Contraceptive Counseling — MCQs
A 24 year old lactating female with an 18 month old child comes with a history of irregular, heavy bleeding seeking contraceptive advice. Which is the contraceptive of choice?
The contraceptive which is contraindicated in DVT is?
GATHER approach of counselling is used for
What is the recommended interval for administering DMPA, an injectable contraceptive?
'Cafeteria approach' is related with:
The mechanism of action of emergency contraception includes the following except:
What is the preferred method of contraception for a female with a family history of ovarian cancer?
Among the following intra-uterine contraceptive devices, which of the following are included in second generation IUDs? 1. Lippes Loop 2. Copper T-200 3. LNG-20 (Mirena) 4. Copper-T-380 A
All of the following are postcoital contraception methods except?
A woman comes after 96 hours post coitus. Best contraceptive of choice is?
Contraceptive Counseling Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 24 year old lactating female with an 18 month old child comes with a history of irregular, heavy bleeding seeking contraceptive advice. Which is the contraceptive of choice?
- A. Progestin-only pill (Correct Answer)
- B. Copper IUD
- C. Progestin-only injection
- D. Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation: ***Progestin-only pill*** - The **progestin-only pill (POP)** is the contraceptive of choice for lactating women because it does not affect **breast milk supply** or composition. - It works by thickening cervical mucus and thinning the **endometrium**, which can help reduce heavy bleeding and provide effective contraception. *Copper IUD* - While the **copper IUD** is a highly effective contraceptive, it is known to potentially increase **menstrual bleeding** and cramping. - Given the patient's history of **heavy bleeding**, a copper IUD might worsen her symptoms. *Progestin-only injection* - **Progestin-only injections** like DMPA are highly effective and safe for lactating women, but they can cause **irregular bleeding patterns** initially and are associated with a slower return to fertility. - While an option, the **progestin-only pill** offers more immediate control over menstrual patterns and easier discontinuation if side effects are problematic. *Combined oral contraceptive pill* - **Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs)** contain both estrogen and progestin. Estrogen can negatively impact **milk production** and may not be suitable for breastfeeding mothers, especially in the first 6 months postpartum. - COCs are generally avoided in lactating women until breastfeeding is well-established or after 6 months to prevent interference with **lactation**.
Question 2: The contraceptive which is contraindicated in DVT is?
- A. Barrier method
- B. Non hormonal IUCD
- C. Billing's method
- D. OCP (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***OCP*** - **Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)**, especially those containing estrogen, increase the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)**, including deep vein thrombosis (DVT). - Estrogen promotes a **hypercoagulable state** by increasing clotting factors and decreasing natural anticoagulants. *Barrier method* - **Barrier methods** like condoms or diaphragms are non-hormonal and act physically to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. - They have **no systemic effects** on coagulation and are safe for individuals with DVT. *Non hormonal IUCD* - **Non-hormonal intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs)**, such as copper IUCDs, prevent conception primarily by causing a local inflammatory reaction in the uterus. - They do not release hormones and therefore **do not affect coagulation** or increase DVT risk. *Billing's method* - The **Billing's ovulation method** (cervical mucus method) is a natural family planning technique based on observing changes in cervical mucus. - It involves no medications or devices and thus has **no impact on DVT risk**.
Question 3: GATHER approach of counselling is used for
- A. Breaking any bad news
- B. Communication of breast cancer prognosis
- C. Contraceptives (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Contraceptives*** - The **GATHER approach** (Greet, Ask, Tell, Help, Explain, Return) is a structured counseling model specifically designed for **family planning** and contraceptive guidance. - It ensures a comprehensive discussion that empowers individuals to make informed choices about their **contraceptive methods**. *Breaking any bad news* - Counseling for breaking bad news often utilizes models like **SPIKES (Setting, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Emotions, Strategy and Summary)**, which focus on empathy and managing patient reactions. - The GATHER approach is not specifically tailored for delivering difficult news, as its structure is more focused on information exchange and shared decision-making regarding a medical intervention. *Communication of breast cancer prognosis* - Communicating prognosis for serious illnesses like breast cancer requires a sensitive and nuanced approach, often integrating elements of **empathy, hope, and realistic expectations**. - While general communication skills are important, the GATHER model's steps are not specifically designed for the delicate nature of discussing a cancer prognosis. *All of the options* - The GATHER model is a specialized tool, and while its principles may overlap with good communication in general, it is not universally applicable to all counseling scenarios. - It is specifically optimized for guiding discussions and decisions related to **family planning and contraceptive use**.
