Prenatal Care — MCQs
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What is the normal cervical length?
A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gonorrhea. What is the most appropriate management approach?
A pregnant woman at 32 weeks presents with recurrent bacterial vaginosis despite multiple treatments. She has history of preterm labor in previous pregnancy. Current symptoms include discharge and burning. Partner is untreated. Which management approach is most appropriate?
A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician for an initial prenatal visit at 13 weeks' gestation. She has had episodic headaches over the past month. She has no history of serious illness. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F) and pulse is 90/min. Repeated measurements show a blood pressure of 138/95 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 13-week gestation. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Urinalysis is within normal limits. Serum creatinine is 0.8 mg/dL, serum ALT is 19 U/L, and platelet count is 210,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely condition in this patient?
Double decidual sign is seen in?
Which of the following is the most sensitive and specific test during antenatal check-up for a pregnant lady with family history of Thalassemia?
A lady with 12-week pregnancy presents with bleeding. On examination, vagina is normal, internal os is closed, and USG shows fetal viability with fundal height of 13 weeks. What is the diagnosis?
EDD ( Expected Date of Delivery) is calculated by:
What is the Triple screen test (Triple marker test)?
Which of the following is the MOST accurate test for detecting neural tube defects?
Prenatal Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 511: What is the normal cervical length?
- A. 10 cm
- B. 5 cm
- C. 7 cm
- D. 3 cm (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***3 cm*** - The **normal cervical length** in a non-pregnant woman typically measures **3-4 cm**, with **3 cm** being the commonly cited average. - During pregnancy, cervical length is monitored via transvaginal ultrasound, and a length ≥3 cm is considered reassuring for pregnancy maintenance. - This measurement is crucial for assessing the risk of preterm labor and cervical incompetence. *10 cm* - A cervical length of **10 cm is anatomically impossible** and not consistent with normal female reproductive anatomy. - The entire uterus (fundus to external os) measures approximately 7-8 cm in a non-pregnant state, making 10 cm for cervix alone unrealistic. *5 cm* - While **5 cm is within the upper range** of normal cervical length, it is longer than the typical average. - Cervical length can vary between 3-5 cm in healthy women, but **3-4 cm is most commonly cited** as the standard reference. *7 cm* - A cervical length of **7 cm is longer than normal** and would be considered abnormally elongated. - This measurement approximates the entire uterine length (fundus to external os), not just the cervix.
Question 512: A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gonorrhea. What is the most appropriate management approach?
- A. Defer treatment until post-partum
- B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate for 7 days
- C. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose (Correct Answer)
- D. Azithromycin 2g oral single dose
Explanation: ***Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose*** - **Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM** is the recommended first-line treatment for **uncomplicated gonorrhea** in pregnant women according to current CDC guidelines. - This dose is safe and effective during pregnancy and provides adequate coverage to eradicate *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*. - A **single intramuscular dose** is sufficient to treat the infection and prevent complications such as **ophthalmia neonatorum** and **disseminated gonococcal infection** in the neonate. *Defer treatment until post-partum* - Deferring treatment would put the fetus at significant risk for **ophthalmia neonatorum** and **disseminated gonococcal infection** during delivery. - Untreated maternal gonorrhea can also lead to **premature rupture of membranes**, **preterm labor**, and **chorioamnionitis**. - Prompt treatment is crucial to prevent these severe maternal and neonatal complications. *Amoxicillin-clavulanate for 7 days* - **Amoxicillin-clavulanate** is not effective against *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* due to widespread resistance. - This combination is more commonly used for bacterial infections like **otitis media**, **sinusitis**, or **urinary tract infections**. - It is not the recommended antibiotic for gonorrhea treatment. *Azithromycin 2g oral single dose* - While **azithromycin** is used in combination with ceftriaxone for **presumptive coinfection with chlamydia**, it is not recommended as monotherapy for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance. - A 2g oral dose can cause significant **gastrointestinal side effects** including nausea and diarrhea. - Monotherapy with azithromycin has unacceptably high failure rates for gonorrhea treatment.
Question 513: A pregnant woman at 32 weeks presents with recurrent bacterial vaginosis despite multiple treatments. She has history of preterm labor in previous pregnancy. Current symptoms include discharge and burning. Partner is untreated. Which management approach is most appropriate?
