Desire Disorders — MCQs
Which of the following represents the behavioral component that distinguishes OCD from pure anxiety disorders?
A 46-year-old woman presents for her annual examination. Her main complaint is frequent sweating episodes with a sensation of intense heat starting at her upper chest and spreading up to her head. These have been intermittent for the past 6 to 9 months but are gradually worsening. She has three to four flushing/sweating episodes during the day and two to three at night. She occasionally feels her heart race for about a second, but when she checks her pulse it is normal. She reports feeling more tired and has difficulty with sleep due to sweating. She denies major life stressors. She also denies weight loss, weight gain, or change in bowel habit. Her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago. Physical examination is normal. Which treatment is most appropriate in alleviating this woman's symptoms?
What is the term for a persistent lack of sexual desire or arousal?
Which of the following is the most characteristic sexual side effect of SSRIs?
A 40-year-old female has visited multiple plastic surgeons requesting correction of a perceived facial deformity. She was referred to a psychiatrist because she repeatedly checks her face, insists that it is deformed and needs surgery despite no evidence on examination. She persists with her demand despite reassurances by family members and doctors. What is the most appropriate management?
Time cut-off for diagnosis of Priapism is?
A 62-year-old woman presents for annual examination. Her last spontaneous menstrual period was 9 years ago, and she has been reluctant to use postmenopausal hormone replacement because of a strong family history of breast cancer. She now complains of diminished interest in sexual activity. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her complaint?
Most common cause of erectile dysfunction in men under 40:
For the following causes of sexual dysfunction, select the most likely clinical feature that can be caused by vascular disease.
What is the term used to describe increased sexual desire in males?
Desire Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following represents the behavioral component that distinguishes OCD from pure anxiety disorders?
- A. anxiety
- B. depression
- C. intrusive thoughts
- D. compulsive behaviors (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Compulsive behaviors*** - **Compulsive behaviors** (or mental acts) are the defining **behavioral component** of OCD that distinguish it from other anxiety disorders - These are repetitive behaviors (e.g., hand washing, checking) or mental acts (e.g., counting, praying) performed in response to obsessions - According to **DSM-5**, compulsions are aimed at reducing distress or preventing a dreaded event, though they are either excessive or not realistically connected to the feared outcome - The presence of these **time-consuming ritualistic behaviors** is what clinically distinguishes OCD from generalized anxiety disorder or other anxiety conditions *Intrusive thoughts* - Intrusive thoughts (obsessions) are indeed the cognitive component of OCD - However, intrusive thoughts alone can occur in many anxiety disorders, depression, and even normal populations - What makes OCD distinctive is the **behavioral response** (compulsions) to these thoughts, not just the thoughts themselves *Anxiety* - Anxiety is present in OCD and motivates the compulsive behaviors - However, anxiety is a feature of **all anxiety disorders** and many other psychiatric conditions - It is not the distinguishing feature that separates OCD from other anxiety-related disorders *Depression* - Depression is a **common comorbidity** with OCD (occurring in 25-50% of OCD patients) - It is a separate condition that frequently co-occurs but is **not a defining feature** of OCD - Depression does not distinguish OCD from other psychiatric disorders
Question 2: A 46-year-old woman presents for her annual examination. Her main complaint is frequent sweating episodes with a sensation of intense heat starting at her upper chest and spreading up to her head. These have been intermittent for the past 6 to 9 months but are gradually worsening. She has three to four flushing/sweating episodes during the day and two to three at night. She occasionally feels her heart race for about a second, but when she checks her pulse it is normal. She reports feeling more tired and has difficulty with sleep due to sweating. She denies major life stressors. She also denies weight loss, weight gain, or change in bowel habit. Her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago. Physical examination is normal. Which treatment is most appropriate in alleviating this woman's symptoms?
