Management of Multiple Gestation — MCQs
In twin pregnancies, what is the minimum percentage difference in size that indicates significant discordance?
In pregnancies complicated by intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) with otherwise reassuring fetal surveillance, what is the recommended gestational age for planned delivery to optimize neonatal outcomes?
A pregnant woman comes for a routine antenatal checkup. She had a history of a twin pregnancy one year ago. What is her gravida and para status?
A multigravida at term with a transverse lie and hand prolapse, along with a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is best managed by:
35 yr old primigravida conceived after IVF cycle attends obstetrics clinic with 38 weeks gestation. Her obstetric details reveal DiCho-DiAmn twins with 1st twin as breech. Her BP was 140/90 mmHg on 2 occasions with proteinuria +1. How will you manage this case?
Least common presentation of twins?
A USG (ultrasound) shows two babies, one of whom appears to be one month older than the other. What is the term for this condition?
A 29-year-old primigravida presents at 36 weeks of gestation with a transverse lie. What is the recommended management?
A pregnant patient, with a history of classical cesarean section in view of fetal growth retardation in the previous pregnancy, presents to you. She is currently at 35 weeks of gestation with breech presentation. What is the next step in management?
Which of the following are contra-indications to external cephalic version in antenatal management of breech presentation? 1. Antepartum haemorrhage 2. Multiple pregnancy 3. Reactive Non Stress Test 4. Severe oligohydramnios
Management of Multiple Gestation Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: In twin pregnancies, what is the minimum percentage difference in size that indicates significant discordance?
- A. 15% with the smaller twin as index
- B. 25% with the larger twin as index (Correct Answer)
- C. 25% with the smaller twin as index
- D. 15% with the larger twin as index
Explanation: ***25% with the larger twin as index*** - **Discordant growth** in twin pregnancies is clinically defined as a **25% or greater difference in estimated fetal weight**, calculated using the larger twin as the reference. - This threshold helps predict adverse outcomes related to **unequal placental sharing** or other growth restrictions. *15% with the larger twin as index* - A 15% difference in estimated fetal weight is generally considered **within the normal range** and does not typically indicate significant discordance warranting intervention. - While it represents a difference, it may not be substantial enough to result in increased fetal morbidity or mortality. *15% with the smaller twin as index* - Using the smaller twin as the index for comparison at 15% would likely **overestimate the prevalence of discordance**, as smaller twins naturally contribute to a larger percentage difference when used as the denominator. - This method is not the standard clinical practice for defining significant twin growth discordance. *25% with the smaller twin as index* - Similar to using the smaller twin as the index at 15%, calculating a 25% difference based on the smaller twin would lead to a **misrepresentation of significant discordance**. - The standard definition specifies using the **larger twin's estimated weight** as the denominator for percentage calculation.
Question 2: In pregnancies complicated by intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) with otherwise reassuring fetal surveillance, what is the recommended gestational age for planned delivery to optimize neonatal outcomes?
- A. 39 weeks
- B. 37 weeks
- C. 40 weeks
- D. 38 weeks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***38 weeks*** - For pregnancies complicated by **IUGR (Intrauterine Growth Restriction)** with reassuring fetal surveillance, planned delivery at **38-39 weeks** is recommended by **ACOG guidelines** to optimize neonatal outcomes. - Among the given options, **38 weeks** represents the earliest point in this recommended range, balancing the risks of continued intrauterine compromise with the risks of **prematurity** such as **respiratory distress syndrome**. - This timing is appropriate for **mild to moderate IUGR** without concerning Doppler findings or other complications. *39 weeks* - **39 weeks** is actually within the acceptable range (38-39 weeks) for IUGR delivery per current guidelines. - However, many obstetricians prefer **38 weeks** to minimize the risk of continued **fetal compromise** from **placental insufficiency**, making 38 weeks the more commonly cited benchmark. - The distinction between 38 and 39 weeks is nuanced and depends on individual case factors and surveillance findings. *37 weeks* - Delivery at **37 weeks** is considered **early term** and carries higher risk of **neonatal morbidities**, particularly **respiratory complications** and **hypoglycemia**. - This timing may be appropriate for **severe IUGR** with abnormal **umbilical artery Doppler** findings, **absent or reversed end-diastolic flow**, or other concerning features, but not for routine IUGR with reassuring surveillance. - It is not the standard recommendation for uncomplicated IUGR to optimize outcomes. *40 weeks* - Delivering at **40 weeks** in an IUGR pregnancy is **not recommended** due to increased risk of **stillbirth** and complications from ongoing **placental insufficiency**. - The risks of adverse outcomes escalate with expectant management beyond 38-39 weeks in IUGR pregnancies. - Minimal additional fetal growth occurs beyond this point while risks continue to increase.
