Prenatal Care — MCQs

Prenatal Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 571: Which clinical sign indicates the softening of the isthmus of the uterus, leading to a sensation of separation between the cervix and the body of the uterus during early pregnancy (6-8 weeks of gestation)?

A. Chadwick's sign
B. Piskacek's sign
C. Hegar's sign (Correct Answer)
D. Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix)

Explanation: ***Hegar's sign*** - Hegar's sign is the detection of **softening of the lower uterine segment (isthmus)** during a bimanual examination around 6-8 weeks of gestation. - This softening allows the examining fingers to almost meet between the cervix and the body of the uterus, giving a sensation of **separation** between the two. *Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix)* - Goodell's sign refers specifically to the **softening of the cervix** itself due to increased vascularity and edema in early pregnancy. - It does not involve the softening of the uterine isthmus or the sensation of separation between the cervix and the uterine body. *Chadwick's sign* - Chadwick's sign is the **bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia** caused by increased blood flow (vascularity) during early pregnancy. - It is a visual sign of pregnancy and does not involve the palpation of uterine softening or separation. *Piskacek's sign* - Piskacek's sign describes an **asymmetrical enlargement** of the uterus when implantation occurs near one of the uterine cornua. - This results in a palpable **soft, irregular bulge** on one side of the uterus, rather than a generalized softening of the isthmus.

Question 572: A woman with an obstetric score of G2P1 comes to the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation for her antenatal checkup. A uterine artery doppler was suggested by the doctor. What would it detect?

A. Risk of early-onset preeclampsia (Correct Answer)
B. Risk of late-onset preeclampsia
C. Risk of placenta accreta
D. Fetal growth restriction risk

Explanation: **Risk of early-onset preeclampsia** - **Uterine artery Doppler** at 11-14 weeks of gestation is used to screen for **preeclampsia risk**, particularly **early-onset preeclampsia**, which is associated with impaired placental development. - An increased **pulsatility index (PI)** or presence of **bilateral notching** in the uterine arteries indicates high resistance to blood flow, suggesting a higher risk of developing this condition. *Risk of late-onset preeclampsia* - While uterine artery Doppler can indicate a general risk for preeclampsia, its predictive value is significantly lower for **late-onset preeclampsia** (after 34 weeks). - Late-onset preeclampsia often has different underlying causes, not solely related to abnormal **trophoblast invasion** detectable by early Doppler. *Risk of placenta accreta* - **Placenta accreta** is typically associated with previous **cesarean sections** or other uterine surgeries, leading to abnormal placental implantation. - It is diagnosed by the absence of a clear retroplacental hypoechoic zone and features such as **lacunae** on **ultrasound**, not primarily by uterine artery Doppler. *Fetal growth restriction risk* - Uterine artery Doppler at 11-14 weeks can offer some indication of **fetal growth restriction (FGR)** risk, particularly if severe and related to **placental insufficiency**. - However, the primary surveillance for FGR later in pregnancy often involves **umbilical artery Doppler** and fetal biometry, not solely early uterine artery Doppler.

Question 573: A 36-week pregnant lady with previous twin delivery. What is the Obstetric score?

A. G2P1 (Correct Answer)
B. G2P2
C. G3P2
D. G3P3

Explanation: ***G2P1*** - **Gravida (G)** refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one, so the current pregnancy (1) plus the previous twin delivery (1) equals **G2**. - **Parity (P)** refers to the number of times a woman has given birth to a fetus (or fetuses) beyond 20 weeks gestation, irrespective of whether the baby was born alive or is now living. A **twin delivery counts as one parity event** because it was one pregnancy that resulted in a delivery. *G2P2* - This option incorrectly counts the twin delivery as two separate parity events, whereas **parity is counted per pregnancy event** resulting in live birth or stillbirth beyond 20 weeks. - While G2 is correct (current pregnancy + previous pregnancy), P2 incorrectly implies two separate delivery events. *G3P2* - This option correctly identifies the parity as P2, but incorrectly states the gravida as G3. - **Gravida is 2** (current pregnancy + previous twin pregnancy), not 3. *G3P3* - This option is incorrect for both gravida and parity. - The patient has had **two pregnancies** (G2) and **one delivery event** (P1).

