Placental Abnormalities — MCQs
A 29-year-old G3P2 woman at 34 weeks' gestation is involved in a serious car accident, loses consciousness briefly, and presents to the emergency department awake and alert with a severe headache, abdominal, and pelvic pain. Her vital signs include a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, heart rate of 120/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 22/min. Fetal heart rate is 155/min. Physical examination reveals minor bruises on the abdomen and limbs, blood in the vault upon vaginal inspection, and strong, frequent uterine contractions. Which of the following is most likely a complication of her current condition?
After 3rd stage of labour and expulsion of placenta, the patient is bleeding heavily. Ideal management would include all except:
How do you manage placenta accreta?
Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?
A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks presents with a history of abdominal pain, bleeding per vaginum, and loss of fetal movements. On examination, the uterus is contracted with increased uterine tone, and fetal heart sounds are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents with mild bleeding and pain. On examination, the uterus is tender, and fetal heart sounds are absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cause of Fetal growth restriction may be: 1. Chromosomal abnormality 2. Congenital abnormality 3. Abnormal cord insertion Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Snow storm appearance on an ultrasound is seen in:
A baby born at 34 weeks gestation weighs 3kg. Which of the following conditions is this child most likely to develop in the immediate postnatal period?
Which of the following STDs causes fetal abnormality?
Placental Abnormalities Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 29-year-old G3P2 woman at 34 weeks' gestation is involved in a serious car accident, loses consciousness briefly, and presents to the emergency department awake and alert with a severe headache, abdominal, and pelvic pain. Her vital signs include a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, heart rate of 120/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 22/min. Fetal heart rate is 155/min. Physical examination reveals minor bruises on the abdomen and limbs, blood in the vault upon vaginal inspection, and strong, frequent uterine contractions. Which of the following is most likely a complication of her current condition?
- A. IUGR
- B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- C. Vasa previa
- D. DIC (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***DIC*** - The combination of **abruptio placentae** (suggested by trauma, pain, vaginal bleeding, and contractions) with potential severe bleeding from uterine rupture or injury from the car accident, significantly increases the risk of **Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)**. - **DIC** is a life-threatening condition initiated by massive activation of the coagulation system, leading to widespread microthrombi formation and subsequent consumption of clotting factors and platelets, resulting in simultaneous **bleeding and thrombosis**. *IUGR* - **Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)** is a chronic complication typically developing over weeks or months, caused by placental insufficiency or fetal conditions. - It is unlikely to be an acute complication directly resulting from a traumatic event at 34 weeks gestation. *Subarachnoid hemorrhage* - While trauma can cause **subarachnoid hemorrhage**, the primary obstetric complications described (abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions following trauma) point more strongly towards placental or uterine injury. - The patient's **headache** and brief loss of consciousness could be due to concussion, but the obstetric findings are more immediately concerning for distinct complications. *Vasa previa* - **Vasa previa** is an anatomical anomaly where fetal blood vessels within the membranes cross the internal cervical os, unprotected by placental tissue or Wharton's jelly. - This condition presents with painless vaginal bleeding upon rupture of membranes and **fetal distress**, usually in labor, but is not directly caused by trauma.
Question 2: After 3rd stage of labour and expulsion of placenta, the patient is bleeding heavily. Ideal management would include all except:
- A. Check for laceration of labia
- B. Uterine massage and I/V oxytocin
- C. APGAR scoring (Correct Answer)
- D. Check for placenta in uterus
Explanation: ***APGAR scoring*** - **APGAR scoring** assesses the newborn's health immediately after birth and is not a management step for **postpartum hemorrhage**. - This intervention would divert critical attention from the mother's life-threatening bleeding. *Check for placenta in uterus* - **Retained placental fragments** are a common cause of **postpartum hemorrhage**, obstructing uterine contraction. - Checking for and removing any retained placenta is a crucial and immediate management step to control bleeding. *Check for laceration of labia* - **Lacerations of the birth canal**, including the labia, vagina, or cervix, can cause significant bleeding after delivery, even with a well-contracted uterus. - Identifying and repairing these lacerations is an essential part of managing **postpartum hemorrhage not due to atony**. *Uterine massage and I/V oxytocin* - **Uterine atony** (failure of the uterus to contract) is the most common cause of **postpartum hemorrhage**. - **Uterine massage** helps stimulate contraction, and **intravenous oxytocin** is a uterotonic agent used to promote uterine contraction and reduce bleeding.
