Prenatal Care — MCQs

Prenatal Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 471: What is the most common complication of urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy?

A. Chorioamnionitis
B. Miscarriage
C. Preterm labor (Correct Answer)
D. Neonatal mortality

Explanation: ***Preterm labor*** - Asymptomatic bacteriuria and symptomatic UTIs (especially **pyelonephritis**) are strongly associated with an increased risk of **preterm labor** and subsequent **preterm delivery**, making it the most common serious complication. - The systemic inflammatory response caused by the infection triggers the release of **prostaglandins** and **cytokines**, which stimulate uterine contractility and lead to cervical changes. *Miscarriage* - While severe infections associated with high fever (like pyelonephritis) *can* increase the risk, miscarriage is primarily a first-trimester event and is a less direct and less common complication of routine UTI than late-pregnancy preterm labor. - The pathogenesis of UTI complications is more focused on the inflammatory pathway that induces uterine irritability rather than primarily affecting early embryonic development. *Chorioamnionitis* - **Chorioamnionitis** (infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid) is a severe complication of ascending infection, but it is less frequently observed than the generalized inflammatory state leading to **preterm labor/delivery**. - This condition is more commonly associated with prolonged rupture of membranes or infections originating from the lower genital tract rather than purely from the urinary tract. *Neonatal mortality* - **Neonatal mortality** is a severe *outcome* or consequence, usually resulting from the preceding complication of **preterm birth** or associated **neonatal sepsis**. - The direct and most common maternal complication that obstetricians aim to prevent by screening and treating UTIs is **preterm labor/delivery**.

Question 472: A woman comes to the clinic with breast tenderness, presence of linea nigra on her abdomen, and a bluish discoloration of the cervix. What is the most likely clinical interpretation of these findings?

A. Normal menstrual cycle
B. Probable pregnancy (Correct Answer)
C. Menopause
D. Confirmed pregnancy

Explanation: ***Probable pregnancy*** - The presence of **linea nigra** (hyperpigmentation) and **breast tenderness** are classic **presumptive signs** of pregnancy due to hormonal elevation. - **Bluish discoloration of the cervix** (known as **Chadwick's sign**) is a vascular phenomenon and a **probable sign** of pregnancy detected upon examination. *Confirmed pregnancy* - This diagnosis requires **positive definitive signs**, such as documentation of **fetal heart tones**, visualization of the fetus via **ultrasound**, or perceiving **fetal movement** by the examiner. - The signs mentioned (Chadwick's sign, linea nigra) are categorized as presumptive or probable, thus not yet meeting the criteria for **confirmed pregnancy**. *Normal menstrual cycle* - While breast tenderness (**mastalgia**) can occur in the luteal phase, the presence of **Chadwick's sign** (bluish cervix) and **linea nigra** is not typical of a regular menstrual cycle. - These specific vascular and hyperpigmentation changes are driven by high levels of **estrogen** and **progesterone** seen in pregnancy. *Menopause* - **Menopause** involves the cessation of menses and is characterized by low estrogen levels, leading to symptoms like **hot flashes** and potentially changes like **vaginal atrophy**. - It does not cause generalized **hyperpigmentation** like **linea nigra** or the marked vascular congestion required for the development of Chadwick's sign.

Question 473: A woman presents for her first antenatal visit and reports that her LMP was approximately 2 months ago. Which ultrasound parameter is the most accurate for dating the pregnancy at this stage?

A. Abdominal circumference
B. Biparietal diameter
C. Crown-rump length (Correct Answer)
D. Mean gestational sac diameter

Explanation: ***Crown-rump length*** - The **Crown-rump length (CRL)** is the most accurate single measurement for establishing gestational age during the first trimester (up to **13 weeks 6 days**). - It is highly reliable because the biological variation in fetal growth rate is minimal before the end of the first trimester, providing an accuracy of about **± 5 to 7 days**. *Biparietal diameter* - **Biparietal diameter (BPD)** is primarily used for dating in the second and third trimesters. - Its accuracy is lower than CRL in the first trimester, and its reliability decreases later in pregnancy due to variation in fetal head shape (**dolichocephaly** or **brachycephaly**). *Mean gestational sac diameter* - The **Mean gestational sac diameter (MSD)** is the preferred parameter only in the earliest stages (around 5 weeks) before the fetal pole/embryo is reliably visualized on ultrasound. - Once the embryo is visible, CRL supersedes MSD as the measurement for dating, as MSD only correlates roughly with gestational age. *Abdominal circumference* - **Abdominal circumference (AC)** is the least accurate measurement for dating the pregnancy. - AC is mainly used in the second and third trimesters to evaluate **fetal growth and weight estimation**, as it is highly prone to variation based on nutritional status.

Question 474: What is the clinical sign elicited?

