Prenatal Care — MCQs

A woman attends an antenatal clinic with a complaint of mild pain in the lower abdomen on the left side, her periods are regular, and a urine pregnancy test was positive at home. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed, revealing an empty uterine cavity and no adnexal mass. Her serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is 700 IU/L. What is the next step?

Q615

In pregnancy, neural tube defects arise in the fetus due to a deficiency of which specific vitamin in the mother?

Q616

According to Naegele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a patient with a last menstrual period (LMP) of 1st September 2017? (Dates given in DD/MM/YYYY format)

Q617

Most appropriate time for chorionic villus sampling in pregnancy is:

Q618

Increased nuchal translucency at 14 weeks is most commonly associated with:

Q619

The MTP Act (as currently amended) provides rules for termination of pregnancy till what number of weeks of pregnancy?

Q620

Full-term denotes:

Prenatal Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 611: Which of the following represents the current recommendation for offering screening for Down's syndrome during pregnancy?

A. 35
B. No screening necessary
C. 30
D. All in the reproductive age group (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***All in the reproductive age group*** - The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) and other major medical bodies recommend that **all pregnant women**, regardless of age, be offered **screening for Down syndrome** and other aneuploidies. - This recommendation reflects the principle of **patient autonomy** and the availability of safe and effective screening methods for all pregnancies, not just those considered high-risk based on maternal age. *30* - While the risk of Down syndrome increases with maternal age, **screening is not exclusively recommended for women aged 30**; rather, it is offered to all pregnant women. - Focusing only on this age group would **miss cases** in younger women and limit informed decision-making. *35* - Historically, **maternal age 35** was considered the threshold for offering invasive diagnostic testing due to the significantly increased risk of Down syndrome. - However, current guidelines emphasize universal screening, as a substantial number of babies with Down syndrome are born to women **younger than 35** due to higher birth rates in this group. *No screening necessary* - This option is incorrect as **screening is routinely offered** to all pregnant women to provide information about the risk of conditions like Down syndrome. - Deciding to forgo screening or diagnostic testing is a personal choice, but the **option to screen should always be available** to the patient.

Question 612: Which of the following interventions has the STRONGEST evidence for reducing the risk of preeclampsia in high-risk pregnant women?

A. Smoking cessation
B. Low-dose aspirin (75-150 mg daily) (Correct Answer)
C. Calcium supplementation (1.5-2g daily)
D. Regular blood pressure monitoring

Explanation: ***Low-dose aspirin (75-150 mg daily)*** - **Low-dose aspirin** started before 16 weeks of gestation is the **only intervention with robust evidence** for reducing preeclampsia risk in high-risk women (ACOG, WHO, USPSTF recommendations). - Meta-analyses show **17-25% relative risk reduction** in preeclampsia when started early in pregnancy. - Recommended for women with history of preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, diabetes, kidney disease, or multifetal gestation. - Acts by **improving placental perfusion** and reducing thromboxane-mediated vasoconstriction. *Calcium supplementation (1.5-2g daily)* - **Calcium supplementation** shows benefit in **populations with low dietary calcium intake** (typically <600 mg/day). - Less effective in populations with adequate baseline calcium intake (most developed countries). - **WHO recommends** calcium for women in low-calcium settings but **not as first-line** in general high-risk populations. *Smoking cessation* - **Essential for healthy pregnancy** and reduces risks of placental abruption, preterm birth, and IUGR. - While smoking is associated with adverse outcomes, **cessation has not been proven to directly prevent preeclampsia**. - Some studies paradoxically show lower preeclampsia rates in smokers (confounded by lower PlGF levels), but smoking increases overall maternal-fetal morbidity. *Regular blood pressure monitoring* - **Critical for early detection** and management of hypertensive disorders but **does not prevent** their occurrence. - Allows timely intervention to **prevent progression to severe disease** and eclampsia. - Part of routine antenatal care but is a **surveillance measure, not a preventive intervention**.

Question 613: What is the recommended dietary allowance of iron during pregnancy?

A. 15 mg of iron
B. 27 mg of iron (Correct Answer)
C. 35 mg of iron
D. 18 mg of iron

Explanation: ***27 mg of iron*** - The **recommended dietary allowance (RDA)** for iron during pregnancy is specifically increased to **27 mg per day** to meet the higher demands of **maternal red blood cell mass expansion** and fetal development. - This increased intake helps prevent **iron-deficiency anemia**, which is common in pregnancy due to the significant increase in **blood volume** and iron transfer to the fetus. *35 mg of iron* - While iron requirements are higher in pregnancy, **35 mg** is generally higher than the widely accepted RDA and might be a dose considered for **iron supplementation** in cases of confirmed deficiency, rather than a general dietary recommendation. - Exceeding the RDA significantly without medical supervision could lead to **iron toxicity** or side effects like constipation and nausea. *15 mg of iron* - **15 mg** is below the recommended daily intake for pregnant women and would be insufficient to meet the increased physiological demands for iron during pregnancy. - This intake level is similar to the RDA for **non-pregnant adult women**, failing to account for the substantial iron needs for **fetal growth and placental development**. *18 mg of iron* - **18 mg** closely matches the RDA for **non-pregnant adult women** and is insufficient for the unique physiological requirements of pregnancy. - This amount would likely lead to a **negative iron balance** and increase the risk of developing **iron-deficiency anemia** as pregnancy progresses.