Question 3: A pregnant woman comes for a routine antenatal checkup. She had a history of a twin pregnancy one year ago. What is her gravida and para status?
- A. G2P1 (Correct Answer)
- B. G2P3
- C. G2P2
- D. G2P0
Explanation: ***G2P1*** - **Gravida (G)** refers to the total number of confirmed pregnancies, regardless of outcome. This current pregnancy is her second, making her G2. - **Para (P)** denotes the number of pregnancies that have reached viability (typically 20 weeks gestation or more), producing one or more fetuses. Her previous twin pregnancy, regardless of the number of babies, counts as one para event. *G2P3* - While G2 is correct (current pregnancy + previous twin pregnancy), P3 would imply three separate birth events beyond viability, which is not supported by the history of one twin pregnancy. - The number of babies born in a single pregnancy beyond viability does not increase the 'P' count; it refers to the number of pregnancies carried to term. *G2P2* - G2 is correct, but P2 would mean she had two separate pregnancies that reached viability. She only had one previous pregnancy that reached viability (the twin pregnancy). - The para count is determined by the number of deliveries, not the number of fetuses delivered. *G2P0* - While G2 is correct, P0 would mean she has never carried a pregnancy to the point of viability. - Her history clearly states a twin pregnancy one year ago, indicating a previous pregnancy carried to term, making P0 incorrect.
Question 4: A multigravida at term with a transverse lie and hand prolapse, along with a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is best managed by:
- A. External cephalic version
- B. Cesarean delivery (Correct Answer)
- C. Breech delivery
- D. Internal podalic version
Explanation: ***Cesarean delivery*** - A **transverse lie** at term is a contraindication to vaginal delivery, as the fetus cannot pass through the birth canal in this orientation. - The presence of **hand prolapse** further complicates the situation, increasing the risk of umbilical cord prolapse and fetal distress, making cesarean section the safest option. *External cephalic version* - This procedure is performed to change a **breech or transverse lie** to a cephalic presentation, but it is typically done *before* term, usually between 36-37 weeks. - It is contraindicated once labor has started or with **membrane rupture** and fetal parts prolapsed, as is implied by hand prolapse in this term patient. *Breech delivery* - Breech delivery involves the fetus presenting buttocks or feet first, which is not the case here; the presentation is **transverse lie** and **hand prolapse**. - While some breech deliveries can be attempted vaginally under specific circumstances, this patient's presentation makes it an inappropriate option. *Internal podalic version* - This procedure involves changing a **transverse lie** to a **breech presentation** by internal manipulation, often performed in cases of twin delivery for the second twin or in specific scenarios of malpresentation in earlier gestations. - It is rarely performed for a single fetus at term due to risks for both mother and fetus, especially with a **term fetus** and **hand prolapse**.
Question 5: 35 yr old primigravida conceived after IVF cycle attends obstetrics clinic with 38 weeks gestation. Her obstetric details reveal DiCho-DiAmn twins with 1st twin as breech. Her BP was 140/90 mmHg on 2 occasions with proteinuria +1. How will you manage this case?
- A. Plan a cesarean for termination (Correct Answer)
- B. Induction of labour
- C. Watch for BP and induce for normal delivery on Expected Date of delivery
- D. Watch for BP and terminate (vaginal/ Cesarean) only when BP is normal.