Question 3: How do you manage placenta accreta?
- A. Classical cesarean; hysterectomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Low vertical cesarean; hysterectomy
- C. Low transverse cesarean; hysterectomy
- D. Classical cesarean; myometrial resection
Explanation: ***Classical cesarean; hysterectomy*** - A **classical cesarean section** (vertical incision in the upper uterine segment) allows for delivery of the fetus without disturbing the **placenta accreta** in the lower uterine segment. - Subsequent **hysterectomy** is often necessary due to the high risk of severe hemorrhage from the morbidly adherent placenta, which cannot be safely separated. *Low vertical cesarean; hysterectomy* - A **low vertical incision** is made in the lower uterine segment, which could potentially incise through the placenta accreta if it extends to that region, leading to significant hemorrhage. - While hysterectomy is likely indicated, the initial uterine incision might complicate management. *Low transverse cesarean; hysterectomy* - A **low transverse incision** is the most common type for routine cesarean sections but is contra-indicated in placenta accreta as the placenta is frequently implanted in the lower uterine segment. - Incising through the **placenta** during a low transverse cut would cause immediate massive hemorrhage, making this approach unsuitable. *Classical cesarean; myometrial resection* - While a **classical cesarean** would be the appropriate initial step for fetal delivery, **myometrial resection** to remove only the affected area of the myometrium is generally insufficient and carries a high risk of residual placental tissue and severe hemorrhage, often necessitating a hysterectomy anyway. - This approach is typically not recommended as a primary definitive management strategy for established placenta accreta.
Question 4: Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?
- A. Vasa previa (Correct Answer)
- B. Placenta praevia
- C. Polyhydramnios
- D. Oligohydramnios
Explanation: ***Vasa previa*** - Vasa previa occurs when **fetal blood vessels** from the umbilical cord traverse the membranes over the cervical os, underneath the fetal presenting part. - Rupture of these unprotected vessels, which can happen during labor or membrane rupture, leads to **exclusively fetal blood loss**, posing a high risk of fetal exsanguination and death. *Placenta praevia* - This condition involves the **placenta implanting low** in the uterus, potentially covering the internal cervical os. - Bleeding in placenta previa is typically **maternal** in origin, resulting from the detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall as the cervix dilates. *Polyhydramnios* - Polyhydramnios is characterized by an **excessive amount of amniotic fluid**. - It is not directly associated with antepartum or intrapartum bleeding, but rather with conditions that affect fetal swallowing or urination, such as **fetal gastrointestinal anomalies** or maternal diabetes. *Oligohydramnios* - Oligohydramnios refers to an **insufficient amount of amniotic fluid**. - While it can be associated with various fetal and maternal complications, such as **renal agenesis** or premature rupture of membranes, it does not typically cause blood loss.
Question 5: A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks presents with a history of abdominal pain, bleeding per vaginum, and loss of fetal movements. On examination, the uterus is contracted with increased uterine tone, and fetal heart sounds are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Polyhydramnios
- B. Premature labour
- C. Abruptio placenta (Correct Answer)
- D. Placenta previa
Explanation: ***Abruptio placenta*** - The classic presentation of **abruptio placenta** includes **abdominal pain**, **vaginal bleeding**, **increased uterine tone**, and **loss of fetal movements** in a patient with **hypertension**. - **Hypertension** is a significant risk factor for abruptio placenta, and the absence of fetal heart sounds suggests **fetal demise**, which can occur due to severe abruption. *Polyhydramnios* - Characterized by an **excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid**, which leads to an abnormally large uterus. - It usually presents with **uterine distension** and shortness of breath, not abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or increased uterine tone. *Placenta previa* - Typically presents with **painless vaginal bleeding** in the second or third trimester. - The uterus is usually **soft and non-tender**, unlike the increased uterine tone seen in abruptio placenta. *Premature labour* - Defined by **regular uterine contractions** causing cervical change before 37 weeks of gestation. - While contractions cause abdominal pain, it does not typically present with significant **vaginal bleeding** or sustained **increased uterine tone** as described.
