Uterine Fibroids — MCQs
A woman with a history of primary infertility is found to have two fibroids in the cornual region and bilateral tubal blockage, with normal ovulation and semen analysis. What is the most appropriate treatment?
What is the most common type of degeneration observed in uterine fibroids?
Identify the pathological condition shown in the image:
Which of the following statements about the management of uterine inversion is false?
A patient with infertility has an ultrasound (USG) suggestive of a uterine anomaly. Which of the following is the best method to confirm the diagnosis?
A Post-Menopausal woman complains of spotting per vaginum after 5 years of menopause. USG reveals endometrial thickness of 7 mm and an intramural fibroid of size 3cm. Next step in management is?
A 39 year old nulliparous female has presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaint of post-coital bleeding for past six months. The first investigation to be offered to this female will be
A 67-year-old female with hypertension and diabetes presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. What is the next step in management?
Consider the following statements regarding Uterine Leiomyoma: 1. Prevalence is highest between 35 and 45 years 2. More common in nulliparous women 3. Display reversible shrinkage after treatment with GnRH 4. Requires to be treated only if symptomatic Which of the statements given above are correct?
A 25-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. On examination, there is a mass arising from the hypogastrium corresponding to 16 weeks gravid uterus. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. The most likely diagnosis is
Uterine Fibroids Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A woman with a history of primary infertility is found to have two fibroids in the cornual region and bilateral tubal blockage, with normal ovulation and semen analysis. What is the most appropriate treatment?
- A. Laparoscopic Myomectomy
- B. Uterine Artery Embolization
- C. Hysterectomy
- D. Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)*** - ART, specifically **in vitro fertilization (IVF)**, is the most appropriate treatment as it bypasses both the **tubal blockage** and the **cornual fibroids**, which can interfere with sperm transport and implantation, respectively. - While myomectomy could address the fibroids, it doesn't resolve the tubal blockage, making ART the most direct path to conception given the multifactorial infertility. *Laparoscopic Myomectomy* - This procedure would remove the **fibroids**, which may improve uterine receptivity and reduce potential pregnancy complications. - However, it would not address the **bilateral tubal blockage**, meaning natural conception would still be impossible without further intervention, making it less appropriate as a standalone treatment for primary infertility with multiple causes. *Uterine Artery Embolization* - **Uterine artery embolization (UAE)** is primarily used to manage symptoms of fibroids, such as bleeding and pain, and is generally **not recommended** for women desiring future fertility due to potential risks to ovarian function and uterine blood supply. - It also does not resolve the **tubal factor infertility**. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** is the surgical removal of the uterus and is a definitive treatment for problematic fibroids. - However, it permanently **sterilizes** the patient and is therefore completely inappropriate for a woman desiring fertility.
Question 2: What is the most common type of degeneration observed in uterine fibroids?
- A. Calcareous
- B. Hyaline (Correct Answer)
- C. Red
- D. Cystic
Explanation: ***Hyaline*** - **Hyaline degeneration** is the most frequent type of degeneration in uterine fibroids, occurring in about **60% of cases** [1]. - It involves the replacement of smooth muscle and connective tissue with **acellular, glassy, eosinophilic hyaline material** [1]. *Calcareous* - **Calcareous degeneration** (calcification) occurs when hyaline degeneration calcifies, typically seen in **postmenopausal women** or older fibroids. - While it can occur, it is a **secondary change** following hyaline degeneration rather than the primary and most common form. *Red* - **Red degeneration** (carneous degeneration) is acute, often occurring during **pregnancy** due to rapid growth and hemorrhagic infarction. - It presents with **acute pain** and is less common than hyaline degeneration. *Cystic* - **Cystic degeneration** is characterized by liquefaction within the fibroid, leading to the formation of **cysts**. - This typically results from advanced **hyaline degeneration** and is less common than hyaline degeneration itself. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1024-1025.