- A. Topical azole cream only
- B. Single dose metronidazole with observation
- C. Extended oral clindamycin with probiotics (Correct Answer)
- D. Delay treatment until postpartum
Explanation: ***Extended oral clindamycin with probiotics*** - Given the **recurrent BV** and history of **preterm labor**, an extended course of oral clindamycin (or metronidazole) is the most appropriate management to eradicate the infection and reduce risk of preterm birth. - **Extended/suppressive therapy** (typically 10-14 days followed by twice weekly suppression) is recommended for recurrent BV in pregnancy, especially with preterm labor history. - **Probiotics** (particularly Lactobacillus) may help restore healthy vaginal flora and reduce recurrence, though evidence is mixed. - **Partner treatment is NOT routinely recommended** for BV as studies show it does not reduce recurrence rates. *Topical azole cream only* - **Topical azole creams** are used for fungal infections (candidiasis), not bacterial vaginosis. - This treatment would be **ineffective** against BV and would not address the serious risk of preterm birth. *Single dose metronidazole with observation* - A **single dose of metronidazole** is insufficient for recurrent bacterial vaginosis and does not provide adequate suppression. - Given the history of **preterm labor**, extended/suppressive therapy rather than mere observation is essential to prevent recurrence and complications. *Delay treatment until postpartum* - **Delaying treatment** is inappropriate and dangerous given the **recurrent BV** and history of **preterm labor**. - Untreated BV during pregnancy significantly increases the risk of **preterm birth**, premature rupture of membranes, and chorioamnionitis.
Question 514: A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician for an initial prenatal visit at 13 weeks' gestation. She has had episodic headaches over the past month. She has no history of serious illness. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F) and pulse is 90/min. Repeated measurements show a blood pressure of 138/95 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 13-week gestation. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Urinalysis is within normal limits. Serum creatinine is 0.8 mg/dL, serum ALT is 19 U/L, and platelet count is 210,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely condition in this patient?
- A. Eclampsia
- B. High normal blood pressure
- C. Chronic hypertension (Correct Answer)
- D. Gestational hypertension
- E. Preeclampsia
Explanation: ***Chronic hypertension*** - The patient has **elevated blood pressure (138/95 mm Hg)** detected at her initial prenatal visit at **13 weeks' gestation**, which is **prior to 20 weeks**, a key diagnostic criterion for chronic hypertension in pregnancy. - Importantly, there are **no signs of proteinuria or other end-organ damage**, ruling out preeclampsia, and the early presentation points away from gestational hypertension. *Eclampsia* - Eclampsia is defined by the development of **grand mal seizures** in a woman with preeclampsia, which is absent in this patient. - It usually occurs after 20 weeks' gestation and involves more severe symptoms and complications than seen here. *High normal blood pressure* - **High normal blood pressure** (e.g., 120-129 / <80 mm Hg) is a lower range than the patient's readings of 138/95 mm Hg, which is clearly stage 1 hypertension. - This term does not accurately describe the patient's elevated blood pressure readings which meet diagnostic criteria for hypertension. *Gestational hypertension* - Gestational hypertension is characterized by **new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation** in the absence of proteinuria or other end-organ damage. - This patient's elevated blood pressure was noted at **13 weeks' gestation**, making gestational hypertension an unlikely diagnosis. *Preeclampsia* - Preeclampsia involves **new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation** with proteinuria or signs of end-organ dysfunction (e.g., elevated creatinine, transaminases, low platelets). - This patient is at **13 weeks' gestation** and has no proteinuria or other signs of organ compromise, ruling out preeclampsia.
Question 515: Double decidual sign is seen in?
