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Ramkali bai, a 35-year-old female presented with a one-year history of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea. She also had off and on headache, her examination revealed bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. Her fundus examination showed primary optic atrophy. Which of the following is a most likely diagnosis in this case -
A 30-year-old male presents with erectile dysfunction, low testosterone, and elevated prolactin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following medications is not associated with causing hyperprolactinemia?
Maximum increase in prolactin level is caused by:-
A lady presents with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. What is the most likely cause?
Secretion of prolactin is inhibited by?
All are causes of anovulatory amenorrhea except which of the following?
A 24-year-old nulliparous woman presents with secondary amenorrhea for 6 months. She is a competitive marathon runner training 70 miles per week with 12% body fat. Labs show: LH 1.2 mIU/mL (normal follicular phase: 2-10), FSH 2.1 mIU/mL (normal: 3-10), estradiol 15 pg/mL (normal follicular: 30-100), prolactin 14 ng/mL (normal: <25), TSH 2.1 mIU/L. Apply these findings to determine the mechanism of her amenorrhea.
Testicular feminization syndrome is characterized by all of the following except?
A female presents with normal breast development but scanty pubic hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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