- A. Estrogen plus progesterone (Correct Answer)
- B. Citalopram
- C. Estrogen
- D. Levothyroxine
Explanation: ***Estrogen plus progesterone*** - This patient's symptoms (hot flashes, night sweats, fatigue, sleep disturbance, irregular menses) are highly suggestive of **perimenopause/menopause**. **Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)** with estrogen and progesterone is the most effective treatment for managing severe menopausal symptoms. - Adding **progesterone** is crucial for women with an intact uterus to prevent **endometrial hyperplasia** and **endometrial cancer** caused by unopposed estrogen therapy. *Citalopram* - **Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** like citalopram can reduce the frequency and severity of hot flashes, but they are generally reserved for women who cannot take or prefer not to take HRT due to contraindications or concerns. - SSRIs are less effective than HRT for severe vasomotor symptoms and do not address other menopausal symptoms like vaginal dryness or bone loss. *Estrogen* - While estrogen is the primary hormone for alleviating menopausal symptoms, administering **unopposed estrogen** to a woman with an intact uterus significantly increases the risk of **endometrial hyperplasia** and **endometrial carcinoma**. - Progesterone is necessary to counteract the proliferative effects of estrogen on the endometrium, preventing these risks. *Levothyroxine* - **Levothyroxine** is used to treat **hypothyroidism**, a condition that can cause fatigue, weight changes, and menstrual irregularities. - However, the patient's primary symptoms of prominent hot flashes and night sweats are not characteristic of hypothyroidism, and her physical examination is normal, making this diagnosis less likely.
Question 3: What is the term for a persistent lack of sexual desire or arousal?
- A. Female Orgasmic Disorder
- B. Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder
- C. Male Erectile Disorder
- D. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (HSDD) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (HSDD)*** - **HSDD** is characterized by a persistent or recurrent deficiency or absence of **sexual fantasies** and desire for **sexual activity**. - This diagnosis specifically addresses the **lack of desire or arousal**, differentiating it from other sexual dysfunctions. *Female Orgasmic Disorder* - This disorder is marked by significant difficulty, delay, or absence of **orgasm** following sufficient sexual stimulation and arousal. - While it impacts sexual experience, it does not primarily involve a lack of **desire or arousal**. *Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder* - This condition is defined by persistent difficulties with vaginal penetration, marked by **genito-pelvic pain**, fear/anxiety about pain, and/or tensing of pelvic floor muscles. - It focuses on **pain and physical barriers** to sexual activity, not explicitly on desire. *Male Erectile Disorder* - This disorder involves a consistent inability to attain and/or maintain an adequate **erection** until the completion of sexual activity. - While it affects a male's ability to engage in sexual activity, the primary issue is **erectile function**, not necessarily a lack of sexual desire.
Question 4: Which of the following is the most characteristic sexual side effect of SSRIs?
- A. Retrograde ejaculation
- B. Erectile dysfunction
- C. Delayed ejaculation (Correct Answer)
- D. Anxiety
Explanation: ***Delayed ejaculation*** - **Delayed ejaculation** is a common and characteristic sexual side effect of SSRIs due to their impact on serotonin pathways involved in sexual response. - This effect can lead to significant distress and non-adherence to treatment, and often requires dose adjustment or switching to an alternative antidepressant. *Erectile dysfunction* - While **erectile dysfunction** can occur with SSRIs, it is a less specific and less consistently reported sexual side effect compared to ejaculatory dysfunction. - Many factors, including underlying mood disorder and comorbidities, can contribute to erectile dysfunction, making it less characteristic of SSRI use alone. *Retrograde ejaculation* - **Retrograde ejaculation** is a condition where semen enters the bladder during orgasm, and while it can be a side effect of some medications (e.g., alpha-blockers), it is not a hallmark sexual side effect of SSRIs. - SSRIs primarily affect the process of emission and expulsion, leading more commonly to delayed or absent ejaculation rather than retrograde flow. *Anxiety* - **Anxiety** is generally a *primary symptom* of the conditions SSRIs are prescribed to treat, such as depression or anxiety disorders, not a sexual side effect of the medication itself. - Although SSRIs can initially cause or worsen anxiety in some patients before therapeutic effects are seen, this is a systemic side effect, not a sexual one.