Question 614: A woman attends an antenatal clinic with a complaint of mild pain in the lower abdomen on the left side, her periods are regular, and a urine pregnancy test was positive at home. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed, revealing an empty uterine cavity and no adnexal mass. Her serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is 700 IU/L. What is the next step?

A. Give single dose of methotrexate
B. Perform laparoscopy
C. Perform serum beta HCG after 48 hr (Correct Answer)
D. Perform serum beta HCG after 7 days

Explanation: ***Perform serum beta HCG after 48 hr*** - An **empty uterine cavity** with a **hCG level of 700 IU/L** and no adnexal mass is inconclusive for a definitive diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy or intrauterine pregnancy. - Repeating the **hCG level after 48 hours** is crucial to assess its doubling time, which helps differentiate between a normal intrauterine pregnancy, failed pregnancy, or ectopic pregnancy. *Give single dose of methotrexate* - Administering methotrexate requires a **definitive diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy**, which is not yet established given the inconclusive ultrasound and hCG level. - Giving methotrexate prior to a definitive diagnosis would be **premature and potentially harmful** if the pregnancy were intrauterine or a failed pregnancy. *Perform laparoscopy* - **Laparoscopy is an invasive procedure** typically reserved for cases where ectopic pregnancy is strongly suspected or rupture is a concern, or when medical management fails. - At this stage, with an **unclear diagnosis and stable patient**, less invasive diagnostic steps are warranted first. *Perform serum Beta HCG after 7 days* - Waiting 7 days to re-check hCG levels would be **too long** in a potentially developing abnormal pregnancy or ectopic pregnancy. - A **48-hour interval** provides more timely information to guide management and detect rapid changes in hCG, which is critical for early diagnosis and intervention.

Question 615: In pregnancy, neural tube defects arise in the fetus due to a deficiency of which specific vitamin in the mother?

A. Folic Acid (Correct Answer)
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

Explanation: ***Folic Acid*** - Deficiency of **folic acid (Vitamin B9)** during early pregnancy is a well-established cause of **neural tube defects (NTDs)** in the fetus. - Adequate folate intake is crucial for proper **neural tube closure**, which occurs at 3-4 weeks gestation. *Vitamin D* - **Vitamin D deficiency** is linked to bone health issues, such as **rickets** in children and **osteomalacia** in adults, and can impact immune function. - It is not directly associated with the development of **neural tube defects**. *Vitamin A* - **Vitamin A** is essential for vision, immune function, and cell growth, but both its **deficiency** and **excess** can cause birth defects. - Excessive intake of preformed Vitamin A (retinol) is **teratogenic** (e.g., causing craniofacial, cardiac, and central nervous system anomalies), but deficiency does not typically cause neural tube defects. *Vitamin C* - **Vitamin C** is vital for collagen synthesis, wound healing, and acts as an antioxidant. - Its deficiency causes **scurvy**, characterized by weakened connective tissue, but is not implicated in neural tube defects.

Question 616: According to Naegele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a patient with a last menstrual period (LMP) of 1st September 2017? (Dates given in DD/MM/YYYY format)

A. 08/06/2018 (Correct Answer)
B. 16/05/2018
C. 16/07/2018
D. 16/06/2018

Explanation: ***08/06/2018*** - Naegele's rule: Add **7 days** to the LMP, subtract **3 months**, and add **1 year**. - For an LMP of 1st September 2017: (1 Sept 2017 + 7 days) = 8 Sept 2017; (8 Sept 2017 - 3 months) = 8 June 2017; (8 June 2017 + 1 year) = **8 June 2018**. - In DD/MM/YYYY format: **08/06/2018** is the correct EDD. *16/05/2018* - This represents 16th May 2018, which is incorrect. - The error involves miscalculating both the month (May instead of June) and the day (16th instead of 8th). - Subtracting 3 months from September yields June, not May. *16/07/2018* - This represents 16th July 2018, which is incorrect. - This reflects errors in both adding the days (resulting in 16th instead of 8th) and the month calculation (July instead of June). - Subtracting 3 months from September yields June, not July. *16/06/2018* - This represents 16th June 2018, which has the correct month but wrong day. - The error is in adding days: adding 7 days to the 1st gives the 8th, not the 16th. - This is a common calculation error when applying Naegele's rule.

