOP**, not the extremely high pressure seen in the left eye. - Fundoscopic examination would typically reveal a **cherry-red spot** and **pale retina**, which are not described. *Fuchs' heterochromic iridocyclitis* - This condition is characterized by **chronic, low-grade anterior uveitis** and often leads to **heterochromia** (different colored irises) and **secondary glaucoma**. - However, it typically presents with **mild IOP elevation** (if at all) and not the acute, markedly high pressure and visible white cataract with flare described here. *Malignant glaucoma* - Malignant glaucoma (also known as aqueous misdirection) presents with an **elevated IOP** and is characterized by a **shallow or flat anterior chamber**, often in the presence of a pupillary block mechanism. - The patient's left eye is described as having a **deep anterior chamber** with flare, which contradicts the typical findings of malignant glaucoma.

Question 3: Recurrent anterior uveitis with increased intraocular tension is seen in which of the following conditions?

A. Posner-Schlossman syndrome (Correct Answer)
B. Foster-Kennedy syndrome
C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
D. Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis

Explanation: ***Posner-Schlossman syndrome*** - Characterized by **recurrent, unilateral, non-granulomatous anterior uveitis** associated with markedly **elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - The condition is also known as **glaucomatocyclitic crisis**, highlighting the episodic inflammation and glaucoma. - Key features include **acute attacks** lasting hours to weeks with **dramatic IOP elevation** (often >40 mmHg). *Foster-Kennedy syndrome* - This syndrome is defined by ipsilateral **optic atrophy**, contralateral **papilledema**, and often **anosmia**, typically due to a frontal lobe tumor. - It does not involve anterior uveitis or primary elevated intraocular tension. - This is a neuro-ophthalmologic syndrome, not an inflammatory ocular condition. *Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome* - An autoimmune disorder affecting pigmented tissues, leading to **bilateral granulomatous panuveitis**, often with hearing loss, vitiligo, poliosis, and neurological symptoms. - While it involves uveitis, it is typically **bilateral and panuveitis**, not recurrent unilateral anterior uveitis. - IOP may be elevated but not the defining feature with dramatic episodic rises. *Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis* - A chronic, **unilateral, low-grade anterior uveitis** with characteristic iris heterochromia. - May have mild IOP elevation but **not recurrent episodic attacks** with marked pressure spikes. - Inflammation is typically **quiet and chronic** rather than acute and recurrent.

Question 4: Intumescent cataract is associated with which type of glaucoma?

A. Phacolytic glaucoma
B. Phacotopic glaucoma
C. Pseudophakic glaucoma
D. Phacomorphic glaucoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Phacomorphic glaucoma*** - **Intumescent cataract** refers to a mature or hypermature cataract that has absorbed water, leading to a swollen lens. - This swelling can cause the lens to push the iris forward, leading to secondary **angle closure glaucoma** due to pupillary block, which is characteristic of phacomorphic glaucoma. *Phacolytic glaucoma* - This type of glaucoma is caused by leakage of **high-molecular-weight lens proteins** from a mature or hypermature cataract into the aqueous humor, triggering a macrophagic response and obstruction of the trabecular meshwork. - It results in an **open-angle glaucoma** and anterior chamber inflammation, unlike the angle closure seen with intumescent cataracts. *Phacotopic glaucoma* - This is a rare term and not a recognized distinct category of glaucoma related to lens swelling. It may refer loosely to glaucoma associated with **lens dislocation** or subluxation. - It does not specifically describe glaucoma caused by an **intumescent cataract**. *Pseudophakic glaucoma* - This refers to glaucoma that develops in patients who have undergone **cataract surgery** and have an **intraocular lens (IOL)** implant (pseudophakia). - It can be caused by various mechanisms post-surgery, such as inflammation, steroid response, or IOL-related issues, but it is not directly associated with the presence of an intumescent natural lens.

