Neonatal Jaundice — MCQs
A 45-day-old infant presents with seizures. Examination reveals he is icteric, has bulging fontanelles, and exhibits opisthotonic posture. Which of the following treatments is NOT indicated?
4 day old breastfed neonate, otherwise well, term neonate presented with jaundice, on testing the bilirubin level was found to be 18 mg/dl. Which of the following is the best step of management?
All of the following are features of physiologic jaundice, except which of the following?
Which is wrong about Crigler-Najjar syndrome Type-1?
Which of the following statements is true regarding physiological jaundice in newborns?
A patient at 37 weeks' gestation came to the hospital without antenatal check-up and presented with onset of labor. On examination, the mother is Hep B positive. What management should be given to the neonate?
During delayed cord clamping, how much blood is typically transferred to the neonate?
A woman suffering from active tuberculosis not on ATT has a full term vaginal delivery. All the following should be done except:
Where is the newborn care corner located?
Which virus has the highest chance of transmission to the newborn during delivery?
Neonatal Jaundice Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 45-day-old infant presents with seizures. Examination reveals he is icteric, has bulging fontanelles, and exhibits opisthotonic posture. Which of the following treatments is NOT indicated?
- A. Chlorpromazine (Correct Answer)
- B. Phenobarbital
- C. Phototherapy
- D. Exchange Transfusion
Explanation: ***Chlorpromazine*** - Chlorpromazine is an **antipsychotic medication** and is **contraindicated** in infants, especially in the presence of seizures and central nervous system (CNS) dysfunction, due to its potential to **lower the seizure threshold** and cause severe extrapyramidal symptoms. - Its mechanism of action via **dopamine receptor blockade** is not relevant for treating bilirubin encephalopathy or its symptoms. *Phototherapy* - Phototherapy is a primary treatment for **neonatal jaundice** to reduce unconjugated bilirubin levels and prevent neurotoxicity. - While the infant's condition suggests severe hyperbilirubinemia with complications, phototherapy would still be indicated as an initial step or adjunct to further interventions, especially if the bilirubin levels are still rising. *Exchange Transfusion* - Exchange transfusion is a **definitive treatment** for severe hyperbilirubinemia, especially when there are signs of **acute bilirubin encephalopathy (kernicterus)**, as suggested by seizures, bulging fontanelles, and opisthotonus. - It rapidly removes bilirubin from the blood and is crucial to prevent further neurological damage in such critical cases. *Phenobarbital* - Phenobarbital is an **anticonvulsant** used to manage seizures, which are a prominent symptom in this infant. - It can also help to **induce hepatic enzymes** involved in bilirubin metabolism, thereby potentially aiding in the reduction of bilirubin levels in cases of severe hyperbilirubinemia, though its primary role here would be seizure control.
Question 2: 4 day old breastfed neonate, otherwise well, term neonate presented with jaundice, on testing the bilirubin level was found to be 18 mg/dl. Which of the following is the best step of management?
- A. Stop breast feeding and do phototherapy
- B. Initiate exchange transfusion
- C. Start iv fluids and give phototherapy
- D. Start phototherapy and continue breast feeding (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Start phototherapy and continue breast feeding*** - For a 4-day-old, otherwise healthy, term neonate with a bilirubin level of 18 mg/dL, **phototherapy** is the recommended initial treatment to lower bilirubin levels and prevent **kernicterus**. - **Breastfeeding should be continued** as it is crucial for hydration and nutrition, and interruption is generally not needed unless the bilirubin levels are extremely high and unresponsive to phototherapy. *Stop breast feeding and do phototherapy* - **Stopping breastfeeding is usually not necessary** for a bilirubin level of 18 mg/dL in a healthy, term neonate, as the benefits of breast milk outweigh the risks associated with this level of jaundice. - While **phototherapy** is appropriate, discontinuing breastfeeding can lead to complications such as dehydration and decreased milk supply. *Initiate exchange transfusion* - **Exchange transfusion** is typically reserved for much higher bilirubin levels (e.g., >25 mg/dL in a term neonate) or when there are signs of **acute bilirubin encephalopathy**, which are not present here. - It is an invasive procedure with potential risks, making it unsuitable as a first-line treatment for this bilirubin level. *Start iv fluids and given phototherapy* - **Intravenous fluids** are generally not indicated for an otherwise well, breastfed neonate unless there are signs of significant dehydration, which is not mentioned in this scenario. - While **phototherapy** is appropriate, routine IV fluid administration can lead to **fluid overload** and is not standard practice in uncomplicated neonatal jaundice.
