Psychological Aspects of Chronic Pain — MCQs
Double depression is seen in:
A 30-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge and lower abdominal pain for 10 days. Examination reveals cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness. Laboratory tests show elevated WBC count. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen?
Long-standing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) may lead to which of the following complications?
A 10-year-old boy cuts his finger with a pocketknife and immediately applies pressure to the damaged area with his other hand to partially alleviate the pain. Inhibition of pain signals by tactile stimulation of the skin is mediated by which type of afferent neurons from mechanoreceptors?
Best therapy suited to teach daily life skills to a child with intellectual disability:
A patient has dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea with adnexal tenderness. What is the first step of investigation?
Which of the following is the primary neurotransmitter involved in the transmission of pain signals in the spinal cord?
Violin string adhesion is seen in ?
A patient complains to a physician of chronic pain and tingling of the buttocks. The pain is exacerbated when the buttocks are compressed by sitting on a toilet seat or chair for long periods. No lumbar pain is noted. Pain is elicited when the physician performs Freiberg&;s maneuver. Most likely diagnosis
A patient has recurrent abdominal pain and jaundice. The blood investigations reveal reticulocytosis and hyperbilirubinemia. What is the clinical diagnosis?
Psychological Aspects of Chronic Pain Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Double depression is seen in:
- A. Depression with dysthymia (Correct Answer)
- B. Depression with anxiety attack
- C. Major depression with OCD
- D. Major depressive disorder from 2 years
Explanation: ***Depression with dysthymia*** - **Double depression** is a specific mood disorder characterized by the co-occurrence of a **major depressive episode** on top of a pre-existing **dysthymic disorder** (persistent depressive disorder). - This means an individual experiences the chronic, milder symptoms of dysthymia, which are then worsened by the more severe symptoms of a major depressive episode. *Depression with anxiety attack* - While depression and anxiety attacks can co-occur, this specific combination is not referred to as **double depression**. - **Anxiety attacks** are acute episodes of intense fear and discomfort, often associated with panic disorder, and are distinct from chronic low-grade depressive symptoms. *Major depression with OCD* - **Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)** is a distinct anxiety disorder characterized by obsessions and compulsions, which can co-occur with major depression. - However, the term **double depression** specifically refers to the combination of major depression and dysthymia, not other psychiatric comorbidities. *Major depressive disorder from 2 years* - Experiencing **major depressive disorder for 2 years** implies a chronic course of major depression. - If the symptoms meet the criteria for major depressive disorder continuously for at least two years, it might be termed **chronic major depressive disorder**, but not double depression, unless there was an underlying dysthymia.
Question 2: A 30-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge and lower abdominal pain for 10 days. Examination reveals cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness. Laboratory tests show elevated WBC count. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen?
- A. Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline (Correct Answer)
- B. Doxycycline plus metronidazole
- C. Azithromycin plus metronidazole
- D. Ciprofloxacin plus clindamycin
Explanation: ***Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline*** - This combination provides broad-spectrum coverage against common causative agents of **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**, including *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* (covered by ceftriaxone) and *Chlamydia trachomatis* (covered by doxycycline). - The patient's symptoms of vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness, and elevated WBC count are highly suggestive of PID, necessitating empiric treatment for these infections. *Doxycycline plus metronidazole* - While doxycycline is effective against *Chlamydia trachomatis*, metronidazole primarily targets **anaerobic bacteria** and *Trichomonas vaginalis*. - This regimen lacks adequate coverage for **gonococcal infections**, which are a significant cause of PID and require a cephalosporin. *Azithromycin plus metronidazole* - Azithromycin can treat *Chlamydia trachomatis*, but it has **inferior efficacy against gonococcal infections** compared to ceftriaxone. - Metronidazole, as mentioned, addresses anaerobic bacteria but doesn't provide the necessary broad coverage for other common PID pathogens. *Ciprofloxacin plus clindamycin* - Ciprofloxacin has declining efficacy against **gonorrhea** due to increasing resistance and is generally not recommended as first-line therapy for PID without susceptibility testing. - Clindamycin primarily covers anaerobic bacteria and some gram-positive organisms but does not adequately target *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* or *Chlamydia trachomatis*.
