Ovulation Induction — MCQs
A lady on treatment for infertility developed ascites, abdominal pain, and dyspnea. An ultrasound (USG) of the patient was done. What will be the diagnosis?
Which drug is most appropriate for reducing risk of ovarian cancer in a BRCA1 positive woman not planning for children?
Which hormone surge indicates the fertile period in females?
Which of the following statements about clomiphene citrate is true?
Which of the following is preferred for infertility treatment of a female with increased prolactin levels?
Post-pill amenorrhea is treated by:
If a patient of polycystic ovary syndrome on metformin conceives, how soon should the metformin be stopped?
Decidual reaction is due to which hormone?
Ovulation occurs how long after the LH surge peak?
Hormone predominantly secreted after 14 days that acts on the endometrium is?
Ovulation Induction Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A lady on treatment for infertility developed ascites, abdominal pain, and dyspnea. An ultrasound (USG) of the patient was done. What will be the diagnosis?
- A. Theca lutein cysts
- B. Mucinous cystadenoma
- C. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
- D. Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS)*** - The clinical presentation of infertility treatment followed by **ascites, abdominal pain, and dyspnea** is highly suggestive of OHSS. The ultrasound image shows **enlarged ovaries with multiple follicular cysts**, which is characteristic of severe OHSS. - OHSS is a potentially serious complication of **ovarian stimulation** during infertility treatment, where excessive ovarian response leads to systemic changes from increased vascular permeability. *Theca lutein cysts* - These cysts typically develop due to **excessive stimulation by hCG**, often seen with gestational trophoblastic disease or multiple pregnancies. - While they can be large and multiple, they are not typically associated with the rapid onset of severe systemic symptoms like **ascites and dyspnea** in the context of infertility treatment directly. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - This is a type of **benign ovarian tumor** that can grow very large and cause abdominal distension, but it is not typically associated with infertility treatment or the acute systemic symptoms of ascites and dyspnea as seen here. - Imaging would typically show a **multilocular cyst with internal septations**, not the numerous small follicular cysts seen in the image. *Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)* - PCOS is a common cause of infertility, characterized by **anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries** on ultrasound (multiple small follicles in a string-of-pearls pattern). - While the ultrasound shares some similarities with multiple follicles, PCOS does not cause the acute symptoms of **ascites, abdominal pain, and dyspnea** that are directly linked to the rapid onset of severe OHSS.
Question 2: Which drug is most appropriate for reducing risk of ovarian cancer in a BRCA1 positive woman not planning for children?
- A. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
- B. Oral contraceptive pills (Correct Answer)
- C. Tamoxifen
- D. Progesterone IUD
Explanation: ***Oral contraceptive pills*** **Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)** are the most appropriate pharmacological intervention for **reducing ovarian cancer risk in BRCA1/2 carriers** who do not plan to have children. - OCPs **suppress ovulation**, and this reduction in ovulatory cycles is associated with a **~50% decrease in epithelial ovarian cancer risk** in BRCA mutation carriers - The protective effect increases with **longer duration of use** (5+ years provides maximum benefit) - This is a **well-established, evidence-based strategy** supported by multiple large cohort studies and meta-analyses - OCPs are recommended by major guidelines (NCCN, ACOG) for ovarian cancer risk reduction in this population prior to risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy *Gonadotropin-releasing hormone* **GnRH agonists or antagonists** are not recommended for long-term ovarian cancer prevention in BRCA carriers. - Primarily used for **infertility treatments, endometriosis management**, and uterine fibroid treatment through temporary ovarian suppression - **Not established as effective** for ovarian cancer risk reduction - **Not suitable for long-term use** due to significant side effects (bone loss, menopausal symptoms) - Lack of evidence supporting their role in cancer prevention *Tamoxifen* **Tamoxifen** is a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)** used for breast cancer prevention and treatment, not ovarian cancer prevention. - Effective for **reducing breast cancer risk** in high-risk women (including BRCA carriers) - **Does not reduce ovarian cancer risk** and has no protective effect against epithelial ovarian cancer - May **slightly increase endometrial cancer risk** (relative risk ~2-3) - Not indicated for ovarian cancer risk reduction *Progesterone IUD* A **levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD)** provides excellent contraception and manages heavy menstrual bleeding, but does not reduce ovarian cancer risk. - Acts **locally on the endometrium** with minimal systemic hormonal effects - **Does not reliably suppress ovulation** (only 5-15% of cycles are anovulatory) - **No established protective effect** against ovarian cancer - While useful for contraception and menstrual management, it lacks the ovulation suppression needed for cancer risk reduction
Question 3: Which hormone surge indicates the fertile period in females?