Question 3: All of the following are features of physiologic jaundice, except which of the following?
- A. Total bilirubin of less than 15 mg/dl
- B. Disappearance of jaundice by 3-4 weeks in preterm infant
- C. Jaundice visible within 24 hrs of age (Correct Answer)
- D. Rate of rise of bilirubin less than 3 mg/dl per day
Explanation: ***Jaundice visible within 24 hrs of age*** - The appearance of **jaundice within the first 24 hours of life** is a hallmark of **pathologic jaundice**, not physiologic jaundice. - This early onset suggests a more serious underlying cause, such as **hemolytic disease of the newborn**, and warrants prompt investigation. *Total bilirubin of less than 15 mg/dl* - In physiologic jaundice, the **total serum bilirubin level** typically peaks at less than 15 mg/dL in full-term infants. - Higher bilirubin levels, especially above 15 mg/dL, would raise suspicion for a **pathologic cause**. *Disappearance of jaundice by 3-4 weeks in preterm infant* - While physiologic jaundice in full-term infants usually resolves by 1-2 weeks, in **preterm infants**, it can persist longer, up to 3-4 weeks. - This extended duration is due to the **immaturity of the preterm infant's liver** in conjugating bilirubin. *Rate of rise of bilirubin less than 3 mg/dl per day* - A gradual increase in bilirubin, with a rate of rise **less than 3 mg/dL per day**, is characteristic of physiologic jaundice. - A **rapid increase** (>5 mg/dL/day) is a red flag for **pathologic jaundice** and requires further evaluation.
Question 4: Which is wrong about Crigler-Najjar syndrome Type-1?
- A. Kernicterus is usual.
- B. Hepatic histology is normal.
- C. Very high level of unconjugated bilirubin occurs in neonatal period.
- D. It responds well to phenobarbital. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It responds well to phenobarbital.*** - **Crigler-Najjar syndrome Type 1** is characterized by a complete or near-complete absence of **UGT1A1 enzyme activity**, meaning there is no enzyme for phenobarbital to induce [1]. - Therefore, **phenobarbital** treatment, which works by inducing this enzyme, is ineffective in Type 1 [1]. *Kernicterus is usual.* - Due to the severe deficiency of **UGT1A1**, **unconjugated bilirubin** builds up to dangerously high levels, leading to **kernicterus** (bilirubin encephalopathy) in untreated infants [1]. - This neurological damage is a hallmark and often fatal complication of Crigler-Najjar Type 1 [1]. *Hepatic histology is normal.* - The primary defect in Crigler-Najjar Type 1 is a **functional enzyme deficiency**, not a structural one. - Thus, the liver cells themselves appear normal under microscopy, as there is no overt damage or inflammation. *Very high level of unconjugated bilirubin occurs in neonatal period.* - The complete or nearly complete absence of **UGT1A1** results in a severe inability to conjugate bilirubin, leading to extremely high levels of **unconjugated bilirubin** from birth [1]. - This presents as severe **neonatal jaundice**, which is persistent and life-threatening [1].
Question 5: Which of the following statements is true regarding physiological jaundice in newborns?
- A. Physiological jaundice typically appears after the first 24 hours of life. (Correct Answer)
- B. Physiological jaundice is a normal process and never requires any monitoring or intervention.
- C. Physiological jaundice always resolves within the first week in term infants and by two weeks in preterm infants.
- D. Physiological jaundice is characterized by a rapid rise in bilirubin levels within the first 24 hours of life.