Question 3: Long-standing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) may lead to which of the following complications?
- A. Uterine polyposis
- B. Hydrosalpinx (Correct Answer)
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Asherman syndrome
Explanation: ***Hydrosalpinx*** - **Hydrosalpinx** is a condition where the fallopian tube is blocked and filled with serous fluid, representing the **end-stage of chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**. - Chronic inflammation from **repeated or inadequately treated PID** causes damage to the tubal epithelium, loss of fimbrial function, and **adhesions that seal the distal end of the tube**. - This leads to accumulation of sterile transudate within the obstructed tube, creating a **fluid-filled, dilated fallopian tube**. - It is a major cause of **tubal factor infertility** and increased risk of **ectopic pregnancy**. - Classic imaging finding: **sausage-shaped cystic structure** on ultrasound. *Uterine polyposis* - **Endometrial polyps** are benign growths arising from the endometrium, typically associated with **unopposed estrogen stimulation** or hormonal imbalances. - They are **not a complication of chronic PID** but rather a proliferative endometrial disorder. - Common causes include obesity, tamoxifen use, and perimenopause. *Asherman syndrome* - **Asherman syndrome** involves **intrauterine adhesions** (synechiae) causing partial or complete obliteration of the uterine cavity. - It typically results from **endometrial trauma** following procedures like **D&C (dilatation and curettage)**, particularly post-abortion or postpartum curettage. - While PID can cause adhesions, Asherman syndrome specifically refers to **intrauterine** adhesions, not a typical sequela of chronic PID, which primarily affects the **tubes and ovaries**. *Endometriosis* - **Endometriosis** is the presence of **endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity**, most commonly on ovaries, pelvic peritoneum, and uterosacral ligaments. - It is thought to result from **retrograde menstruation** (Sampson's theory) and genetic/immune factors. - It is **not caused by PID** but is a distinct pathological entity with different etiology and pathophysiology.
Question 4: A 10-year-old boy cuts his finger with a pocketknife and immediately applies pressure to the damaged area with his other hand to partially alleviate the pain. Inhibition of pain signals by tactile stimulation of the skin is mediated by which type of afferent neurons from mechanoreceptors?
- A. Aδ
- B. Type C
- C. Aβ (Correct Answer)
- D. Aα
Explanation: ***Aβ*** - **Aβ (A-beta) fibers** are large, myelinated afferent neurons that transmit discriminative touch and proprioception. - According to the **gate control theory of pain**, activation of these Aβ fibers by tactile stimulation can inhibit the transmission of pain signals (carried by Aδ and C fibers) in the spinal cord, explaining why rubbing an injured area can reduce pain. *Aδ* - **Aδ (A-delta) fibers** are thinly myelinated afferent neurons that transmit sharp, localized, and fast pain, as well as cold and touch. - While they are involved in pain transmission, they do not primarily mediate the inhibition of pain signals through tactile stimulation, but rather the initial painful sensation. *Type C* - **Type C fibers** are unmyelinated afferent neurons that transmit slow, dull, aching, and burning pain, as well as warmth and some touch. - These fibers are primarily responsible for the prolonged, chronic pain sensation and are inhibited by Aβ fiber activity, not the mediators of the pain inhibition themselves. *Aα* - **Aα (A-alpha) fibers** are the largest and fastest myelinated afferent neurons, primarily responsible for proprioception from muscle spindles (sensory information about muscle length and stretch), and motor innervation to extrafusal muscle fibers. - They are not directly involved in the tactile inhibition of pain signals.