Explanation: ***Plan a cesarean for termination*** - This patient presents with **preeclampsia** (BP 140/90 mmHg on two occasions with proteinuria +1) at **38 weeks gestation**, making delivery appropriate. - The presence of **DiCho-DiAmn twins** with the **first twin in breech presentation** is a strong indication for **cesarean section** to ensure safe delivery and reduce complications. *Induction of labour* - While induction might be considered for preeclampsia, the **breech presentation of the first twin** in a twin pregnancy significantly increases the risks associated with vaginal delivery, making it less safe than a cesarean. - Given the combined risk factors, **cesarean delivery** is the more appropriate choice for optimizing maternal and fetal outcomes. *Watch for BP and induce for normal delivery on Expected Date of delivery* - Preeclampsia necessitates **delivery when the mother reaches 37 weeks or beyond**, not necessarily waiting until the Expected Date of Delivery, especially with other complicating factors. - Furthermore, attempting a **normal vaginal delivery** with a **breech presenting twin 1** carries high risks for both twins and is generally contraindicated. *Watch for BP and terminate (vaginal/ Cesarean) only when BP is normal.* - Delaying termination until blood pressure normalizes is not appropriate management for **preeclampsia** at term; delivery is the definitive treatment. - A persistent **breech presentation of twin 1** also makes vaginal delivery problematic, regardless of blood pressure status.
Question 6: Least common presentation of twins?
- A. Both breech
- B. Both transverse (Correct Answer)
- C. First vertex and 2nd transverse
- D. Both vertex
Explanation: ***Correct: Both transverse*** - A **transverse lie** means both fetuses are positioned horizontally across the uterus - This is the **rarest twin presentation**, occurring in approximately **0.5% of twin pregnancies** - The limited uterine space and natural tendency of fetuses to settle into longitudinal positions makes this presentation exceptionally uncommon - **Management**: Requires cesarean delivery due to impossibility of vaginal birth with both twins transverse *Incorrect: Both breech* - **Breech presentation** (feet or buttocks first) is more common in twin pregnancies than in singletons - Occurs in approximately **5-10% of twin pregnancies** - While complicated, both twins being breech is **significantly more common** than both transverse *Incorrect: First vertex and 2nd transverse* - The **first twin being cephalic (vertex)** is the most favorable and common position - The **second twin presenting transversely** can occur after delivery of the first twin when increased intrauterine space allows position change - This combination is **more common than both transverse** but requires careful management of the second twin *Incorrect: Both vertex* - **Vertex presentation for both twins** (both head-down) is the **most common presentation**, occurring in **40-45% of twin pregnancies** - This is the **optimal presentation for vaginal delivery** - Offers the best outcomes with lowest intervention rates
Question 7: A USG (ultrasound) shows two babies, one of whom appears to be one month older than the other. What is the term for this condition?
- A. Superfetation
- B. Superfecundation
- C. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Dichorionic diamniotic twins
Explanation: ***Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome*** - The observation of one baby appearing a month older than the other on ultrasound, particularly in a twin pregnancy, is highly suggestive of **twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)**, where there is an unequal sharing of blood between the twins. - This imbalance leads to one twin (the recipient) becoming larger and plethoric, while the other (the donor) becomes smaller and anemic, creating a noticeable size discrepancy, inaccurately noted as an "older" twin. *Superfetation* - **Superfetation** is the rare phenomenon of a second, new pregnancy occurring during an existing pregnancy, resulting in two fetuses of different gestational ages. - While it results in fetuses of different ages, it specifically refers to conception at different times, which is distinct from the described unequal growth within a single multiple pregnancy. *Superfecundation* - **Superfecundation** refers to the fertilization of two or more ova from the same ovulatory cycle by sperm from different acts of coitus or from different fathers. - It results in twins (or multiples) conceived at roughly the same time, but by different sperm, and does not explain a significant age or size discrepancy between the fetuses. *Dichorionic diamniotic twins* - **Dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twins** are the most common type of twins, each having their own placenta and amniotic sac. - While they are two separate pregnancies, this term primarily describes the placental and amniotic sac arrangement and does not inherently explain a significant size discrepancy or "age" difference between the twins without an underlying complication like TTTS.
Question 8: A 29-year-old primigravida presents at 36 weeks of gestation with a transverse lie. What is the recommended management?