Question 4: What is the recommended interval for administering DMPA, an injectable contraceptive?
- A. Three weeks
- B. Two months
- C. Three months (Correct Answer)
- D. Two years
Explanation: ***Three months*** - **Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)** is a long-acting reversible injectable contraceptive containing 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate. - The standard administration schedule is **every 12 weeks (3 months)**, with a grace period allowing administration up to 13-15 weeks to maintain contraceptive effectiveness. - DMPA works by **suppressing ovulation** through sustained progestogen levels, and the 3-month interval is based on its pharmacokinetics to maintain therapeutic levels. *Three weeks* - A three-week interval is typical for **combined oral contraceptive pill packs** (21 active pills followed by 7-day break), not for DMPA. - Administering DMPA at this frequency would lead to **excessive progestogen exposure** and unnecessary side effects, as the injection maintains contraceptive levels for 12-13 weeks. *Two months* - While a two-month interval provides longer protection than oral contraceptives, it is **not the standard recommended interval** for DMPA. - This interval would result in **premature readministration** before the previous dose's effect wanes, leading to unnecessary injections and potential side effects. *Two years* - A two-year interval is far too long for DMPA, which has a **duration of action of approximately 12-14 weeks** per injection. - Such an interval would result in **complete loss of contraceptive protection** within 3-4 months, with return of ovulation and risk of unintended pregnancy.
Question 5: 'Cafeteria approach' is related with:
- A. Diet program
- B. National vector borne disease control programme
- C. Child and maternal health
- D. Contraception (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Contraception*** - The **cafeteria approach** in contraception refers to offering a wide variety of **contraceptive methods** to individuals, allowing them to choose the option that best suits their needs, preferences, and circumstances. - This approach promotes **informed choice** and adherence by recognizing that no single contraceptive method is ideal for everyone. *Diet program* - While diet programs involve choices, the term **cafeteria approach** is not specifically or exclusively associated with the methodology of diet selection. - Diet programs typically focus on dietary guidelines or meal plans rather than a broad offering of methods. *National vector borne disease control programme* - This program focuses on managing and preventing **vector-borne diseases** through public health interventions, which does not involve individual "choices" in a cafeteria-style manner. - Its strategies include surveillance, vector control, and case management, without a direct "cafeteria approach" element. *Child and maternal health* - This broad field encompasses various health interventions, but the **cafeteria approach** is not a specific methodology used to describe comprehensive child and maternal health services. - While choices are involved in healthcare, this term is not standard in this context.
Question 6: The mechanism of action of emergency contraception includes the following except:
- A. Degeneration of corpus luteum (Correct Answer)
- B. Prevention of implantation of fertilized egg.
- C. Inhibition of fertilization
- D. By preventing or delaying ovulation
Explanation: ***Degeneration of corpus luteum*** - Emergency contraception primarily works by interfering with ovulation and fertilization. It does **not directly cause degeneration of the corpus luteum**. - The **corpus luteum** forms after ovulation, and its degradation is a natural process (luteolysis) if pregnancy does not occur. Emergency contraception acts earlier in the reproductive process and does not target the corpus luteum. - This is the **correct answer** as it is NOT a mechanism of emergency contraception. *By preventing or delaying ovulation* - This is the **primary mechanism** of action for most forms of emergency contraception, particularly those containing **levonorgestrel (LNG)** and **ulipristal acetate (UPA)**. - By delaying the release of an egg from the ovary, it prevents the possibility of fertilization. - This is the most established and clinically significant mechanism. *Inhibition of fertilization* - Emergency contraception may affect fertilization by altering **cervical mucus** thickness, making it less penetrable to sperm. - Some evidence suggests effects on **sperm motility** or function, though this mechanism is less well-established than ovulation inhibition. - This represents a possible secondary mechanism. *Prevention of implantation of fertilized egg* - **Current evidence does NOT support this as a mechanism** for levonorgestrel or ulipristal acetate emergency contraception. - Studies by **WHO, ACOG, FIGO, and ICMR** have shown that LNG-EC is ineffective once fertilization has occurred. - The **copper IUD** used for emergency contraception may have some anti-implantation effects due to its inflammatory action on the endometrium. - However, for hormonal EC (the most common form), prevention of implantation is **not an established mechanism** based on current medical evidence.