- A. Pseudo gestational sac
- B. Threatened Abortion
- C. Uterine gestational sac (Correct Answer)
- D. Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation: ***Uterine gestational sac*** - The **double decidual sign** is a normal sonographic finding in early **intrauterine pregnancies**, representing the interface between the decidua capsularis and the decidua parietalis/vera. - It indicates a **viable intrauterine pregnancy** and helps differentiate it from a pseudogestational sac or ectopic pregnancy. *Pseudo gestational sac* - A pseudogestational sac is a collection of fluid within the **endometrial cavity** associated with an ectopic pregnancy. - It typically lacks the **double decidual sign** and may show internal echoes or irregular shape. *Threatened Abortion* - While it involves an intrauterine pregnancy, a threatened abortion is characterized by **vaginal bleeding** and/or mild cramping, with a closed cervix. - The presence of a **double decidual sign** confirms an intrauterine gestation but does not rule out the threat of abortion, as the viability is assessed by the presence of a fetal pole and heart activity. *Ectopic pregnancy* - An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in the **fallopian tubes**. - It will **not show a double decidual sign** within the uterus, although a pseudogestational sac might be present.
Question 516: Which of the following is the most sensitive and specific test during antenatal check-up for a pregnant lady with family history of Thalassemia?
- A. P. smear and reticulocyte count
- B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
- C. High performance liquid chromatography (Correct Answer)
- D. NESTROFT
Explanation: ***High performance liquid chromatography*** - **HPLC** is considered the most sensitive and specific test for diagnosing thalassemia and other hemoglobinopathies due to its ability to accurately quantify different hemoglobin fractions. - It provides a detailed **hemoglobin profile**, allowing for precise identification of abnormal hemoglobins and accurate assessment of thalassemia carrier status. *P. smear and reticulocyte count* - A **peripheral smear** can show microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells, which are characteristic of thalassemia, but this finding is not specific. - A **reticulocyte count** can indicate increased red blood cell production, but it is a general indicator of hemolysis or bone marrow activity and not specific for thalassemia. *Hemoglobin electrophoresis* - **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** separates different hemoglobin types based on their electrical charge, which is useful for identifying hemoglobinopathies. - While it can detect abnormal hemoglobins, its resolution and quantitative accuracy are generally lower than that of HPLC, making it less sensitive for detecting subtle variations or quantifying small amounts of abnormal hemoglobin. *NESTROFT* - **NESTROFT** (Naked eye single tube red cell osmotic fragility test) is a screening test used to detect beta-thalassemia carriers by assessing red cell osmotic fragility. - It is a good, inexpensive screening tool but lacks the sensitivity and specificity of definitive diagnostic tests like HPLC, and positive results require confirmation with other methods.
Question 517: A lady with 12-week pregnancy presents with bleeding. On examination, vagina is normal, internal os is closed, and USG shows fetal viability with fundal height of 13 weeks. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Incomplete abortion
- B. Complete abortion
- C. Inevitable abortion
- D. Threatened abortion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Threatened abortion*** - This diagnosis is characterized by **vaginal bleeding** in the first half of pregnancy with a **closed internal os** and evidence of fetal viability on ultrasound. - The fundal height being consistent with gestational age also indicates ongoing pregnancy, despite the bleeding. *Inevitable abortion* - This condition is indicated by vaginal bleeding accompanied by a **dilated cervix (open internal os)**, suggesting that the pregnancy cannot be salvaged. - While bleeding is present, the **closed internal os** in the given scenario rules out inevitable abortion. *Incomplete abortion* - This involves vaginal bleeding, an **open internal os**, and the **partial expulsion of pregnancy tissue**, with some products of conception remaining in the uterus. - The presentation does not include an open os or retained products of conception, as the fetus is viable and the os is closed. *Complete abortion* - This occurs when **all products of conception have been expelled** from the uterus, characterized by an initially open os that subsequently closes, and often a decrease in bleeding. - The presence of a **viable fetus** and a closed os clearly rules out a complete abortion.
Question 518: EDD ( Expected Date of Delivery) is calculated by:
- A. Cardiff Formula
- B. McDonald's rule
- C. Hadlock Formula
- D. Naegele's formula (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Naegele's formula*** - **Naegele's formula** is the most common and widely accepted method for calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD). - It involves adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the **first day of the last menstrual period (LMP)**. *Cardiff Formula* - The **Cardiff Formula** is a method used for assessing fetal movements, particularly for monitoring fetal well-being, not for calculating EDD. - It establishes a baseline of fetal movements over a specific period to detect any significant decrease. *McDonald's rule* - **McDonald's rule** is a clinical method used to estimate the gestational age based on fundal height measurements. - While it helps in estimating gestational age, it is not primarily used for calculating the precise EDD. *Hadlock Formula* - The **Hadlock Formula** refers to a set of widely used ultrasound-based formulas for estimating fetal weight and gestational age, typically involving biometry measurements like BPD, HC, AC, and FL. - While accurate for gestational age estimation, it's an imaging-based method, not a direct calculation of EDD from the LMP like Naegele's.