Question 3: Identify the pathological condition shown in the image:
- A. Intramural fibroid
- B. Adenomyoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Myomatous polyp
Explanation: ***Adenomyoma*** - The image distinctly shows **endometrial glands and stroma** embedded within the **myometrium** (smooth muscle layer of the uterus), which is the hallmark of adenomyoma [1]. - This condition is essentially a localized form of **adenomyosis**, presenting as a mass [1]. *Intramural fibroid* - An intramural fibroid (leiomyoma) is a **benign tumor of smooth muscle cells**, typically showing a proliferation of uniform spindle cells with characteristic swirling patterns [2]. - It would lack the presence of **endometrial glands and stroma** within the lesion [2]. *Endometriosis* - Endometriosis involves the presence of **endometrial tissue outside the uterus**, such as on the ovaries, peritoneum, or bowel. - While it involves similar tissue, its location is **extrauterine**, whereas the image depicts a lesion within the uterine wall. *Myomatous polyp* - A myomatous polyp (or submucosal fibroid) is a **fibroid that protrudes into the uterine cavity**, often covered by endometrial tissue [2]. - The image does not show a polypoid growth extending into the cavity but rather glandular tissue directly within the muscle wall. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Female Genital Tract Disease, pp. 475-476. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1024-1025.
Question 4: Which of the following statements about the management of uterine inversion is false?
- A. Surgical management is hysterectomy (Correct Answer)
- B. May require laparotomy
- C. In case of delayed presentation repositioning to be attempted only after securing IV lines and adequate anesthesia
- D. Repositioning of uterus should be attempted immediately if diagnosed at the time of inversion
Explanation: ***Surgical management is hysterectomy*** - While hysterectomy is a possible outcome in severe, intractable cases, it is *not* the primary or routine surgical management for uterine inversion. - The goal of surgical intervention, when manual repositioning fails, is typically to *reposition the uterus* through laparotomy, not to remove it. *May require laparotomy* - **Laparotomy** (abdominal incision) may be necessary if **manual repositioning** of the inverted uterus is unsuccessful or if there are other complications requiring direct surgical access. - This approach allows the surgeon to directly visualize and manipulate the uterus to correct the inversion. *In case of delayed presentation repositioning to be attempted only after securing IV lines and adequate anesthesia* - For **delayed presentation** of uterine inversion, it is crucial to ensure maternal stability before attempting repositioning, as the patient may be in shock or have significant blood loss. - **Securing IV lines** for fluid resuscitation and ensuring **adequate anesthesia** are critical preparatory steps to manage pain and facilitate uterine relaxation. *Repositioning of uterus should be attempted immediately if diagnosed at the time of inversion* - **Immediate manual repositioning** (Johnson maneuver) is the primary first-line treatment for acute uterine inversion diagnosed at the time of delivery. - Prompt action is essential to minimize **blood loss**, prevent **shock**, and increase the chances of successful uterine replacement.
Question 5: A patient with infertility has an ultrasound (USG) suggestive of a uterine anomaly. Which of the following is the best method to confirm the diagnosis?
- A. Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
- B. Transvaginal Sonography (TVS)
- C. Hysteroscopy + Laparoscopy (Correct Answer)
- D. Laparoscopy
Explanation: ***Hysteroscopy + Laparoscopy*** - This combination allows for a comprehensive evaluation: **hysteroscopy** visualizes the uterine cavity to confirm the type of anomaly (e.g., septum), while **laparoscopy** assesses the external uterine contour and overall pelvic anatomy. - It is considered the **gold standard** for diagnosing complex uterine anomalies as it provides the most detailed information for both diagnosis and surgical planning. *Hysterosalpingography (HSG)* - HSG can delineate the **uterine cavity morphology** and patency of fallopian tubes. - However, it is an **X-ray based test** and does not provide information about the external contour of the uterus, which is crucial for differentiating anomalies like a bicornuate from a septate uterus. *Transvaginal Sonography (TVS)* - While TVS is an excellent initial screening tool and can suggest a uterine anomaly, it often **lacks the definitive resolution** to precisely classify the anomaly, especially differentiating between septate and bicornuate uteri. - Its accuracy can be **operator-dependent** and limited in visualizing the external uterine contour. *Laparoscopy* - Laparoscopy alone provides an excellent view of the **external uterine contour** and pelvic organs. - However, it **does not visualize the internal uterine cavity**, which is essential for identifying and classifying anomalies such as a uterine septum.
Question 6: A Post-Menopausal woman complains of spotting per vaginum after 5 years of menopause. USG reveals endometrial thickness of 7 mm and an intramural fibroid of size 3cm. Next step in management is?