Question 5: Best therapy suited to teach daily life skills to a child with intellectual disability:
- A. Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA) (Correct Answer)
- B. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
- C. Social skills training
- D. Self-instructional training
Explanation: **Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA)** - **ABA** is a highly structured, evidence-based therapy that focuses on teaching specific skills by breaking them down into smaller steps and using **positive reinforcement**. - It is particularly effective for children with intellectual disabilities in acquiring **adaptive daily living skills**, communication, and social behaviors. *Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)* - **CBT** primarily targets changing negative thought patterns and behaviors, requiring a level of abstract reasoning that may be challenging for children with significant intellectual disabilities. - While it can be adapted, its core methods rely on cognitive processes that might not be the most direct approach for teaching basic daily life skills to a mentally challenged child. *Social skills training* - **Social skills training** focuses specifically on improving social interactions and communication within social contexts. - While important for overall development, it is a subcomponent of broader skill development and may not directly address all aspects of **daily living skills** in a comprehensive manner. *Self-instructional training* - **Self-instructional training** involves teaching individuals to guide themselves through tasks using internal speech or self-talk, which relies on a child's ability to internalize and follow complex verbal instructions. - This approach might be too cognitively demanding for a child with significant developmental delays when the primary goal is mastering basic, functional daily life skills.
Question 6: A patient has dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea with adnexal tenderness. What is the first step of investigation?
- A. Colposcopy
- B. Diagnostic laparoscopy
- C. Transvaginal USG (Correct Answer)
- D. Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound
Explanation: ***Transvaginal USG*** - This is the **first-line investigation** for evaluating pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, and adnexal tenderness due to its ability to provide **high-resolution images** of the uterus, ovaries, and surrounding structures to identify potential pathology like **endometriomas** or other adnexal masses. - It allows for detailed assessment of **ovarian cysts**, fibroids, and other pelvic abnormalities, which can explain the patient's symptoms. *Colposcopy* - This procedure is primarily used to closely examine the **cervix, vagina, and vulva** for abnormal cells, often following an abnormal Pap test. - It is not the initial step for investigating generalized pelvic pain, dyspareunia, or adnexal tenderness. *Diagnostic laparoscopy* - While a **diagnostic laparoscopy** can provide a definitive diagnosis for conditions like **endometriosis**, it is an **invasive surgical procedure** and typically reserved for cases where non-invasive imaging, such as transvaginal ultrasound, has not yielded a clear diagnosis or when conservative management has failed. - It is not considered the first-step investigation due to its **invasive nature** and associated risks. *Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound* - A **transabdominal pelvic ultrasound** provides a broader view of the pelvic organs but often has **lower resolution** and is less accurate for detailed assessment of the uterus, ovaries, and adnexa compared to transvaginal ultrasound, especially in obese patients. - It is often used if a transvaginal ultrasound is not feasible or for assessing larger pelvic masses, but the **transvaginal approach** is superior for detailed evaluation of the female reproductive organs.
Question 7: Which of the following is the primary neurotransmitter involved in the transmission of pain signals in the spinal cord?
- A. Substance P (Correct Answer)
- B. Dopamine
- C. Serotonin
- D. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Explanation: ***Substance P*** - **Substance P** is a neuropeptide that plays a crucial role in the transmission of **nociceptive (pain) signals** from the periphery to the central nervous system, particularly in the **spinal cord**. - It is released by primary afferent neurons during painful stimuli and contributes to the sensation of pain and **neurogenic inflammation**. *Dopamine* - **Dopamine** is primarily involved in **reward**, motivation, motor control, and pleasure. - While dopamine can influence pain perception, it is not considered the primary neurotransmitter directly responsible for the **transmission of pain signals** in the spinal cord. *Serotonin* - **Serotonin (5-HT)** is involved in mood, sleep, appetite, and a wide range of other functions, including modulation of pain. - Although it can have both **pro-nociceptive and anti-nociceptive effects** depending on its receptor subtype and location, it is not the primary neurotransmitter for pain signal transmission. *Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)* - **GABA** is the main **inhibitory neurotransmitter** in the central nervous system, reducing neuronal excitability. - Its role in pain is primarily to **modulate and inhibit pain signals**, rather than to transmit them.
Question 8: Violin string adhesion is seen in ?
