Fungal Keratitis — MCQs
Which of the following statements is true regarding fungal corneal ulcers?
Satellite nodules are typically associated with which of the following conditions?
Which organism can penetrate corneal endothelium?
Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in ?
All of the following are true about Keratoconus, except:
Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
Which of the following is the MOST contraindicated condition for steroid use?
Interstitial keratitis is associated with all of the following except:
A 30 year old man presents to the clinic with pain in the eye, watering, redness, and photophobia. Examination of his eyes shows circumcorneal congestion and keratic precipitates. Assertion: Keratic precipitates (KPs) are proteinaceous deposits that can occur in various patterns on the corneal endothelium. Reason: Mutton fat KPs are seen in granulomatous iridocyclitis and are composed of epithelioid cells and macrophages.
Which of the following is a contraindication to topical steroids?
Fungal Keratitis Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following statements is true regarding fungal corneal ulcers?
- A. Immunosuppressant therapy increases vulnerability to fungal infections.
- B. Aspergillus and Fusarium are common organisms causing fungal corneal ulcers. (Correct Answer)
- C. Microbiological confirmation is ideal before starting antifungal treatment but may not always be mandatory.
- D. Symptoms are more prominent than signs in patients with fungal corneal ulcers
Explanation: ***Aspergillus and Fusarium are common organisms causing fungal corneal ulcers.*** - *Aspergillus* and *Fusarium* species are the two most frequently isolated fungi in cases of **fungal keratitis**, especially in tropical and subtropical regions. - These fungi are commonly found in the environment and can cause infection after **corneal trauma** involving organic matter (vegetative matter, soil). - Aspergillus is more common in temperate climates, while Fusarium predominates in tropical regions. *Immunosuppressant therapy increases vulnerability to fungal infections.* - While this statement is medically correct, systemic immunosuppression has less direct impact on **fungal keratitis** risk compared to local factors. - More important risk factors include: **corneal trauma** (especially with vegetative matter), **chronic topical corticosteroid use**, **contact lens wear**, and **pre-existing corneal disease**. - Systemic immunosuppression is more relevant for deep/systemic fungal infections rather than superficial corneal infections. *Microbiological confirmation is ideal before starting antifungal treatment but may not always be mandatory.* - While this statement has practical merit, **microbiological confirmation is strongly recommended** in all suspected cases of fungal keratitis. - **Corneal scraping** for KOH mount, Gram stain, and culture should be performed before starting treatment whenever possible. - However, in clinically suspicious cases, **empiric antifungal therapy may be initiated** while awaiting culture results to prevent disease progression. - This option is incorrect because standard practice emphasizes the importance of obtaining microbiological diagnosis, even if empiric treatment is started simultaneously. *Symptoms are more prominent than signs in patients with fungal corneal ulcers.* - This is **incorrect** - fungal keratitis typically presents with **prominent clinical signs** including: - Feathery or irregular infiltrate borders - Satellite lesions - Endothelial plaque - Ring infiltrate (in severe cases) - These characteristic signs are often **more impressive than the symptoms**, especially in the early stages. - Fungal keratitis has a more indolent course compared to bacterial keratitis, with signs often preceding severe symptoms.
Question 2: Satellite nodules are typically associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Sarcoidosis
- C. Viral ulcer
- D. Fungal corneal ulcer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fungal corneal ulcer*** - **Satellite lesions** (small, isolated infiltrates surrounding a larger central ulcer) are a characteristic feature of **fungal keratitis**, indicating the spread of fungal hyphae. - Unlike bacterial ulcers, fungal ulcers often have a feathery, indistinct margin and can be slow-growing. *Tuberculosis* - Ocular tuberculosis can present with granulomatous inflammation, often involving the uvea or retina, but **satellite nodules** around a corneal ulcer are not typical. - Corneal involvement in tuberculosis is rare and usually manifests as interstitial keratitis or phlyctenular keratitis. *Sarcoidosis* - Ocular sarcoidosis commonly causes **uveitis**, conjunctival nodules, or retinal vasculitis. - While it can cause corneal deposits or band keratopathy, it does not typically present with satellite lesions around a primary corneal ulcer. *Viral ulcer* - Viral corneal ulcers, particularly those caused by **herpes simplex virus**, often present as **dendritic ulcers** or geographic ulcers. - Although epithelial lesions can spread, the distinct **satellite infiltrates** in the stroma seen in fungal infections are not characteristic of viral keratitis.