Question 6: A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents with mild bleeding and pain. On examination, the uterus is tender, and fetal heart sounds are absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Abruptio placenta (Correct Answer)
- B. Uterine rupture
- C. Ectopic pregnancy
- D. Placenta previa
Explanation: ***Abruptio placenta*** - This condition involves the **premature detachment of the placenta** from the uterine wall, leading to bleeding and severe abdominal pain due to uterine contractions and irritation. - The **tender uterus** is a characteristic finding, often described as a "woody hard" uterus in severe cases. - The absence of fetal heart sounds suggests **fetal demise**, which is a common and severe complication of placental abruption due to oxygen deprivation. *Uterine rupture* - **Uterine rupture** can present with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and loss of fetal heart tones, making it an important differential. - However, it typically occurs during **active labor**, especially in women with previous cesarean sections or uterine surgery. - The presentation usually includes **sudden severe pain**, loss of uterine contractions, and the fetus may be palpable abdominally if completely extruded. *Ectopic pregnancy* - This occurs when the **fertilized egg implants outside the uterus**, most commonly in the fallopian tube. - Symptoms typically appear much earlier in pregnancy **(first trimester)** and the pain is usually localized, often presenting with a smaller, non-tender uterus. - Not consistent with the clinical picture of an obviously pregnant uterus. *Placenta previa* - **Placenta previa** is characterized by the placenta covering the cervical opening, leading to **painless vaginal bleeding**, often bright red. - The uterus is typically **soft and non-tender**, in contrast to the tender uterus described in the case. - This is the key differentiating feature from placental abruption.
Question 7: Cause of Fetal growth restriction may be: 1. Chromosomal abnormality 2. Congenital abnormality 3. Abnormal cord insertion Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: ***Correct: 1, 2 and 3*** All three statements represent established causes of **Fetal Growth Restriction (FGR)**: - **Chromosomal abnormalities** (trisomy 13, 18, 21, Turner syndrome) cause **intrinsic poor growth potential** of the fetus by disrupting normal cellular development and metabolism, directly leading to FGR. - **Congenital abnormalities** (cardiac defects, renal malformations, CNS anomalies) impair fetal development and nutrient utilization through structural and functional deficits, resulting in FGR. - **Abnormal cord insertion** (velamentous or marginal cord insertion) compromises the efficiency of **nutrient and oxygen transfer** from the placenta to the fetus by reducing vascular support, thus causing placental insufficiency and FGR. *Incorrect: 1 and 3 only* This incorrectly excludes **congenital abnormalities**, which are a well-established independent cause of FGR. Structural malformations directly impair fetal growth through metabolic and functional deficits. *Incorrect: 1 and 2 only* This incorrectly excludes **abnormal cord insertion**, which directly impacts placental function and nutrient supply—a key pathway for uteroplacental insufficiency leading to FGR. *Incorrect: 2 and 3 only* This incorrectly excludes **chromosomal abnormalities**, which are a major genetic cause of intrinsic FGR. Chromosomal defects (e.g., trisomies) are fundamental causes of impaired fetal growth potential.