Question 5: Secondary glaucoma associated with angle recession is seen in:

A. Penetrating injury
B. Concussion injury (Correct Answer)
C. Chemical injury
D. Radiation injury

Explanation: ***Concussion injury*** - **Concussion injuries** (blunt trauma) to the eye lead to shearing forces between the ciliary body and sclera, causing a tear in the ciliary body and trabecular meshwork. - This anatomical alteration, known as **angle recession**, impairs aqueous humor outflow over time, leading to secondary open-angle glaucoma. *Penetrating injury* - **Penetrating injuries** breach the globe and can cause direct damage to ocular structures, but angle recession leading to glaucoma is more characteristic of blunt trauma. - Such injuries often lead to other forms of glaucoma, like **pupillary block** or **phacolytic glaucoma**, depending on the extent of damage and inflammation. *Chemical injury* - **Chemical injuries** (e.g., acid or alkali burns) cause severe inflammation, tissue necrosis, and scarring within the anterior segment. - Glaucoma following chemical injury is typically due to **trabecular meshwork damage** from inflammation and scarring, or **peripheral anterior synechiae formation**, rather than angle recession. *Radiation injury* - **Radiation injury** to the eye is rare but can occur with radiation therapy for tumors, causing damage to vascular structures and contributing to neovascularization. - Glaucoma associated with radiation injury is usually secondary to **neovascularization** of the angle or **inflammatory processes**, not angle recession.

Question 6: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Horner's syndrome?

A. Anhidrosis
B. Enophthalmos
C. Hyperchromatic iris (Correct Answer)
D. Miosis

Explanation: ***Hyperchromatic iris*** - The iris in Horner's syndrome typically presents as **heterochromia iridis**, where the affected eye's iris is **hypochromatic (lighter)** compared to the healthy eye due to reduced melanin synthesis from sympathetic denervation - This occurs particularly with congenital or early-onset Horner's syndrome (before age 2 years) - A **hyperchromatic (darker) iris is NOT a feature** of Horner's syndrome, making this the correct answer *Anhidrosis* - **Anhidrosis** (decreased sweating) on the affected side of the face and neck is a classic feature of Horner's syndrome - Results from disruption of postganglionic sympathetic fibers supplying sweat glands in the ipsilateral facial and neck regions - Pattern of anhidrosis helps localize the lesion (central, preganglionic, or postganglionic) *Enophthalmos* - **Mild enophthalmos** (sunken eyeball appearance) occurs in Horner's syndrome - Due to paralysis of **Müller's muscle** (superior tarsal muscle), which normally helps maintain globe position - Combined with ptosis, this creates the characteristic sunken appearance of the affected eye *Miosis* - **Miosis** (pupillary constriction) is a hallmark feature of Horner's syndrome - Results from paralysis of the **iris dilator muscle** due to interrupted sympathetic innervation - Leads to unopposed parasympathetic activity, causing the characteristic small pupil - Dilation lag can be demonstrated with dim lighting or cocaine test

Question 7: Which of the following is not a risk factor for angle closure glaucoma?

A. Small eye
B. Small cornea
C. Small lens (Correct Answer)
D. Hypermetropia

Explanation: ***Correct Answer: Small lens*** - A smaller lens would lead to a **deeper anterior chamber**, reducing the likelihood of iridotrabecular contact and angle closure. - In contrast, a **large or thick lens** is a well-established risk factor for angle closure glaucoma as it pushes the iris forward, causing pupillary block. - Small lens size is **NOT a risk factor** for angle closure glaucoma. *Incorrect: Small eye* - A small eye (e.g., in **nanophthalmos**) is associated with a relatively large lens in proportion to the eye size, which can push the iris forward and narrow the angle. - This anatomical configuration makes individuals more prone to **pupillary block** and angle closure. *Incorrect: Hypermetropia* - **Hyperopic eyes** tend to be shorter with reduced axial length, which often results in a shallower anterior chamber and a relatively crowded anterior segment. - This shallow anterior chamber increases the risk of the iris occluding the **trabecular meshwork**, predisposing to angle closure. *Incorrect: Small cornea* - A small corneal diameter can be indicative of a generally smaller anterior segment, often correlating with a **shallow anterior chamber**. - A smaller cornea contributes to a more crowded anterior segment, predisposing to **angle closure glaucoma**.

Question 8: Which of the following is most likely to cause bilateral angle closure glaucoma?