- A. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
- B. Endometriosis
- C. PCOS
- D. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome*** - **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome** is a perihepatitis characterized by inflammation of the liver capsule and adjacent peritoneal surfaces. - The classic "violin string" adhesions are **fibrinous adhesions** that form between the liver capsule and the anterior abdominal wall or diaphragm. *Ruptured ectopic pregnancy* - A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with acute abdominal pain and **hypovolemic shock** due to hemoperitoneum. - While it can cause pelvic adhesions, "violin string" adhesions are not a characteristic finding; the primary concern is **intra-abdominal hemorrhage**. *Endometriosis* - **Endometriosis** involves the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, causing pain, inflammation, and adhesions, especially in the pelvis. - While it does lead to adhesions, these are usually **dense and diffuse pelvic adhesions**, not the specific "violin string" pattern associated with the liver capsule. *PCOS* - **Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)** is an endocrine disorder characterized by hormonal imbalances, anovulation, and polycystic ovaries. - It primarily affects **ovarian function** and metabolism and does not directly cause adhesions in the abdominal cavity.
Question 9: A patient complains to a physician of chronic pain and tingling of the buttocks. The pain is exacerbated when the buttocks are compressed by sitting on a toilet seat or chair for long periods. No lumbar pain is noted. Pain is elicited when the physician performs Freiberg&;s maneuver. Most likely diagnosis
- A. Popliteus tendinitis
- B. Piriformis syndrome (Correct Answer)
- C. Disk compression of the sciatic nerve
- D. Fibromyalgia
Explanation: ***Piriformis syndrome*** - The presented symptoms, including **chronic pain and tingling of the buttocks exacerbated by sitting**, and particularly the positive **Freiberg's maneuver**, are classic indicators of **piriformis syndrome**. - **Freiburg's maneuver** involves forced internal rotation of the hip in flexion, which stretches the piriformis muscle and compresses the **sciatic nerve**, reproducing the patient's pain. *Popliteus tendinitis* - This condition affects the **popliteus muscle** and tendon, typically causing pain in the **posterolateral knee** during activities like running or downhill walking. - The symptoms described, such as **buttock pain and tingling**, are not characteristic of popliteus tendinitis. *Disk compression of the sciatic nerve* - While this can cause **sciatic nerve pain in the buttocks and leg**, it is usually associated with **lumbar pain** or a history of back trauma, which is explicitly stated as absent in this case. - The pain from **disc compression** often presents differently, with more prominent **radicular symptoms** extending down the leg, and may not be specifically exacerbated by sitting directly on the buttocks in the same manner as piriformis syndrome. *Fibromyalgia* - **Fibromyalgia** is a widespread chronic pain condition characterized by musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and tenderness in multiple **tender points** throughout the body. - It does not typically present with localized pain and tingling specifically in the buttocks exacerbated by sitting, nor would it be specifically provoked by **Freiberg's maneuver**.
Question 10: A patient has recurrent abdominal pain and jaundice. The blood investigations reveal reticulocytosis and hyperbilirubinemia. What is the clinical diagnosis?
- A. Hereditary spherocytosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Mirizzi's syndrome
- C. Sclerosing cholangitis
- D. Choledochal cyst
Explanation: ***Hereditary spherocytosis*** - The combination of **recurrent abdominal pain**, **jaundice**, **reticulocytosis**, and **hyperbilirubinemia** is highly suggestive of hereditary spherocytosis, which causes chronic hemolytic anemia [1, 3]. - **Jaundice** and **abdominal pain** can result from pigment gallstones (due to chronic hemolysis) and splenic enlargement, both common in this condition [2, 3]. *Mirizzi's syndrome* - Characterized by **extrinsic compression of the common hepatic duct** by a stone impacted in the cystic duct or gallbladder neck. - While it causes jaundice and abdominal pain, it does not typically present with **reticulocytosis** or **hemolysis** [1]. *Sclerosing cholangitis* - A chronic cholestatic liver disease characterized by **inflammation and fibrosis** of the bile ducts. - While it causes jaundice and abdominal pain, it is not associated with **reticulocytosis** or signs of **hemolysis** [1]. *Choledochal cyst* - A **congenital dilation of the bile ducts**, leading to recurrent abdominal pain, jaundice, and a palpable mass. - It does not involve **hemolysis** or **reticulocytosis**, making it less likely in this context.
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