- A. CA 125 levels
- B. Paps smear and follow up
- C. Myomectomy
- D. Endometrial biopsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Endometrial biopsy*** - Post-menopausal **vaginal bleeding** or spotting, especially with an **endometrial thickness of ≥ 4-5 mm** on ultrasound, is highly suspicious for endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma and warrants an endometrial biopsy for definitive diagnosis. - An endometrial biopsy is crucial to rule out endometrial malignancy, as this is the primary concern in such presentations. *CA 125 levels* - **CA 125** is primarily used as a tumor marker for **ovarian cancer** surveillance and response to treatment, not for initial diagnosis of post-menopausal bleeding or endometrial pathology. - Elevated CA 125 can be found in various benign conditions as well and is not specific enough to guide the initial management of post-menopausal bleeding without tissue sampling. *Paps smear and follow up* - A **Pap smear** screens for **cervical abnormalities** and **cervical cancer**, not endometrial pathology. - While it's part of routine gynecological care, it will not address the investigation of post-menopausal bleeding originating from the uterus. *Myomectomy* - **Myomectomy** is a surgical procedure to remove **uterine fibroids**, typically when they are causing symptoms like heavy menstrual bleeding or pressure. - In a post-menopausal woman with spotting, the intramural fibroid may or may not be directly responsible, and the priority is to exclude **endometrial cancer** before considering fibroid-specific interventions.
Question 7: A 39 year old nulliparous female has presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaint of post-coital bleeding for past six months. The first investigation to be offered to this female will be
- A. Pap smear (Correct Answer)
- B. Hysteroscopy
- C. Ultrasound
- D. Endometrial biopsy
Explanation: ***Pap smear*** - **Post-coital bleeding** is a classic symptom of **cervical pathology**, including **cervical cancer**, which a Pap smear is designed to detect. - As a **screening tool**, a Pap smear is the appropriate initial investigation to broadly assess for abnormal cervical cells. *Hysteroscopy* - Hysteroscopy is an invasive procedure primarily used to visualize the **uterine cavity** and would be considered if concerns about intrauterine pathology arise after initial screening. - It's not the first-line investigation for post-coital bleeding, which typically points to a **cervical or vaginal source**. *Ultrasound* - **Pelvic ultrasound** is useful for evaluating uterine, ovarian, and adnexal pathologies but is less effective for directly visualizing the **cervical surface** where post-coital bleeding often originates. - It would be considered if there are other symptoms suggesting uterine or ovarian issues that aren't typically associated with post-coital bleeding alone. *Endometrial biopsy* - An **endometrial biopsy** is indicated for investigating **abnormal uterine bleeding** originating from the endometrium, such as in cases of suspected **endometrial hyperplasia** or cancer. - Post-coital bleeding is generally not an indication for an initial endometrial biopsy unless other findings suggest an endometrial origin.
Question 8: A 67-year-old female with hypertension and diabetes presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. What is the next step in management?
- A. Endometrial biopsy (Correct Answer)
- B. Pelvic ultrasound
- C. Detailed history and physical examination
- D. Complete blood count and coagulation studies
Explanation: ***Endometrial biopsy*** - **Postmenopausal bleeding is endometrial cancer until proven otherwise** - this is a fundamental principle in gynecology requiring immediate tissue diagnosis. - **Endometrial biopsy is the first-line investigation** for any postmenopausal woman presenting with vaginal bleeding, as per **ACOG, RCOG, and WHO guidelines**. - An office endometrial biopsy (using **Pipelle sampler**) can be performed quickly and has **90-97% sensitivity** for detecting endometrial cancer and hyperplasia. - In this 67-year-old patient with risk factors (hypertension, diabetes), direct tissue sampling is mandatory to rule out **endometrial carcinoma**, which is the most concerning etiology. - If office biopsy is inadequate or negative but bleeding persists, proceed to **hysteroscopy with directed biopsy** or **dilatation and curettage (D&C)**. *Pelvic ultrasound* - While transvaginal ultrasound can assess **endometrial thickness** (cancer unlikely if <4-5mm in postmenopausal women), it **cannot replace histological diagnosis**. - Ultrasound may be used as an **adjunct** or for **triage in resource-limited settings**, but in established postmenopausal bleeding, **tissue diagnosis takes priority**. - Some protocols use ultrasound first, but the definitive diagnostic step remains biopsy, and many guidelines recommend proceeding directly to biopsy in postmenopausal bleeding. *Detailed history and physical examination* - History and examination are **always performed initially** when a patient presents, but the question asks for the "next step in management" after the presentation is established. - These would have already been completed to confirm postmenopausal status, exclude obvious causes (trauma, atrophic vaginitis), and assess hemodynamic stability. - The "next step" implies the specific diagnostic or therapeutic intervention to identify the cause. *Complete blood count and coagulation studies* - **CBC** helps assess the degree of anemia from blood loss and guides need for transfusion. - **Coagulation studies** may identify bleeding disorders but are not routinely indicated unless clinical suspicion exists. - These investigations are **supportive** but do not identify the **anatomical source** or **histological cause** of bleeding, which is essential for management of postmenopausal bleeding.