A. Sulfonamide medications
B. Adrenergic agonists
C. Topiramate (Correct Answer)
D. Anticholinergic drugs

Explanation: ***Topiramate can cause bilateral angle closure glaucoma*** - **Topiramate** is known to cause a unique form of **bilateral angle closure glaucoma** due to ciliary body edema and anterior displacement of the iris-lens diaphragm, leading to acute myopia and angle closure. - This reaction typically occurs within the first few weeks of starting the drug, is **bilateral**, and is not related to angle anatomy. *Sulfonamide medications* - While some **sulfonamides** can cause acute myopia and secondary angle closure, similar to topiramate, this is a less consistently reported and less recognized association compared to topiramate. - The mechanism involves **ciliary body edema** leading to anterior displacement of the iris-lens diaphragm, but topiramate is a more classic example. *Adrenergic agonists* - **Adrenergic agonists** typically cause **mydriasis** (pupil dilation), which can precipitate acute angle closure in eyes with an already **narrow angle**. - However, they usually trigger **unilateral** angle closure and do not cause the same ciliary body edema mechanism seen with topiramate that results in bilateral involvement. *Anticholinergic drugs* - **Anticholinergic drugs** also cause **mydriasis** and can lead to **acute angle closure glaucoma** by widening the pupil and potentially blocking aqueous outflow in susceptible individuals. - Similar to adrenergic agonists, this is usually a **unilateral** event and does not involve the characteristic ciliary body edema and resultant bilateral acute myopia associated with topiramate.

Question 9: Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with neovascular glaucoma?

A. Diabetes
B. Open angle glaucoma (Correct Answer)
C. CRVO
D. Eale's disease

Explanation: ***Open angle glaucoma*** ✓ - **Open-angle glaucoma** is a primary **neurodegenerative disease** of the optic nerve, characterized by progressive loss of **retinal ganglion cells** and their axons, leading to characteristic **optic neuropathy** and visual field defects. - It does **NOT** directly cause **neovascularization** or increased VEGF production, which are the underlying mechanisms for **neovascular glaucoma**. - This is the **least likely** association among the given options. *Diabetes* - **Diabetic retinopathy** is a **major cause** of **neovascularization** due to retinal ischemia and increased production of **vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)**, which can lead to **neovascular glaucoma**. - **Neovascularization** on the iris (rubeosis iridis) and angle can block aqueous outflow, causing a severe, rapidly progressing form of secondary glaucoma. *CRVO (Central Retinal Vein Occlusion)* - **CRVO** leads to significant retinal ischemia and subsequent release of **VEGF**, which prompts the growth of new, fragile blood vessels. - These new vessels (neovascularization) can grow in the iris and angle, obstructing aqueous humor outflow and causing **neovascular glaucoma**. - **Ischemic CRVO** is one of the **most common causes** of neovascular glaucoma. *Eale's disease* - **Eale's disease** is an **idiopathic occlusive vasculitis** primarily affecting the **peripheral retinal veins**, leading to **retinal ischemia**. - This ischemia stimulates **neovascularization** and the production of **VEGF**, increasing the risk of **neovascular glaucoma** due to the formation of new blood vessels in the anterior chamber.

Question 10: Which of the following statements regarding glaucoma and its management is true?

A. Latanoprost is used with caution in patients of bronchial asthma
B. Central scotoma is seen in open angle glaucoma
C. Topiramate can cause bilateral angle closure glaucoma (Correct Answer)
D. Methazolamide causes decrease in ocular blood flow

Explanation: ***Topiramate can cause bilateral angle closure glaucoma*** - **Topiramate**, a sulfonamide derivative, can cause acute **myopia** and **ciliary body swelling**, leading to anterior displacement of the lens-iris diaphragm and subsequent **bilateral angle closure glaucoma**. - This adverse effect typically occurs within the first few weeks of starting the drug, and prompt discontinuation can often resolve the condition. *Latanoprost is used with caution in patients of bronchial asthma* - **Latanoprost** is a **prostaglandin analog** and is generally safe for patients with bronchial asthma as it does not affect pulmonary function. - Beta-blockers, rather than latanoprost, are the class of glaucoma medications that require caution in patients with bronchial asthma due to their potential to cause **bronchospasm**. *Central scotoma is seen in open angle glaucoma* - **Central scotoma** is more characteristic of conditions affecting the **macula** or optic nerve pathologies other than typical open-angle glaucoma. - The classic visual field defect in **open-angle glaucoma** is a **paracentral scotoma** or **nasal step**, often progressing to peripheral field loss. *Methazolamide causes decrease in ocular blood flow* - **Methazolamide**, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (CAI), primarily acts by reducing aqueous humor production, which can **lower intraocular pressure**. - Although CAIs can cause systemic side effects, they are not known to significantly decrease **ocular blood flow**; in fact, some studies suggest they may even have a mild beneficial effect on optic nerve head blood flow.

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