- A. Induce labor
- B. Perform amniotomy
- C. Schedule cesarean delivery (Correct Answer)
- D. Attempt external cephalic version
Explanation: ***Schedule cesarean delivery*** - A persistent **transverse lie** at 36 weeks makes vaginal delivery impossible and requires definitive management. - **Cesarean delivery** is the definitive and safest option for ensuring maternal and fetal well-being when the transverse lie persists. - While external cephalic version may be attempted first, if unsuccessful, contraindicated, or the lie remains transverse near term, cesarean section is mandatory. - Attempting vaginal delivery with transverse lie risks **cord prolapse**, **uterine rupture**, and **obstructed labor**. *Induce labor* - Inducing labor with a transverse lie is **absolutely contraindicated** due to impossibility of vaginal delivery. - The fetal shoulder or arm would present first, preventing engagement and causing **obstructed labor**. - High risk of **cord prolapse**, **uterine rupture**, and severe maternal-fetal complications. *Perform amniotomy* - **Amniotomy** (artificial rupture of membranes) with a transverse lie is extremely dangerous and contraindicated. - Significantly increases the risk of **cord prolapse** as membranes rupture without an engaged presenting part. - Would necessitate immediate cesarean delivery in emergency conditions, worsening outcomes. *Attempt external cephalic version* - While **external cephalic version (ECV)** can be attempted for transverse lie at 36-37 weeks, it has lower success rates (30-50%) compared to breech presentation. - However, the question asks for "recommended management" which refers to the **definitive management plan** - cesarean delivery remains the final recommendation when transverse lie persists. - ECV may be offered as an option to avoid cesarean, but has risks including **placental abruption**, **fetal distress**, and **failure** requiring cesarean anyway. - At 36 weeks with persistent transverse lie, planning for cesarean delivery is the safest definitive approach.
Question 9: A pregnant patient, with a history of classical cesarean section in view of fetal growth retardation in the previous pregnancy, presents to you. She is currently at 35 weeks of gestation with breech presentation. What is the next step in management?
- A. Cesarean section at 37 weeks (Correct Answer)
- B. Advice USG and visit after 2 weeks
- C. Internal podalic version followed by vaginal delivery
- D. External cephalic version at 36 weeks
Explanation: ***Cesarean section at 37 weeks*** - A history of **classical cesarean section** is an absolute contraindication to vaginal birth due to the high risk of **uterine rupture**. - Performing the cesarean section at 37 weeks, rather than waiting longer, minimizes the risk of spontaneous labor and rupture while ensuring fetal maturity. *Advice USG and visit after 2 weeks* - This option does not address the critical risk of **uterine rupture** due to the previous classical cesarean section. - Delaying definitive management by two weeks could increase the risk of spontaneous labor and associated complications. *Internal podalic version followed by vaginal delivery* - An **internal podalic version** is a procedure used to change fetal lie during labor, typically for the second twin, and it is **contraindicated** with a previous classical cesarean due to rupture risk. - Given the previous classical incision, a **vaginal delivery is unsafe** and should not be attempted. *External cephalic version at 36 weeks* - **External cephalic version (ECV)** is generally contraindicated in patients with a history of a **classical cesarean section** due to the increased risk of uterine rupture. - Even if successful, the patient would still require a cesarean section for delivery given the previous uterine scar.
Question 10: Which of the following are contra-indications to external cephalic version in antenatal management of breech presentation? 1. Antepartum haemorrhage 2. Multiple pregnancy 3. Reactive Non Stress Test 4. Severe oligohydramnios
- A. 1, 2 and 4 (Correct Answer)
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 4*** * **Antepartum haemorrhage**, **multiple pregnancy**, and **severe oligohydramnios** are all contraindications to external cephalic version (ECV) due to increased risks of fetal distress, placental abruption, and uterine rupture. * These conditions either compromise fetal well-being directly or make the procedure significantly more dangerous for both mother and fetus. *2, 3 and 4* * This option incorrectly includes a **reactive non-stress test** as a contraindication, which actually indicates fetal well-being and is a prerequisite for ECV. * Excluding **antepartum haemorrhage** as a contraindication is also incorrect, as it poses a significant risk. *1, 2, 3 and 4* * This option is incorrect because a **reactive non-stress test** is a sign of fetal health and is a requirement *before* performing an ECV, not a contraindication. * Including it diminishes the specificity of contraindications for this procedure. *1, 2 and 3* * This option erroneously lists a **reactive non-stress test** as a contraindication, when in reality, it's a reassuring finding critical for proceeding with ECV. * It also omits **severe oligohydramnios** which is a significant contraindication due to the inability to safely manipulate the fetus.
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