Question 5: A 40-year-old female has visited multiple plastic surgeons requesting correction of a perceived facial deformity. She was referred to a psychiatrist because she repeatedly checks her face, insists that it is deformed and needs surgery despite no evidence on examination. She persists with her demand despite reassurances by family members and doctors. What is the most appropriate management?
- A. Behavior therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. SSRI
- C. Atypical antipsychotics
- D. Allow her to have surgery
Explanation: ***Behavior therapy*** - This patient presents with **body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)**, characterized by preoccupation with a perceived defect in appearance that is not observable to others, leading to significant distress and impairment. - **Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)**, specifically **CBT-BDD with exposure and response prevention (ERP)**, is the **first-line treatment** with the strongest evidence base for BDD. - CBT-BDD addresses the core cognitive distortions, reduces checking behaviors, and provides sustained long-term improvement without medication side effects. - **Most appropriate management** involves CBT as primary treatment, often combined with pharmacotherapy for optimal outcomes. *SSRI* - **Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** are the first-line **pharmacotherapy** for BDD, often requiring higher doses than those used for major depressive disorder. - SSRIs are highly effective and can be used as monotherapy or preferably in combination with CBT. - While SSRIs are appropriate, CBT has superior evidence as the primary intervention for BDD. *Atypical antipsychotics* - **Atypical antipsychotics** may be considered as an augmentation strategy for BDD in cases that do not respond to SSRI monotherapy, especially with significant delusional features or severe functional impairment. - They are not first-line pharmacological treatment. *Allow her to have surgery* - Allowing plastic surgery is **contraindicated** in patients with BDD because it rarely alleviates distress and often leads to dissatisfaction with surgical outcomes, potentially worsening symptoms or causing further unnecessary procedures. - The core problem is distorted perception of self, not an actual physical defect that can be remedied surgically.
Question 6: Time cut-off for diagnosis of Priapism is?
- A. 2 hours
- B. 4 hours (Correct Answer)
- C. 3 hours
- D. 1 hour
Explanation: ***4 hours*** - A penile erection lasting longer than **4 hours** is the established cut-off for the diagnosis of **priapism**. - Prolonged erection beyond this duration can lead to **ischemia** and permanent cavernosal damage. *2 hours* - While concerning, an erection lasting 2 hours is typically not classified as priapism, which requires a longer duration to meet diagnostic criteria. - At this stage, the risk of significant ischemic injury is lower compared to longer durations. *3 hours* - An erection lasting 3 hours is still below the clinically defined threshold for priapism. - Although it warrants close monitoring, intervention is usually recommended once the 4-hour mark is reached. *1 hour* - An erection of 1 hour is generally considered a normal physiological response and does not meet the criteria for priapism. - This duration is insufficient to cause the microvascular damage and cellular changes associated with priapism.
Question 7: A 62-year-old woman presents for annual examination. Her last spontaneous menstrual period was 9 years ago, and she has been reluctant to use postmenopausal hormone replacement because of a strong family history of breast cancer. She now complains of diminished interest in sexual activity. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her complaint?
- A. Decreased vaginal length
- B. Untreatable sexual dysfunction
- C. Decreased ovarian function (Correct Answer)
- D. Alienation from her partner
Explanation: ***Decreased ovarian function*** - The woman's age and history of menopause 9 years prior strongly suggest **decreased ovarian function**, leading to **estrogen deficiency**. - **Estrogen deficiency** causes vaginal atrophy, dryness, and dyspareunia, which can significantly diminish interest in sexual activity. *Decreased vaginal length* - While vaginal atrophy can occur with menopause, leading to a narrower and less elastic vagina, a significant "decreased vaginal length" is less common as a primary cause of diminished sexual interest. - The primary physiological change affecting sexual interest due to estrogen loss is **vaginal dryness** and **dyspareunia**, rather than an anatomical change in length. *Untreatable sexual dysfunction* - Postmenopausal sexual dysfunction related to estrogen deficiency is often **treatable** with local vaginal estrogen therapy or other interventions. - Assuming it's untreatable without further assessment is premature and inaccurate, especially given the clear physiological changes associated with menopause. *Alienation from her partner* - While relationship issues can certainly affect sexual interest, the clinical history points to a **physiological cause** (postmenopausal estrogen deficiency). - There is no information in the scenario to suggest alienation from her partner, making this answer less likely than a direct physiological cause.