- A. LH (Correct Answer)
- B. FSH
- C. Estrogen
- D. Oxytocin
Explanation: ***LH*** - The **luteinizing hormone (LH) surge** triggers **ovulation**, releasing a mature egg from the follicle. - This surge is a key indicator of the **fertile window** in a woman's menstrual cycle. *FSH* - **Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** primarily stimulates the growth and development of **ovarian follicles** early in the menstrual cycle, prior to the fertile period. - While essential for follicle maturation, it does not directly signal the immediate fertile window or ovulation. *Estrogen* - **Estrogen levels peak** just before the LH surge, playing a role in triggering the surge itself through positive feedback. - However, estrogen itself does not directly indicate the onset of the fertile period; rather, the subsequent LH surge does. *Oxytocin* - **Oxytocin** is largely involved in processes like **uterine contractions during childbirth** and **milk ejection during lactation**. - It has no direct role in indicating a female's fertile period or timing of ovulation.
Question 4: Which of the following statements about clomiphene citrate is true?
- A. Enclomiphene has antiestrogenic effects. (Correct Answer)
- B. The risk of multiple pregnancies is less than 1%.
- C. It is contraindicated in male hypogonadism.
- D. The chance of pregnancy is modestly increased compared to placebo.
Explanation: ***Enclomiphene has antiestrogenic effects.*** - Clomiphene citrate is a racemic mixture of two stereoisomers, **enclomiphene** (trans-isomer) and **zuclomiphene** (cis-isomer). - **Enclomiphene** is the more potent antiestrogenic isomer, which blocks estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus and pituitary, leading to increased **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)** secretion and subsequent **follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** and **luteinizing hormone (LH)** release. - This mechanism is responsible for its effectiveness in inducing ovulation. *The chance of pregnancy is modestly increased compared to placebo.* - This is **incorrect** - Clomiphene citrate **significantly** increases the chances of ovulation and pregnancy in anovulatory women, representing much more than a modest increase. - Studies show substantial improvement in ovulation rates (70-80%) and live birth rates (30-40%) with clomiphene compared to placebo in women with anovulatory infertility. *The risk of multiple pregnancies is less than 1%.* - This is **incorrect** - The risk of multiple pregnancies with clomiphene citrate is actually **5-10%**, primarily twins (5-8%), with less than 1% for triplets or higher-order multiples. - This represents a significant increase compared to spontaneous conception rates (~1-2% twins naturally). *It is contraindicated in male hypogonadism.* - This is **incorrect** - Clomiphene citrate is actually used **off-label** in men with **hypogonadism** to stimulate endogenous testosterone production. - In men, it works by blocking estrogen receptors at the hypothalamic-pituitary level, leading to increased GnRH, LH, and FSH secretion, which stimulates **Leydig cells** to produce testosterone and **Sertoli cells** to support spermatogenesis.
Question 5: Which of the following is preferred for infertility treatment of a female with increased prolactin levels?
- A. Dopamine
- B. Carbidopa
- C. Cabergoline (Correct Answer)
- D. Bromocriptine
Explanation: ***Cabergoline*** - **Cabergoline** is a **dopamine agonist** that is highly effective in normalizing prolactin levels and restoring fertility in women with hyperprolactinemia. - It has a **longer half-life** and is generally associated with **fewer side effects** compared to other dopamine agonists, allowing for less frequent dosing (once or twice weekly). *Dopamine* - While **dopamine** itself is the natural inhibitor of prolactin secretion, it has a **very short half-life** and cannot be administered orally as a long-term treatment. - It is typically used as an IV pressor agent in critical care and is not suitable for treating chronic hyperprolactinemia. *Carbidopa* - **Carbidopa** is a **decarboxylase inhibitor** used to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa, allowing more levodopa to reach the brain. - It is primarily used in the treatment of **Parkinson's disease** and has no direct role in lowering prolactin levels. *Bromocriptine* - **Bromocriptine** is also a **dopamine agonist** used to treat hyperprolactinemia, but it typically requires **daily dosing** and is associated with a higher incidence of side effects like nausea and dizziness. - While effective, **cabergoline** is generally preferred due to its better tolerability and convenience.
Question 6: Post-pill amenorrhea is treated by:
- A. Clonidine
- B. Clomiphene (Correct Answer)
- C. Progesterone
- D. Estrogens
Explanation: ***Clomiphene*** - **Clomiphene citrate** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that stimulates **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)** release, leading to increased FSH and LH. - This effectively induces **ovulation** in women with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, which is often the issue in post-pill amenorrhea. *Estrogens* - Administering **estrogens** alone would primarily suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary axis, which is already blunted in post-pill amenorrhea, rather than stimulating ovulation. - While estrogen is part of natural hormone replacement, it does not directly restore **ovarian function** or induce ovulation in this context. *Progesterone* - **Progesterone** is primarily used to induce a withdrawal bleed, confirming the presence of adequate estrogenization, but it does not induce **ovulation**. - It would not address the underlying ovulatory dysfunction characteristic of post-pill amenorrhea. *Clonidine* - **Clonidine** is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist typically used for **hypertension** or symptoms of menopause like hot flashes. - It has no role in the treatment of **amenorrhea** or in stimulating ovulation.
Question 7: If a patient of polycystic ovary syndrome on metformin conceives, how soon should the metformin be stopped?