Question 8: Snow storm appearance on an ultrasound is seen in:
- A. Vesicular mole (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic ectopic pregnancy
- C. Hydatid cyst
- D. Dermoid cyst
Explanation: ***Vesicular mole*** - The classic ultrasound finding in a **complete hydatidiform mole** is a **"snowstorm" appearance**, characterized by a uterine cavity filled with echogenic, vesicular tissue and no fetal parts. - This appearance is due to the **swollen chorionic villi** and **trophoblastic proliferation**. *Chronic ectopic pregnancy* - While an ectopic pregnancy involves an implantation outside the uterus, it typically presents with an **adnexal mass**, sometimes with a **"ring of fire" sign** on Doppler, but not a snowstorm pattern within the uterine cavity. - Chronic ectopic pregnancies may show a more complex adnexal mass with varying echogenicity due to hemorrhage and organization, but this is distinct from the diffuse uterine changes in a hydatidiform mole. *Hydatid cyst* - A **hydatid cyst**, caused by *Echinococcus granulosus*, is typically found in the liver or lungs and appears as a **well-defined, anechoic lesion** with possible internal septations or daughter cysts (often called a "water lily" sign if ruptured) but not a diffuse snowstorm pattern within the uterus. - This condition is a parasitic infection, entirely unrelated to pregnancy. *Dermoid cyst* - A **dermoid cyst** (mature cystic teratoma) is an ovarian tumor that typically appears as a **complex adnexal mass** with characteristic features like a **"Rokitansky nodule"**, fat-fluid levels, and highly echogenic components (e.g., hair, teeth). - Its appearance is localized to the ovary and does not mimic the widespread uterine findings of a vesicular mole.
Question 9: A baby born at 34 weeks gestation weighs 3kg. Which of the following conditions is this child most likely to develop in the immediate postnatal period?
- A. APH
- B. Diabetes
- C. Anemia (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Anemia*** - Macrosomic babies (3kg at 34 weeks is **large for gestational age**) initially develop **polycythemia** due to chronic intrauterine hypoxia and increased erythropoiesis, but this is followed by rapid **hemolysis** and breakdown of excess red blood cells after birth, leading to anemia in the immediate postnatal period. - Among the given options, **anemia** is the most appropriate answer as it represents a recognized complication of LGA babies through the **polycythemia-hemolysis cycle**, even though **hypoglycemia** is statistically the most common immediate complication. *APH* - **Antepartum hemorrhage (APH)** is a maternal obstetric complication involving bleeding before delivery, not a condition that the baby itself develops or shows. - While APH can affect fetal growth and well-being, it is not a **neonatal condition** that the child would present with after birth. *Diabetes* - Although **maternal diabetes** is the most common cause of fetal macrosomia, the newborn does not develop diabetes itself in the immediate postnatal period. - Instead, these babies are at risk for **hypoglycemia**, **respiratory distress**, and **hyperbilirubinemia** due to fetal hyperinsulinemia, but not diabetes as a presenting condition. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **anemia** is indeed a valid condition that macrosomic babies can develop through the described polycythemia-hemolysis mechanism. - While other complications like **hypoglycemia** and **birth trauma** are more common, anemia remains a recognized sequela among LGA babies in the immediate postnatal period.
Question 10: Which of the following STDs causes fetal abnormality?
- A. Syphilis (Correct Answer)
- B. Herpes
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Hepatitis B
Explanation: ***Syphilis*** - **Congenital syphilis**, resulting from maternal infection, can lead to severe fetal abnormalities such as **bone deformities**, **saddle nose**, **Hutchinson's teeth**, and **neurological problems**. - It can also cause stillbirth, prematurity, or hydrops fetalis, emphasizing the importance of early detection and treatment during pregnancy. *Herpes* - While **neonatal herpes** can be life-threatening and cause neurological damage, it is typically acquired during passage through the birth canal and does not cause **fetal abnormalities** during gestation. - Herpes simplex virus primarily causes localized lesions and systemic infection in the neonate, not developmental defects. *Gonorrhea* - Gonorrhea primarily causes **ophthalmia neonatorum** (conjunctivitis) in newborns through exposure during birth, which can lead to blindness if untreated. - It does not typically cause **fetal abnormalities** or congenital defects through transplacental transmission. *Hepatitis B* - Hepatitis B can be transmitted to the fetus during birth, leading to **chronic hepatitis B infection** in the infant. - Although it causes a chronic disease, it does not typically result in **fetal abnormalities** or congenital malformations.
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