Question 3: Which organism can penetrate corneal endothelium?
- A. Staphylococcus Aureus
- B. Haemophilus influenzae (Correct Answer)
- C. Aspergillus fumigatus
- D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation: ***Haemophilus influenzae*** - *Haemophilus influenzae* is unique in its ability to penetrate the **intact corneal endothelium** through its specific virulence factors and enzymatic mechanisms. - Along with *Neisseria meningitidis*, it can breach the **Descemet's membrane and endothelial barrier** without requiring prior epithelial damage. - This property makes it particularly dangerous as it can cause **endophthalmitis** by directly accessing the anterior chamber. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* - While highly virulent, *N. gonorrhoeae* penetrates the **corneal epithelium** (outer layer) through its proteases, not the endothelium (inner layer). - It causes severe **hyperacute conjunctivitis** and can lead to **corneal perforation**, but via epithelial destruction and stromal infiltration. *Staphylococcus aureus* - A common cause of **bacterial keratitis** following epithelial defects or trauma. - Causes stromal infiltration and abscess formation but **cannot penetrate intact endothelium**. *Aspergillus fumigatus* - This fungus causes **fungal keratitis** typically after trauma with vegetative matter. - Invades through **epithelial breaches** and stromal infiltration, not through intact endothelial penetration.
Question 4: Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in ?
- A. Fungal infection (Correct Answer)
- B. Pneumococcal infection
- C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection
- D. Gonococcal conjunctivitis
Explanation: ***Fungal infection*** - **Fungal keratitis** produces a **non-sterile hypopyon**, meaning the hypopyon contains actual fungal elements and organisms, not just inflammatory cells alone. - This is characteristically seen with **filamentous fungi** (Aspergillus, Fusarium) and yeast (Candida), which can directly invade the anterior chamber. - The hypopyon is typically **indolent, greyish-white, and does not shift with position** unlike bacterial hypopyon, and shows poor response to antibacterial therapy. - **Fungal culture and KOH mount** are diagnostic. *Pneumococcal infection* - **Bacterial keratitis** caused by *Streptococcus pneumoniae* produces a **sterile hypopyon** consisting purely of inflammatory cells (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) without organisms in the anterior chamber. - Presents with **acute onset, severe pain, and rapid progression** with a dense stromal infiltrate. - The hypopyon is **white, mobile, and shifts with head position**. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection* - **Pseudomonas keratitis** causes an aggressive infection with a **sterile hypopyon** due to intense inflammatory response. - Characterized by **rapidly progressive stromal necrosis** with a ground-glass appearance and greenish discharge. - Often associated with **contact lens wear** and can lead to corneal perforation within 24-48 hours. *Gonococcal conjunctivitis* - **Neisseria gonorrhoeae conjunctivitis** causes severe **hyperacute purulent conjunctivitis** with copious discharge. - Typically does **not cause hypopyon** unless there is secondary corneal ulceration leading to keratitis or endophthalmitis. - Primary manifestation is conjunctival inflammation, chemosis, and lid edema.
Question 5: All of the following are true about Keratoconus, except:
- A. Astigmatism
- B. Increased curvature of cornea and Astigmatism
- C. Thick cornea (Correct Answer)
- D. Fleischer's ring
Explanation: ***Thick cornea*** - Keratoconus is characterized by **progressive corneal thinning** and weakening, not thickening. - This corneal thinning leads to a conical protrusion, causing significant visual distortion and irregular astigmatism. *Increased curvature of cornea and Astigmatism* - Keratoconus features **increased corneal curvature** with progressive steepening into a cone-shaped configuration. - This results in **irregular astigmatism**, a hallmark feature causing distorted vision at all distances. *Astigmatism* - **Irregular astigmatism** is a cardinal feature of keratoconus due to the asymmetric corneal shape. - Causes blurred and distorted vision that is difficult to correct with spectacles alone. *Fleischer's ring* - **Fleischer's ring** is an iron deposit ring at the base of the cone in keratoconus, visible on slit-lamp examination. - It represents hemosiderin deposition in the basal epithelial cells and is a characteristic clinical sign of keratoconus.