A. Piskacek's sign
B. Hegar's sign (Correct Answer)
C. Goodell's sign
D. Osiander sign

Explanation: ***Hegar's sign*** - The image depicts the palpation technique for **Hegar's sign**, where the **lower uterine segment** is felt to be soft and compressible between two fingers during a bimanual examination. - This softening is an early sign of **pregnancy**, typically appearing around 6-8 weeks of gestation. *Piskacek's sign* - This sign involves **asymmetrical enlargement** of the uterus due to implantation of the gestational sac near one of the uterine horns. - It is felt as a **softening and slight bulge** on one side of the fundus, which is not what is shown in the image. *Goodell's sign* - Refers to the **softening of the cervix** due to increased vascularity, a classic early sign of pregnancy. - This sign is detected by palpating the cervix, which is distinct from the uterine body examination shown. *Osiander sign* - This sign is characterized by increased **pulsation of the vaginal arteries** detected on bimanual examination. - While also an early sign of pregnancy, it specifically relates to arterial pulsation rather than the softening of the lower uterine segment.

Question 475: The commonest ovarian tumour seen during pregnancy is:

A. Endometrioma
B. Benign cystic teratoma (Correct Answer)
C. Mucinous cystadenoma
D. Adenocarcinoma ovary

Explanation: ***Benign cystic teratoma*** - **Benign cystic teratomas (dermoid cysts)** are the most common ovarian tumors found during pregnancy, often identified incidentally on ultrasound. - They are typically asymptomatic but can lead to complications like **torsion** due to their weight and composition. *Endometrioma* - Endometriomas are **cysts formed from endometrial tissue** outside the uterus, and while not uncommon, they are not the leading type of ovarian tumor discovered during pregnancy. - While endometriomas can be seen in pregnancy, their incidence is lower than that of dermoid cysts, and they might even decrease in size during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - Mucinous cystadenomas are **benign epithelial ovarian tumors** and can be quite large, but they are less frequently encountered in pregnancy compared to benign cystic teratomas. - These tumors are characterized by their **mucus-filled** nature and are less common causes of adnexal masses in pregnant women. *Adenocarcinoma ovary* - **Ovarian adenocarcinoma** is a malignant tumor and, while serious, is rare in pregnancy, especially compared to benign ovarian masses. - The discovery of a malignant ovarian mass during pregnancy requires careful management due to potential risks to both the mother and the fetus.

Question 476: Chadwick's sign describes :

A. regular and rhythmic uterine contraction which can be elicited during bimanual examination at 4-8 weeks of pregnancy
B. softening of cervix at 6th week of pregnancy
C. the abdominal and vaginal fingers apposed below the body of the uterus during bimanual examination
D. the dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***the dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy*** - **Chadwick's sign** is a **bluish-purple discoloration** of the **vagina and cervix** due to increased vascularity, typically observed around 6-8 weeks of gestation. - This increased blood flow to the pelvic organs is an early sign of **pregnancy**. *regular and rhythmic uterine contraction which can be elicited during bimanual examination at 4-8 weeks of pregnancy* - This describes **Braxton Hicks contractions**, which are irregular, often painless contractions that occur throughout pregnancy, not typically as early as 4-8 weeks as a diagnostic sign. - While the uterus does contract, **Chadwick's sign** specifically refers to the vascular changes leading to discoloration, not uterine contractions. *softening of cervix at 6th week of pregnancy* - This phenomenon is known as **Hegar's sign** or **Goodell's sign**, which refers to the softening of the **cervix** and the **isthmus of the uterus** respectively in early pregnancy. - **Chadwick's sign** is distinct and refers to the characteristic **bluish discoloration** rather than cervical texture. *the abdominal and vaginal fingers apposed below the body of the uterus during bimanual examination* - This maneuver describes part of a **bimanual examination** used to assess uterine size and consistency, and is related to **Hegar's sign**. - It does not describe **Chadwick's sign**, which is a visual sign of discoloration due to increased blood flow.

Question 477: Which of the following vaccines can be given to a pregnant woman ? 1. COVID vaccine 2. Measles, Mumps, Rubella vaccine 3. Hepatitis B vaccine 4. Rabies vaccine Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: ***1, 3 and 4*** The vaccines that can be safely given during pregnancy are: - **COVID-19 vaccine** (mRNA or inactivated virus) is recommended for pregnant women to protect against severe illness. It has been shown to be safe and effective, and provides passive immunity to the newborn. - **Hepatitis B vaccine** is safe during pregnancy as it is an inactivated vaccine. Vaccination can provide protection for both the mother and the newborn, preventing vertical transmission. - **Rabies vaccine** (inactivated) is given in situations of exposure to rabies, as the risk of rabies infection (which is almost 100% fatal) far outweighs any theoretical risk from the vaccine during pregnancy. *1, 2 and 3* This option incorrectly includes the **Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine**, which is a live attenuated vaccine and is **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to the theoretical risk of congenital infection. While COVID-19 and Hepatitis B vaccines are safe, the inclusion of MMR makes this option incorrect. *2, 3 and 4* This option is incorrect because the **Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine** is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. Women should be counseled to avoid pregnancy for at least 4 weeks after receiving MMR vaccine. Hepatitis B and Rabies vaccines are safe, but the presence of MMR makes this choice incorrect. *1, 2 and 4* This option incorrectly includes the **Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine**, which is a live attenuated vaccine and should not be given to pregnant women. COVID-19 and Rabies vaccines are safe in pregnancy, but the contraindication for MMR makes this selection incorrect.