Question 574: Best time to perform the quadruple test is:

A. 8-12 weeks
B. 11-15 weeks
C. 15-20 weeks (Correct Answer)
D. 18-22 weeks

Explanation: ***15-20 weeks*** - The quadruple test measures levels of four substances (**alpha-fetoprotein**, **human chorionic gonadotropin**, **unconjugated estriol**, and **inhibin A**) in the mother's blood. - This window is optimal for detecting neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome** and **Trisomy 18**, allowing for timely counseling and further diagnostic testing if needed. *8-12 weeks* - This period is generally too early for the quadruple test to be accurate, as the levels of the markers would not be sufficiently distinct for reliable screening. - The **combined first-trimester screening** (nuchal translucency and blood tests for PAPP-A and hCG) is typically performed during this time. *11-15 weeks* - While some components might be detectable at the later end of this range, 15-20 weeks offers a more accurate window for all four markers of the quadruple test. - **Integrated screening**, which combines first and second-trimester markers, would involve blood draws around 10-14 weeks and then 15-20 weeks. *18-22 weeks* - This period is generally considered too late for optimal results of the quadruple test, as the fetal markers might be less indicative or diagnostic interventions options might be limited. - A **detailed ultrasound** for anatomical survey is usually performed around this time.

Question 575: Which of the following is a sign that is not typically associated with pregnancy?

A. Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the vagina or cervix)
B. Dalrymple sign (Correct Answer)
C. Braxton Hicks contractions (irregular uterine contractions)
D. Hegar's sign (softening of the lower part of the uterus)

Explanation: ***Dalrymple sign*** - **Dalrymple sign** is the **widening of the palpebral fissure** (eyelid retraction), typically associated with **Grave's disease** and hyperthyroidism, not pregnancy. - Its presence suggests a thyroid disorder rather than a normal physiological change of pregnancy. *Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the vagina or cervix)* - **Chadwick's sign** is a common **early presumptive sign of pregnancy**, caused by increased vascularity and blood flow to the pelvic organs. - This bluish discoloration is due to venous congestion in the cervix and vagina. *Braxton Hicks contractions (irregular uterine contractions)* - **Braxton Hicks contractions** are **intermittent, painless uterine contractions** that occur throughout pregnancy, especially in the third trimester. - They are considered "practice contractions" and are a normal physiological finding as the uterus prepares for labor. *Hegar's sign (softening of the lower part of the uterus)* - **Hegar's sign** is a probable sign of pregnancy, characterized by the **softening of the lower uterine segment**, allowing it to be easily compressed. - This sign is typically detectable between 6 and 12 weeks of gestation due to hormonal changes.

Question 576: A 45-year-old female with a history of G5P4A0L4 has her last menstrual period (LMP) on August 25, 2014. What is the gestational age in weeks on May 11, 2015?

A. 37 weeks (Correct Answer)
B. 32 weeks
C. 35 weeks
D. 40 weeks

Explanation: ***37 weeks*** - Calculating from **LMP (August 25, 2014)** to assessment date **(May 11, 2015)**: Days remaining in August: 6 days (26th-31st), September through April: 242 days, Days in May: 11 days. - **Total: 259 days ÷ 7 = exactly 37 weeks** gestational age using standard **Naegele's rule** calculation method. *32 weeks* - This option would correspond to an assessment date in early April 2015, which is **too early** given the LMP and assessment date. - It suggests a **5-week shorter** pregnancy duration than the actual interval calculated. *35 weeks* - This option indicates an assessment around the third week of April 2015, which is still **earlier** than the May 11, 2015, date. - It implies a **2-week shorter** gestational period than the correct calculation shows. *40 weeks* - This option would correspond to an assessment date in early June 2015, **beyond** the May 11, 2015, assessment date. - This gestational age is **too long** for the specified dates and would suggest the patient is at **term** or past her due date.

Question 577: A pregnant woman at term presents with a symphysiofundal height of 40 cm. What is the most likely approximate fetal weight?

A. 3 kg
B. 4 kg (Correct Answer)
C. 3.3 kg
D. 4.3 kg

Explanation: ***4 kg*** - Using **Johnson's formula** for fetal weight estimation: Weight (g) = (SFH in cm - n) × 155, where n = 12 if fetal vertex is above ischial spines or n = 11 if at/below spines - For SFH of **40 cm**: (40 - 12) × 155 = **4,340 g ≈ 4 kg** or (40 - 11) × 155 = 4,495 g ≈ 4.5 kg - An approximate weight of **4 kg** is the most reasonable estimate for an SFH of 40 cm at term - This represents a larger than average fetus, which is consistent with the clinical measurement *3 kg* - While 3 kg is a common average birth weight, Johnson's formula calculation for an SFH of **40 cm** yields a significantly higher estimate - A weight of 3 kg would typically correlate with an SFH of approximately **32-33 cm**, not 40 cm - This option significantly underestimates the fetal weight for the given measurement *3.3 kg* - Although closer to average birth weight, this still **underestimates** the fetal weight suggested by an SFH of 40 cm - Using Johnson's formula, this measurement would correlate with an SFH of approximately **34-35 cm**, not 40 cm - The 40 cm measurement indicates a larger fetus than this estimate suggests *4.3 kg* - This represents the more **precise calculation** using Johnson's formula: (40 - 12) × 155 = 4,340 g - While mathematically accurate, **4 kg is the more commonly used approximation** in clinical practice for ease of communication - Both 4 kg and 4.3 kg are acceptable estimates, but 4 kg is the standard teaching answer for NEET-PG