Question 6: Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
- A. Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
- C. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- D. Statement 1 is incorrect
Explanation: ***Correct: Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1*** **Analysis of Statement 1:** - A 59-year-old patient with **flaccid bullae** and **suprabasal acantholytic split** on histopathology is the classic presentation of **Pemphigus vulgaris** - The flaccid (easily ruptured) nature of bullae distinguishes it from tense bullae seen in bullous pemphigoid - The suprabasal location of the split (just above the basal layer) with acantholysis (loss of cell-to-cell adhesion) is pathognomonic - **Statement 1 is CORRECT** ✓ **Analysis of Statement 2:** - The **"row of tombstones" or "tombstone appearance"** is indeed a diagnostic histopathological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris - This appearance results from basal keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane while suprabasal cells separate due to acantholysis - The intact basal cells standing upright resemble a row of tombstones - **Statement 2 is CORRECT** ✓ **Does Statement 2 explain Statement 1?** - Statement 2 describes a **histopathological appearance** (tombstone pattern) that is a **consequence** of the suprabasal split - However, it does NOT explain the **underlying cause** of the flaccid bullae or the suprabasal split - The true explanation involves **IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and desmoglein 1)**, which attack intercellular adhesion structures (desmosomes), causing **acantholysis** - Therefore, **Statement 2 does NOT explain Statement 1** ✗ *Incorrect: Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1* - While both statements describe features of Pemphigus vulgaris, the tombstone appearance is a descriptive finding, not an explanatory mechanism *Incorrect: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect* - Both statements are medically accurate descriptions of Pemphigus vulgaris features *Incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect* - Statement 1 correctly describes the cardinal clinical and histopathological features of Pemphigus vulgaris
Question 7: Which of the following is the MOST contraindicated condition for steroid use?
- A. Herpetic keratitis
- B. Exposure keratitis
- C. Atopic dermatitis
- D. Fungal corneal ulcer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fungal corneal ulcer*** - Steroids are **immunomodulatory** and can suppress the immune response, which is crucial for fighting fungal infections [1]. - Using steroids in cases of fungal keratitis can lead to rapid **worsening of the infection**, potentially causing vision loss or even globe rupture. *Herpetic keratitis* - While steroids can exacerbate active **herpes simplex virus (HSV) epithelial keratitis**, they are often used cautiously in certain forms of herpetic keratitis, such as **stromal keratitis** or **endotheliitis**, under antiviral coverage to control inflammation. - The key is proper diagnosis to differentiate epithelial (contraindicated) from stromal/endothelial (potentially indicated with antivirals) forms. *Exposure keratitis* - This condition is caused by **incomplete eyelid closure** leading to corneal drying and damage, not primarily by inflammation requiring steroid suppression. - Management focuses on **lubrication** and protecting the surface, and steroids are generally not indicated. *Atopic dermatitis* - **Topical corticosteroids** are the mainstay of treatment for atopic dermatitis due to their potent **anti-inflammatory** effects [2]. - This condition is an inflammatory skin disorder, and steroids help to reduce inflammation, itching, and redness [3].
Question 8: Interstitial keratitis is associated with all of the following except:
- A. Syphilis
- B. Acanthamoeba (Correct Answer)
- C. Chlamydia Trachomatis
- D. Herpes Zoster Virus (HZV)
Explanation: ***Acanthamoeba*** - **Acanthamoeba keratitis** is a **suppurative keratitis** characterized by a painful, ring-shaped infiltrate with epithelial ulceration, typically associated with contact lens use and contaminated water exposure. - It causes **ulcerative stromal inflammation**, not the **non-ulcerative deep stromal inflammation** that characterizes classic interstitial keratitis. - **This is NOT a cause of interstitial keratitis.** *Syphilis* - **Congenital syphilis** is the **CLASSIC cause** of bilateral **interstitial keratitis**, often presenting in late childhood with "salmon patch" appearance, photophobia, lacrimation, and eventual ghost vessels. - The inflammation is **non-ulcerative and chronic**, affecting the **deep corneal stroma** with preservation of epithelium. - This is the most important association with interstitial keratitis to remember. *Chlamydia Trachomatis* - **Chlamydia trachomatis** causes **trachoma**, a chronic keratoconjunctivitis leading to **superficial keratitis with pannus formation** (superficial vascularization from the limbus). - The corneal involvement in trachoma is **superficial**, not the deep stromal inflammation seen in classic interstitial keratitis. - While listed in some references, **Chlamydia is NOT a standard cause of interstitial keratitis** in major ophthalmology textbooks. - **Note:** This option is potentially debatable, but Acanthamoeba is the more definitively incorrect answer. *Herpes Zoster Virus (HZV)* - **Herpes zoster ophthalmicus** can lead to **interstitial keratitis** and **disciform keratitis** (immune-mediated stromal inflammation with disc-shaped corneal edema). - Similarly, **HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus)** causes stromal keratitis, a form of interstitial keratitis. - The corneal involvement includes **deep stromal inflammation, scarring**, and potential neurotrophic changes leading to vision impairment.