Question 617: Most appropriate time for chorionic villus sampling in pregnancy is:

A. 16-18 weeks
B. 16-20 weeks
C. 8-10 weeks
D. 10-13 weeks (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***10-13 weeks*** - Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is optimally performed between **10 and 13 completed weeks of gestation**. - This timing allows for **earlier diagnosis** of chromosomal abnormalities compared to amniocentesis, enabling more time for decision-making. *16-18 weeks* - This timeframe is typically used for **amniocentesis**, which is performed later in pregnancy. - Performing CVS at this stage is **outside the optimal window** and carries a higher risk profile for CVS specifically. *16-20 weeks* - This period is also generally recommended for **amniocentesis**, not chorionic villus sampling. - Delaying CVS until this point **reduces the advantage** of early diagnosis and may increase procedural risks. *8-10 weeks* - Performing CVS **before 10 weeks of gestation** is associated with a **higher risk of limb reduction defects** in the fetus. - Due to this significant risk, CVS is generally **contraindicated** before 10 weeks.

Question 618: Increased nuchal translucency at 14 weeks is most commonly associated with:

A. Down syndrome (Correct Answer)
B. Esophageal atresia
C. Trisomy 18
D. Foregut duplication cyst

Explanation: ***Down syndrome*** - **Increased nuchal translucency (NT)** in the first trimester is a significant marker for **chromosomal abnormalities**, with **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)** being the most common. - This finding, especially at 14 weeks, indicates a higher risk, warranting further diagnostic testing like **chorionic villus sampling (CVS)** or **amniocentesis**. *Esophageal atresia* - This is a **structural anomaly** affecting the esophagus; it is typically identified by an **absent stomach bubble** or sometimes polyhydramnios on later ultrasound, not primarily by increased nuchal translucency. - While it can be associated with some chromosomal anomalies, **increased NT** is not its primary diagnostic marker. *Trisomy 18* - While **increased nuchal translucency** can be a feature of **Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)**, it often presents with additional distinct anatomical findings such as choroid plexus cysts, clenched hands, and a small jaw. - Given the sole finding of increased NT, **Down syndrome** is generally a more common association, although this would still raise suspicion for other aneuploidies including Trisomy 18. *Foregut duplication cyst* - This is a **rare congenital malformation** of the digestive tract, typically appearing as a fluid-filled mass. - It is a **structural anomaly** and is not directly indicated by **increased nuchal translucency**.

Question 619: The MTP Act (as currently amended) provides rules for termination of pregnancy till what number of weeks of pregnancy?

A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 24 weeks (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***24 weeks*** - The **MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) Act** was amended in 2021 to extend the gestational limit for termination of pregnancy from 20 to **24 weeks** for certain categories of women. - This extension applies to vulnerable groups such as survivors of **sexual assault**, minors, and women with disabilities. *12 weeks* - This was the initial gestational limit under the original MTP Act where the opinion of **one registered medical practitioner (RMP)** was sufficient. - The current amendment has significantly expanded this limit for various circumstances. *16 weeks* - This gestational period is **not explicitly a termination limit** under the MTP Act, either in its original form or its amendments. - The Act generally focuses on limits of 12, 20, and 24 weeks. *20 weeks* - This was the previous upper gestational limit for termination requiring the opinion of **two registered medical practitioners (RMPs)** under the MTP Act before the 2021 amendment. - Beyond this, termination was only permitted under very specific circumstances related to fetal abnormalities or risk to the mother's life.

Question 620: Full-term denotes:

A. 39 to 40+6 weeks (Correct Answer)
B. 41 to 41+6 weeks
C. 42 completed weeks
D. 37 to 38+6 weeks

Explanation: ***39 to 40+6 weeks*** - The **American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG)** redefined "term" classifications, establishing "full term" as 39 weeks 0 days through 40 weeks 6 days of gestation. - This classification aims to reduce elective deliveries before 39 weeks, as infants delivered within this period have optimal health outcomes. *41 to 41+6 weeks* - This period is classified as **late term**, indicating a pregnancy that has extended beyond the standard full-term window but is not yet post-term. - While generally safe, pregnancies in this range may require increased monitoring for potential complications. *42 completed weeks* - This gestational age is considered **post-term**, which carries an increased risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus. - Management often includes induction of labor due to concerns like **placental insufficiency** or **macrosomia**. *37 to 38+6 weeks* - This period is defined as **early term**, signifying that while the infant is generally mature, full development benefits from remaining in utero until at least 39 weeks. - Infants born during this time *may* still have slightly higher rates of respiratory, feeding, and temperature regulation issues compared to those born at full term.

Practice by Chapter

Preconception Counseling

Practice Questions

Pregnancy Diagnosis and Dating

Practice Questions

Routine Antenatal Assessments

Practice Questions

Maternal Physiological Changes

Practice Questions

Nutrition in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Screening Tests in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Fetal Growth Assessment

Practice Questions

High-Risk Pregnancy Identification

Practice Questions

Antenatal Complications Management

Practice Questions

Psychosocial Aspects of Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free