Question 578: Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :

A. X-ray abdomen
B. Amniocentesis
C. Clinical examination
D. Ultrasonography (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Ultrasonography*** - **Antenatal ultrasonography** is the primary and most effective method for detecting fetal hydrocephalus. - It allows direct visualization of **ventricular dilation**, the key diagnostic finding in hydrocephalus (lateral ventricles >10mm at atrium level). - USG is **safe, non-invasive**, and can be performed repeatedly without radiation exposure. - It also helps identify associated anomalies and determine the cause of hydrocephalus. *X-ray abdomen* - **X-rays** expose the fetus to **ionizing radiation**, posing risks and violating ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) principles. - They provide limited detail of **soft tissue structures** like brain ventricles, making them unsuitable for diagnosing hydrocephalus. - X-rays are not used for antenatal diagnosis of fetal brain abnormalities. *Amniocentesis* - **Amniocentesis** is primarily used for **chromosomal analysis** and genetic testing, not for direct visualization of brain anomalies. - While some genetic conditions can lead to hydrocephalus, amniocentesis doesn't directly detect the hydrocephalus itself. - It cannot visualize structural fetal abnormalities. *Clinical examination* - **Antenatal clinical examination** of the mother cannot directly assess fetal brain abnormalities. - It may suggest fetal issues if there is an abnormally large uterine size or polyhydramnios, but it **lacks the specificity and sensitivity** to diagnose hydrocephalus. - Clinical examination alone is inadequate for detecting structural fetal anomalies.

Question 579: Funneling in cervicogram is seen in -

A. Cervical ectopic
B. During TVS
C. During labor
D. Weak cervical tissue leading to pregnancy complications (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Weak cervical tissue leading to pregnancy complications*** - **Funneling** in a cervicogram (or during transvaginal ultrasound) indicates the shortening and dilation of the internal cervical os, forming a funnel shape. - This finding is a key indicator of **cervical insufficiency** or **weak cervical tissue**, which significantly increases the risk of preterm birth and other pregnancy complications due to the inability of the cervix to retain the pregnancy. *During labor* - While the cervix dilates and effaces during labor, the term "funneling" specifically refers to the premature opening of the internal os seen *before* active labor, often indicative of **cervical insufficiency**. - During active labor, the entire cervix generally dilates progressively, rather than forming a distinct funnel shape. *Cervical ectopic* - A **cervical ectopic pregnancy** involves the implantation of a fertilized egg within the cervical canal. - While it affects the cervix, the defining characteristic is the presence of an implanted gestational sac, not specifically cervical funneling. *During TVS* - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** is the primary method used to assess cervical length and detect funneling. - Funneling itself is a sign of cervical changes, observed *via* TVS, rather than TVS *causing* or *being* the funneling.

Question 580: Which is not a risk factor for gestational hypertension

A. Primigravida
B. Factor V Leiden mutation
C. Smoking (Correct Answer)
D. Low maternal age

Explanation: ***Smoking*** - **Smoking** paradoxically shows a *protective effect* against gestational hypertension and preeclampsia, making it the correct answer as it is NOT a risk factor for gestational hypertension. - This well-documented phenomenon may be related to smoking's vasodilatory effects and reduced production of anti-angiogenic factors. - However, smoking carries numerous other serious risks including **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, **placental abruption**, **preterm birth**, and **perinatal mortality**. *Primigravida* - **Primigravida** (first pregnancy) is a well-established risk factor for gestational hypertension and preeclampsia. - First-time exposure to paternal antigens and incomplete immune tolerance may contribute to this increased risk. - The risk decreases in subsequent pregnancies with the same partner. *Factor V Leiden mutation* - The **Factor V Leiden mutation** is the most common inherited thrombophilia and significantly increases the risk of gestational hypertension and preeclampsia. - This mutation causes resistance to activated protein C, leading to a hypercoagulable state that can impair placental perfusion. - Associated with increased risk of venous thromboembolism during pregnancy. *Low maternal age* - **Low maternal age** (adolescent pregnancy, <20 years) is actually a recognized *risk factor* for gestational hypertension. - Young mothers may have incomplete physical and cardiovascular maturity to handle pregnancy-related physiological changes. - Adolescent pregnancies are associated with higher rates of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.

Practice by Chapter

Preconception Counseling

Practice Questions

Pregnancy Diagnosis and Dating

Practice Questions

Routine Antenatal Assessments

Practice Questions

Maternal Physiological Changes

Practice Questions

Nutrition in Pregnancy

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Screening Tests in Pregnancy

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Fetal Growth Assessment

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High-Risk Pregnancy Identification

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Antenatal Complications Management

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Psychosocial Aspects of Pregnancy

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