Explanation: ***Physiological jaundice typically appears after the first 24 hours of life.*** - This is the **most important distinguishing feature** of physiological jaundice from pathological jaundice. - **Pathological jaundice** appears within the first 24 hours and requires immediate investigation for hemolytic disease, sepsis, or other serious causes. - The delayed onset (after 24 hours) is due to gradual breakdown of fetal red blood cells and immaturity of hepatic bilirubin conjugation enzymes. - This timing criterion is critical for clinical decision-making in neonatal care. *Physiological jaundice always resolves within the first week in term infants and by two weeks in preterm infants.* - The word "always" makes this statement incorrect - resolution times are **variable**. - While physiological jaundice **typically** resolves by 1 week in term infants and 2 weeks in preterm infants, some cases may persist longer while still being physiological. - Prolonged jaundice beyond these timeframes requires evaluation but doesn't automatically indicate pathology. *Physiological jaundice is characterized by a rapid rise in bilirubin levels within the first 24 hours of life.* - This describes **pathological jaundice**, not physiological jaundice. - Physiological jaundice shows a **gradual rise** starting after 24 hours, peaking around days 3-5. - Rapid rise within the first 24 hours suggests hemolysis, ABO/Rh incompatibility, or other pathological causes. *Physiological jaundice is a normal process and never requires any monitoring or intervention.* - Although physiological jaundice is a normal developmental process, this statement is **incorrect**. - **All jaundiced newborns require monitoring** of bilirubin levels to prevent neurotoxicity. - If bilirubin exceeds age-specific thresholds, **phototherapy** or other interventions may be needed to prevent **kernicterus** (bilirubin-induced neurologic dysfunction).
Question 6: A patient at 37 weeks' gestation came to the hospital without antenatal check-up and presented with onset of labor. On examination, the mother is Hep B positive. What management should be given to the neonate?
- A. Hep B vaccine+ IG (Correct Answer)
- B. Hep B vaccine only
- C. Only IG
- D. First IG then Hep B vaccine after 1 month
Explanation: ***Hep B vaccine + IG*** - Neonates born to mothers with **positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)** should receive both the **hepatitis B vaccine** and **hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)** within **12 hours of birth**. - This combination provides both **passive immunity** (from HBIG) and **active immunity** (from the vaccine) to rapidly protect the newborn from perinatal hepatitis B transmission. *Hep B vaccine only* - Administering only the **hepatitis B vaccine** would provide active immunity, but the **onset of protection is slower**, leaving the neonate vulnerable during the immediate high-risk period of exposure. - While essential for long-term protection, the vaccine alone is **insufficient for immediate post-exposure prophylaxis** in a high-risk scenario. *Only IG* - Administering only **HBIG** provides immediate passive immunity, offering short-term protection, but it **does not confer long-lasting immunity**. - Without the vaccine, the infant would remain susceptible to future HBV infection once the passive antibodies wane, which typically occurs within a few months. *First IG then Hep B vaccine after 1 month* - Delaying the **hepatitis B vaccine** by a month would leave the neonate inadequately protected against subsequent exposure or potential continued viral replication after the HBIG's passive immunity declines. - The goal in this high-risk situation is to initiate **both passive and active immunity as quickly as possible** to maximize protection against perinatal transmission.
Question 7: During delayed cord clamping, how much blood is typically transferred to the neonate?
- A. 50-100 mL (Correct Answer)
- B. 120-150 mL
- C. 150-180 mL
- D. 100-200 mL
Explanation: ***50-100 mL*** - **Delayed cord clamping (DCC)** allows for the transfer of a significant volume of **placental blood** back to the neonate. - This typically results in an increase of approximately **50-100 mL** of blood volume in the infant, contributing to improved iron stores and hematocrit levels. *120-150 mL* - This volume is generally **higher than the average transfer** seen with standard delayed cord clamping, though individual variations can occur. - While beneficial, such a large transfer might only occur with **prolonged clamping times** or specific neonatal interventions. *150-180 mL* - This range represents a **substantially larger volume** than what is typically transferred during routine delayed cord clamping. - This volume is **uncommon** and might lead to concerns like **polycythemia** if it occurred. *100-200 mL* - While the lower end of this range (100 mL) can sometimes be achieved, 200 mL is generally **considered excessive** for typical delayed cord clamping. - Such a large volume could contribute to **hyperbilirubinemia** and **polycythemia** in the neonate.