- A. Immediately following the diagnosis of pregnancy (Correct Answer)
- B. After the 1st trimester
- C. After the 2nd trimester
- D. Before the onset of labour
Explanation: ***Immediately following the diagnosis of pregnancy*** - Based on **current evidence**, metformin can be safely **discontinued once pregnancy is confirmed** in PCOS patients. - The primary role of metformin in PCOS is to improve **ovulation and achieve conception**—once pregnancy occurs, this goal is accomplished. - Recent large randomized trials (including **PregMet** and **MiTy studies**) have shown **no significant benefit** in continuing metformin during pregnancy for reducing miscarriage or gestational diabetes. - Current practice favors **individualized decisions**, but routine continuation is not standard. *After the 1st trimester* - This was **older practice** based on theoretical benefits of reducing early pregnancy loss. - However, systematic reviews and meta-analyses have **not confirmed** these benefits in well-designed trials. - While some clinicians may continue metformin through the first trimester in selected cases, this is not the standard recommendation for all PCOS pregnancies. *After the 2nd trimester* - Continuing metformin this long is **not evidence-based** for routine PCOS management. - While metformin may be continued throughout pregnancy for **gestational diabetes** management (separate indication), this is not specifically for PCOS. - Most guidelines do not support routine continuation beyond pregnancy confirmation for PCOS alone. *Before the onset of labour* - This timing has **no physiological basis** for PCOS-related metformin use. - If metformin is being used for gestational diabetes (different indication), timing of discontinuation would be individualized, but this is not the standard answer for PCOS patients.
Question 8: Decidual reaction is due to which hormone?
- A. Progesterone (Correct Answer)
- B. Estrogen
- C. LH
- D. FSH
Explanation: ***Progesterone*** - The **decidual reaction** is a specific uterine stromal cell differentiation process that prepares the endometrium for **implantation and pregnancy maintenance**. - This process is primarily induced and maintained by **progesterone**, which causes stromal cells to enlarge, accumulate glycogen and lipids, and secrete various factors essential for embryonic development. *Estrogen* - Estrogen plays a crucial role in the **proliferation of the endometrium** during the follicular phase, building up the uterine lining. - While estrogen is essential, it acts in conjunction with progesterone; progesterone is the **primary hormone** responsible for the decidualization process itself. *LH* - Luteinizing hormone (LH) is responsible for triggering **ovulation** and stimulating the corpus luteum to produce progesterone. - LH's direct role is not in the decidual reaction of the endometrium but rather in the **ovarian events** that lead to the production of the hormones that cause decidualization. *FSH* - Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is vital for the growth and maturation of **ovarian follicles** and **estrogen production**. - FSH does not directly induce the decidual reaction but facilitates the production of estrogen, which then contributes to endometrial proliferation, a precursor to progesterone's decidualizing effect.
Question 9: Ovulation occurs how long after the LH surge peak?
- A. 48-72 hours
- B. 72-96 hours
- C. 24-48 hours
- D. 12-24 hours (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***12-24 hours*** - Ovulation, the release of a mature egg from the **ovary**, typically occurs within **12 to 24 hours after the peak of the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge**. - The LH surge itself usually lasts 24 to 48 hours and is a critical signal for the final maturation and release of the oocyte. *24-48 hours* - While the **LH surge** can last up to 48 hours, **ovulation** (the actual release of the egg) generally happens more rapidly, usually within 12-24 hours of the *peak* of this surge. - This timeframe is a common misconception, as it refers more to the duration of the surge rather than the precise timing of ovulation post-peak. *48-72 hours* - Ovulation rarely occurs this late after the peak of the **LH surge**; if it does, it suggests a potential delay or irregularity in the **ovulatory process**. - The window for successful fertilization is relatively narrow and aligns with the more immediate post-surge timing. *72-96 hours* - This time frame is significantly beyond the typical window for **ovulation** following the **LH surge**. - By this point, the egg would have either been released or the ovulatory event would have passed without the egg releasing.
Question 10: Hormone predominantly secreted after 14 days that acts on the endometrium is?
- A. Progesterone (Correct Answer)
- B. Estrogen
- C. LH
- D. FSH
Explanation: ***Progesterone*** - After **ovulation** (around day 14 of a typical 28-day cycle), the **corpus luteum** forms and begins secreting large amounts of progesterone. - Progesterone's primary role is to prepare the **endometrium** for potential implantation by making it secretory and vascularized. *Estrogen* - Estrogen levels are highest during the **proliferative phase** (days 1-14), promoting endometrial growth and thickening. - While present after day 14, its predominant role shifts to preparing the uterus, but not as the *main* hormone secreted to support the post-ovulatory endometrium. *LH (Luteinizing Hormone)* - LH is crucial for triggering **ovulation** itself, with a surge occurring just before day 14. - After ovulation, LH levels decrease and its primary role is not direct endometrial modification. *FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone)* - FSH is primarily active in the **follicular phase** (days 1-14), stimulating ovarian follicle growth. - Its levels decrease after ovulation, and it does not directly regulate endometrial changes in the post-ovulatory period.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free