Question 9: A 30 year old man presents to the clinic with pain in the eye, watering, redness, and photophobia. Examination of his eyes shows circumcorneal congestion and keratic precipitates. Assertion: Keratic precipitates (KPs) are proteinaceous deposits that can occur in various patterns on the corneal endothelium. Reason: Mutton fat KPs are seen in granulomatous iridocyclitis and are composed of epithelioid cells and macrophages.
- A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
- B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion (Correct Answer)
- C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false
- D. Assertion is false but reason is true
Explanation: ***Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion*** **Why both statements are true:** - The **Assertion** is correct: Keratic precipitates (KPs) are inflammatory cell and protein deposits that adhere to the **corneal endothelium** and can present in various patterns including fine dusty KPs, medium-sized KPs, and large mutton fat KPs. - The **Reason** is also correct: **Mutton fat KPs** are characteristic of **granulomatous anterior uveitis** (granulomatous iridocyclitis) and consist of aggregations of **epithelioid cells and macrophages**, appearing as large, greasy, white deposits. **Why Reason does NOT explain Assertion:** - The Reason describes a **specific type** of KP (mutton fat) and its cellular composition in one particular form of inflammation (granulomatous). - The Assertion makes a **general statement** about KPs occurring in various patterns. - The Reason does not explain **why** KPs can occur in various patterns or what determines these different patterns - it only describes one specific pattern. *Incorrect: Both true with Reason explaining Assertion* - The Reason is too specific and only describes one type of KP, not the general mechanism of pattern variation. *Incorrect: Assertion true, Reason false* - Both statements are medically accurate and well-established in ophthalmology literature. *Incorrect: Assertion false, Reason true* - KPs are well-documented deposits on the corneal endothelium in various forms of uveitis, making the Assertion true.
Question 10: Which of the following is a contraindication to topical steroids?
- A. Dendritic ulcer (Correct Answer)
- B. Herpetic stromal keratitis without epithelial defect
- C. Elevated intraocular pressure
- D. Non-infectious anterior uveitis
Explanation: ***Dendritic ulcer*** - A **dendritic ulcer** is characteristic of **herpes simplex keratitis**, which is an active viral infection of the cornea. - **Topical steroids** are contraindicated because they can suppress the immune response, leading to viral replication, corneal melt, and potentially severe vision loss or perforation. *Herpetic stromal keratitis without epithelial defect* - In cases of **stromal keratitis**, where the infection is deeper and an intact epithelium is present, topical steroids may be used cautiously in conjunction with antiviral agents to reduce inflammation and scarring. - The primary concern with steroids in herpes simplex keratitis is activating viral replication in the presence of an **epithelial defect**, which is not present here. *Elevated intraocular pressure* - **Elevated intraocular pressure** is a known side effect of topical steroid use, especially with prolonged administration, but it is not an absolute contraindication in itself. - It necessitates careful monitoring and may require concurrent glaucoma treatment, but the primary condition needing steroids may still warrant their use. *Non-infectious anterior uveitis* - **Topical corticosteroids** are the **mainstay of treatment** for non-infectious anterior uveitis to reduce inflammation and prevent complications such as synechiae and vision loss. - The benefits of controlling inflammation in uveitis generally outweigh the risks associated with judicious steroid use.
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