Question 9: Consider the following statements regarding Uterine Leiomyoma: 1. Prevalence is highest between 35 and 45 years 2. More common in nulliparous women 3. Display reversible shrinkage after treatment with GnRH 4. Requires to be treated only if symptomatic Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A. 2 and 3 only
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2, 3 and 4*** - **Statement 1 is correct**: The prevalence of uterine leiomyomas is highest between **35 and 45 years of age**, as these are estrogen-dependent tumors that grow during reproductive years and peak in the 4th-5th decades. - **Statement 2 is correct**: Leiomyomas are **more common in nulliparous women**. Nulliparity is a well-established risk factor for fibroids. Each full-term pregnancy is associated with a reduced risk of developing fibroids, likely due to hormonal changes and uterine remodeling during pregnancy. - **Statement 3 is correct**: GnRH agonists cause **reversible shrinkage** of leiomyomas (typically 30-60% volume reduction). The term "reversible" accurately describes that fibroids regrow after treatment cessation. This makes GnRH agonists useful for preoperative shrinkage or temporary symptom relief, but not a permanent solution. - **Statement 4 is correct**: Leiomyomas **require treatment only if symptomatic**. Asymptomatic fibroids are managed with observation. Treatment is indicated for symptoms like menorrhagia, pelvic pain, pressure symptoms, or reproductive issues. *1 and 4 only* - Incorrect because statements 2 and 3 are also correct. *2 and 3 only* - Incorrect because statements 1 and 4 are also correct. *1, 2 and 3 only* - Incorrect because statement 4 is also correct.
Question 10: A 25-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. On examination, there is a mass arising from the hypogastrium corresponding to 16 weeks gravid uterus. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Ovarian tumour
- C. Uterine fibroid (Correct Answer)
- D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation: ***Uterine fibroid*** - The combination of **heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)**, **abdominal pain**, and a **palpable mass in the hypogastrium** corresponding to a 16-week gravid uterus in a young woman with a **negative pregnancy test** is classic for uterine fibroid. - Fibroids (leiomyomas) are **benign smooth muscle tumors** of the uterus that can grow to significant size, causing **bulk-related symptoms** and **abnormal uterine bleeding**. - This represents a **large symptomatic fibroid** with the classic triad: menorrhagia, pelvic mass, and pelvic pressure/pain. *Endometriosis* - While endometriosis can cause **cyclical pelvic pain** and **dysmenorrhea**, it typically does not present as a large, palpable mass mimicking a 16-week gravid uterus. - Endometriomas (chocolate cysts) can form masses but are usually **adnexal** rather than central, and menorrhagia is not the primary symptom. *Ovarian tumour* - An ovarian tumor could present with an **abdominal mass** and **pain**, but heavy menstrual bleeding is not a typical feature unless it's a **hormonally active tumor** (rare). - The description of the mass specifically corresponding to a "**gravid uterus**" suggests a **uterine origin** rather than an adnexal mass. - Ovarian masses are typically felt **laterally** or can be more mobile. *Pelvic inflammatory disease* - PID commonly causes **acute pelvic pain**, **fever**, **vaginal discharge**, and **cervical motion tenderness**, but does not typically manifest as a large, smooth, palpable mass arising from the hypogastrium. - Tubo-ovarian abscesses can form masses but are usually **tender**, **irregular**, and associated with **systemic signs of infection**.
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