Question 519: What is the Triple screen test (Triple marker test)?
- A. HCG + AFP + PAPP-A
- B. AFP + Uric acid + LDH
- C. HCG + AFP + Placental alkaline phosphatase
- D. HCG + AFP + Unconjugated Estriol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***HCG + AFP + Unconjugated Estriol*** - A BA test, more commonly known as the **triple screen**, measures **human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)**, **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)**, and **unconjugated estriol (uE3)**. - This prenatal screening test is used to assess the risk of certain **chromosomal abnormalities** (like Down syndrome) and **neural tube defects** during pregnancy. *AFP + Uric acid + LDH* - This combination of markers is **not a standard prenatal screening test** for chromosomal abnormalities; **uric acid** and **LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)** are general markers for liver damage or cell turnover. - While **AFP** is part of prenatal screening, its combination with **uric acid** and **LDH** does not constitute the BA test. *HCG + AFP + PAPP-A* - This combination represents components of the **first-trimester combined test**, specifically **HCG**, **AFP** (though typically used in the second trimester), and **Pregnancy-Associated Plasma Protein-A (PAPP-A)**. - While useful for prenatal screening, the BA test (triple screen) specifically includes **unconjugated estriol** rather than PAPP-A in the primary second-trimester panel. *HCG + AFP + Placental alkaline phosphatase* - While **HCG** and **AFP** are part of prenatal screening, **placental alkaline phosphatase** is **not a standard component** of the BA test (triple screen). - Placental alkaline phosphatase can be elevated in various conditions but is not routinely measured for the same purposes as unconjugated estriol in prenatal screening.
Question 520: Which of the following is the MOST accurate test for detecting neural tube defects?
- A. USG (Correct Answer)
- B. Placentography
- C. Chromosomal analysis
- D. Amniocentesis
Explanation: ***USG (Ultrasound)*** - **High-resolution ultrasound** is the **gold standard and most accurate imaging modality** for detecting **neural tube defects (NTDs)** due to its ability to directly visualize anatomical structures of the fetus. - **Diagnostic accuracy**: Detection rate >95% for anencephaly and 80-90% for open spina bifida with targeted anomaly scan at 18-20 weeks. - Can identify specific features such as **lemon sign** (frontal bone scalloping), **banana sign** (cerebellar compression), direct visualization of **spina bifida**, **anencephaly**, or **encephalocele**. - **Non-invasive, safe, and widely available**, making it the primary diagnostic tool in clinical practice. *Amniocentesis* - **Amniocentesis** measures **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** and **acetylcholinesterase (AChE)** in amniotic fluid, which are elevated in open NTDs. - While highly accurate as a **confirmatory test** (near 99% sensitivity with both markers), it is **invasive** with risk of miscarriage (0.1-0.3%). - Used primarily when ultrasound findings are **equivocal** or for **biochemical confirmation**, not as the first-line diagnostic test. - In modern practice, ultrasound has largely replaced amniocentesis for NTD diagnosis due to superior imaging technology. *Chromosomal analysis* - **Chromosomal analysis** (karyotyping) detects **chromosomal abnormalities** like trisomies (Down syndrome, Edwards syndrome). - NTDs are **structural malformations**, not chromosomal abnormalities, though some chromosomal disorders may have associated structural defects. - Does not directly diagnose NTDs. *Placentography* - **Placentography** is used to localize the **placenta** in cases of suspected **placenta previa** or for guiding invasive procedures. - Provides no information about **fetal anatomy** and is not used for detecting NTDs.
Practice by Chapter
Preconception Counseling
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Pregnancy Diagnosis and Dating
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Routine Antenatal Assessments
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Maternal Physiological Changes
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Nutrition in Pregnancy
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Screening Tests in Pregnancy
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Fetal Growth Assessment
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High-Risk Pregnancy Identification
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Antenatal Complications Management
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Psychosocial Aspects of Pregnancy
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