Question 8: A woman suffering from active tuberculosis not on ATT has a full term vaginal delivery. All the following should be done except:
- A. Neonate should be isolated from mother
- B. Breastfeed the neonate
- C. Neonate should be given INH
- D. BCG should be given to the neonate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***BCG should be given to the neonate*** - This is the **EXCEPTION** - BCG vaccination should be **deferred** in neonates born to mothers with active, untreated tuberculosis. - **Current guidelines (WHO/CDC):** BCG is contraindicated or delayed when there is known exposure to active TB, as the neonate is at risk of developing active disease, and BCG given during the incubation period may cause disseminated BCG infection. - The neonate should first receive **INH prophylaxis for 6 months**, then be reassessed. If TB is ruled out and tuberculin skin test is negative, BCG can be given after completing prophylaxis. - Immediate BCG vaccination in an exposed neonate may lead to complications if the infant develops active TB. *Breastfeed the neonate* - **Breastfeeding should be continued** even when the mother has active tuberculosis, as per WHO and CDC recommendations. - **TB is NOT transmitted through breast milk** - the infection spreads via respiratory droplets, not through lactation. - The mother should wear a **surgical mask during breastfeeding** and feeding times to minimize respiratory transmission risk. - The benefits of breastfeeding (nutrition, immunity, bonding) outweigh the risks when appropriate precautions are taken. *Neonate should be isolated from mother* - **Temporary separation is recommended** until the mother with active, untreated TB is rendered non-infectious. - Isolation prevents **respiratory transmission** of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from mother to the highly susceptible neonate. - Once the mother has been on effective anti-tuberculosis treatment (ATT) for **at least 2 weeks** and shows clinical improvement, contact can be resumed with appropriate precautions (mask use). *Neonate should be given INH* - **Isoniazid (INH) prophylaxis is mandatory** for neonates born to mothers with active tuberculosis. - Standard protocol: **INH 10 mg/kg/day for 6 months** to prevent progression from latent to active TB. - After 6 months of prophylaxis, the infant should be evaluated with tuberculin skin test (TST). If negative and no evidence of active disease, INH can be stopped and BCG can be administered. - This prophylactic approach significantly reduces the risk of the neonate developing active tuberculosis.
Question 9: Where is the newborn care corner located?
- A. NICU
- B. OPD
- C. Labour room (Correct Answer)
- D. Wards side room
Explanation: ***Labour room*** - A **newborn care corner** is an essential facility located in the **labour room** to provide immediate care, resuscitation, and stabilization for newborns right after birth. - This setup ensures that critical interventions like **drying**, **warming**, **suctioning**, and initiation of **ventilation** can be performed promptly, improving neonatal outcomes. *NICU* - The **NICU (Neonatal Intensive Care Unit)** is for sick or premature newborns requiring intensive medical care, not the initial care at birth for all newborns. - While newborns from the labour room may be transferred to the NICU if they require specialized care, the initial care corner is distinct. *OPD* - **OPD (Outpatient Department)** is for patients seeking consultation without admission, and is not equipped or intended for immediate newborn care. - Newborns are brought to OPD for follow-up visits or routine check-ups much later, not immediately after birth. *Wards side room* - A **ward side room** is part of a general hospital ward, usually for inpatient care, and is not specifically designed or staffed for the initial, immediate care of a newborn at the moment of delivery. - While mothers and newborns may be transferred to a ward side room after stabilization, it's not where delivery and immediate postnatal care occur.
Question 10: Which virus has the highest chance of transmission to the newborn during delivery?
- A. HSV (Correct Answer)
- B. CMV
- C. VZV
- D. Rubella
Explanation: ***HSV*** - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** has the **highest transmission rate during vaginal delivery** if the mother has active genital lesions, with transmission rates of **30-50% for recurrent infection** and up to **85-90% for primary infection**. - Neonatal herpes can lead to severe disseminated disease, central nervous system involvement, or mucocutaneous lesions with high morbidity and mortality. - **Cesarean section is indicated** if active lesions are present at the time of labor to prevent transmission. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is primarily transmitted **congenitally (in utero)** rather than during delivery. - While perinatal transmission can occur through cervical secretions or blood during delivery, the rate is **much lower** than HSV and most postnatal transmission occurs through **breastfeeding**. - Intrapartum transmission, when it occurs, generally causes less severe disease compared to congenital infection. *VZV* - **Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)** transmission to the newborn occurs primarily when maternal infection develops **within 5 days before to 2 days after delivery**. - This can cause severe neonatal varicella, but the **overall intrapartum transmission rate is lower** than HSV. - Most severe fetal effects occur with **congenital varicella syndrome** (first or second trimester infection). *Rubella* - **Rubella** is almost exclusively transmitted **congenitally during early pregnancy**, leading to **congenital rubella syndrome**. - There is **no significant transmission during delivery** itself. - The critical period for fetal damage is during the first trimester, not at the time of birth.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free