Question 478: The daily requirement of iron during second half of pregnancy is :

A. 2 mg per day
B. 20 mg per day
C. 6 mg per day (Correct Answer)
D. 10 mg per day

Explanation: ***6 mg per day*** - This represents the **additional absorbed elemental iron** required during the second half of pregnancy (beyond the non-pregnant requirement of ~1-2 mg/day). - The increased demand is due to **fetal growth** (300-400 mg total), **placental development** (50-75 mg), **expansion of maternal red cell mass** (450 mg), and **blood loss at delivery** (150-250 mg). - **Important distinction**: This is the *absorbed* requirement. Since iron absorption from the gut is only 10-20%, the actual **oral supplementation** recommended is much higher: **100-200 mg of elemental iron daily** (as per WHO/ICMR guidelines). - In India, the standard National Iron+ Initiative provides **100 mg elemental iron + 500 mcg folic acid** daily during pregnancy. *2 mg per day* - This represents approximately the **basal iron requirement** for non-pregnant women, which is insufficient for pregnancy. - Would lead to **severe maternal iron-deficiency anemia** and poor fetal outcomes. *20 mg per day* - While higher than baseline, this is still insufficient as absorbed iron requirement. - However, this could represent a fraction of the therapeutic supplementation dose. *10 mg per day* - This exceeds the absorbed requirement but is far below the recommended **oral supplementation dose** of 100-200 mg. - Reflects neither the absorbed requirement nor the standard supplementation protocol. **Clinical Pearl**: When discussing iron in pregnancy, always clarify whether referring to *absorbed* iron (5-6 mg/day additional) or *supplemental* oral iron (100-200 mg/day).

Question 479: Which of the following is NOT a component of the combined prenatal screening test in the first trimester?

A. 1. β-hCG
B. 2. MS AFP (α-Fetoprotein) (Correct Answer)
C. 4. PAPP-A
D. 3. Nuchal translucency

Explanation: ***2. MS AFP (α-Fetoprotein)*** - **MS AFP (maternal serum α-Fetoprotein)** is primarily used in the **second-trimester screening** (quad screen or triple screen) to detect **neural tube defects** and certain chromosomal abnormalities. - It is **NOT part of the first-trimester combined screening test**. - The first trimester combined screening is performed between **11-13+6 weeks** of gestation. *1. β-hCG* - **β-hCG** (beta-human chorionic gonadotropin) is a key biochemical marker used in the first-trimester combined screening. - Abnormal levels of **β-hCG** (elevated in Down syndrome, decreased in Trisomy 18) are integrated with other markers to calculate risk for chromosomal abnormalities. *3. Nuchal translucency* - **Nuchal translucency (NT)** measurement is a crucial ultrasound marker used in the first-trimester combined screening test. - Increased NT thickness (≥3.5 mm) is associated with a higher risk of **aneuploidies** (Down syndrome, Trisomy 18, Trisomy 13) and certain structural cardiac defects. *4. PAPP-A* - **PAPP-A** (Pregnancy-Associated Plasma Protein-A) is a biochemical marker included in the first-trimester combined screening. - Low levels of **PAPP-A** are associated with an increased risk of Down syndrome and other adverse pregnancy outcomes.

Question 480: The first-line drug for intrapartum prophylaxis against Group β Streptococcal (GBS) infection in pregnancy is

A. penicillin (Correct Answer)
B. doxycycline
C. vancomycin
D. azithromycin

Explanation: ***penicillin*** - **Penicillin G** is the drug of choice for intrapartum GBS prophylaxis due to its **narrow spectrum** and proven efficacy in preventing neonatal GBS disease. - It rapidly achieves bactericidal concentrations in the amniotic fluid, effectively eradicating GBS from the maternal genital tract during labor. *doxycycline* - **Doxycycline** is a **tetracycline antibiotic** generally contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential adverse effects on fetal bone and tooth development. - It is not effective against GBS and is not used for its treatment or prophylaxis in pregnant women. *vancomycin* - **Vancomycin** is reserved for pregnant women with **severe penicillin allergy** (e.g., anaphylaxis) or isolates with known resistance to penicillin and clindamycin. - Its use is limited due to the need for intravenous administration and potential for ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity. *azithromycin* - **Azithromycin** is sometimes used for GBS prophylaxis in cases of penicillin allergy but is **less preferred** than clindamycin due to emerging GBS resistance. - It is not considered a first-line agent, and susceptibility testing is crucial if it is considered for use.

Practice by Chapter

Preconception Counseling

Practice Questions

Pregnancy Diagnosis and Dating

Practice Questions

Routine Antenatal Assessments

Practice Questions

Maternal Physiological Changes

Practice Questions

Nutrition in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Screening Tests in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Fetal Growth Assessment

Practice Questions

High-Risk Pregnancy Identification

Practice Questions

Antenatal Complications Management

Practice Questions

Psychosocial Aspects of Pregnancy

Practice Questions

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