Question 8: Most common cause of erectile dysfunction in men under 40:
- A. Vascular
- B. Drug induced (Correct Answer)
- C. Diabetes
- D. Psychological
Explanation: ***Drug induced*** - In men under 40, **medication side effects** are a significant and often overlooked cause of erectile dysfunction [4]. - Common culprits include **antidepressants** (especially SSRIs), **antihypertensives** (like beta-blockers and thiazide diuretics), and some **antihistamines** [2]. *Vascular* - While vascular issues are the **most common cause overall** in older men, they are less prevalent in younger men unless associated with severe underlying conditions like **uncontrolled hypertension** or **dyslipidemia** [2]. - **Atherosclerosis** and reduced blood flow to the penis are the primary mechanisms, which typically manifest later in life [2]. *Diabetes* - **Diabetes** can cause erectile dysfunction through **peripheral neuropathy** and **vascular damage**, leading to impaired nerve function and blood flow [3]. - Although it can occur at any age, its prevalence as a cause of ED generally **increases with the duration and poor control** of the disease, making it less likely to be the *most common* cause in men under 40. *Psychological* - **Psychological factors** such as stress, anxiety, depression, and relationship problems are **very common** contributors to erectile dysfunction in young men [1]. - However, direct **drug-induced ED** is often a primary or exacerbating factor that should be carefully considered, especially given the widespread use of various medications in this age group [2].
Question 9: For the following causes of sexual dysfunction, select the most likely clinical feature that can be caused by vascular disease.
- A. failure of erection with absent nocturnal penile tumescence (NPT) (Correct Answer)
- B. absence of orgasm with normal libido and erectile function
- C. ejaculatory dysfunction
- D. decreased libido
Explanation: **_failure of erection with absent nocturnal penile tumescence (NPT)_** - **Vascular disease** often impairs blood flow to the penis, which is essential for achieving and maintaining an erection [1]. - **Absent nocturnal penile tumescence (NPT)** indicates an organic cause of erectile dysfunction, frequently due to vascular insufficiency rather than psychological factors [1], [2]. *ejaculatory dysfunction* - While ejaculatory dysfunction can occur with sexual health issues, it is less directly linked to the **vascular supply** than erectile function [2]. - Conditions like **neurological damage** or medication side effects are more common causes of ejaculatory dysfunction [2]. *absence of orgasm with normal libido and erectile function* - An inability to achieve orgasm with intact libido and erectile function typically suggests a **neurological** or **psychological** etiology. - **Vascular disease** primarily affects the physical ability to achieve an erection, not the sensory or psychological components of orgasm [1]. *decreased libido* - **Decreased libido (sex drive)** is more commonly associated with hormonal imbalances (e.g., low testosterone), psychological stress, depression, or certain medications [1]. - While vascular disease can contribute to overall poor health, it is not a direct or primary cause of **reduced sexual desire** [1].
Question 10: What is the term used to describe increased sexual desire in males?
- A. Nymphomania
- B. Satyriasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Frigidity
- D. Fetishism
Explanation: ***Satyriasis*** - **Satyriasis** is the term used to describe **excessive or uncontrollable sexual desire in men**. - It refers to a compulsive need for sexual activity, often leading to distress or functional impairment. *Nymphomania* - **Nymphomania** is the term for **excessive sexual desire in women**, not men. - While analogous, it specifically applies to the female gender. *Frigidity* - **Frigidity** typically refers to a **lack of sexual desire or arousal**, primarily in women. - It is the opposite of increased sexual desire and is not gender-specific to men. *Fetishism* - **Fetishism** involves sexual arousal derived from an **unusual focus on a non-genital object or body part**. - It describes a specific sexual preference, not an overall increase in sexual desire.
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