Question 7: What is the preferred method of contraception for a female with a family history of ovarian cancer?
- A. Progestin-only pills (POP)
- B. Copper intrauterine device (Cu IUCD)
- C. Condoms
- D. Combined oral contraceptive pills (OCP) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Combined oral contraceptive pills (OCP)*** - **OCPs** have been shown to significantly **reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by 30-50%**, with the protective effect increasing with duration of use. - This protection is attributed to **suppression of ovulation**, reducing repetitive ovulation-related epithelial damage and inflammation that contributes to ovarian cancer development. - The benefit **persists for years after discontinuation** and is particularly important for individuals with a family history of ovarian cancer, as it addresses a key modifiable risk factor. - **First-line recommendation** for contraception in women with family history of ovarian cancer. *Progestin-only pills (POP)* - While **POPs** are effective contraceptives and generally safe, they do **not offer the same well-established protective effect against ovarian cancer** as combined hormonal contraceptives. - Their primary mechanism is through thickening cervical mucus and suppressing ovulation, without the estrogen component. - Evidence for ovarian cancer protection is limited compared to combined OCPs. *Copper intrauterine device (Cu IUCD)* - The **Cu IUCD** provides highly effective contraception by creating a local inflammatory response in the uterus that is spermicidal. - It is a **non-hormonal method** and therefore does not impact the risk of ovarian cancer. - Excellent contraceptive option for other indications, but not specifically protective against ovarian cancer. *Condoms* - **Condoms** primarily prevent pregnancy by blocking sperm from reaching the egg and are effective in preventing sexually transmitted infections. - They are a **barrier method** and provide no hormonal protection against ovarian cancer. - Useful for STI prevention but not relevant to ovarian cancer risk reduction.
Question 8: Among the following intra-uterine contraceptive devices, which of the following are included in second generation IUDs? 1. Lippes Loop 2. Copper T-200 3. LNG-20 (Mirena) 4. Copper-T-380 A
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 3 and 4
- C. 2 and 4 only (Correct Answer)
- D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: ***2 and 4 only*** - Second-generation IUDs are primarily **copper-releasing devices** with more effective copper surface areas, such as **Copper T-200** and **Copper T-380A**, designed for improved efficacy and longer duration of action [1]. - These devices leverage **copper's spermicidal and inflammatory properties** to prevent fertilization and implantation [1]. *1 and 2 only* - The **Lippes Loop** is a first-generation IUD, a non-medicated plastic device, while the **Copper T-200** is indeed a second-generation device [1]. - This option incorrectly groups a first-generation device with a second-generation one, making it incomplete for identifying all second-generation IUDs mentioned. *2 and 3 only* - While **Copper T-200** is correctly identified as a second-generation device, **LNG-20 (Mirena)** is a third-generation hormone-releasing IUD [1]. - This option incorrectly groups a second-generation copper device with a third-generation levonorgestrel-releasing device [2]. *1, 3 and 4* - The **Lippes Loop** is a first-generation IUD, making its inclusion incorrect for second-generation devices [1]. - **LNG-20 (Mirena)** is a third-generation, hormone-releasing IUD, distinct from the copper-based second-generation devices [2].
Question 9: All of the following are postcoital contraception methods except?
- A. IUD
- B. Levonorgestrel
- C. Mifepristone
- D. Barrier methods (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Barrier methods*** - **Barrier methods** like condoms or diaphragms are used *during* intercourse to prevent pregnancy and STIs. - They are not a form of **postcoital contraception** as they do not act *after* unprotected sex has occurred. *Mifepristone* - **Mifepristone** can be used as an **emergency contraceptive** by delaying or inhibiting ovulation, or by altering the endometrium to prevent implantation. - It works *after* unprotected intercourse and is an effective form of **postcoital contraception**. *IUD* - The **copper intrauterine device (IUD)** can be inserted as an **emergency contraceptive** up to 5 days after unprotected intercourse. - It prevents pregnancy primarily by creating a **spermicidal inflammatory reaction** in the uterus, making it unsuitable for implantation. *Levonorgestrel* - **Levonorgestrel-only pills** are a common form of **emergency contraception**, sometimes known as the "morning-after" pill. - They work by **delaying or inhibiting ovulation** and are effective when taken *within 72 hours* of unprotected sex.
Question 10: A woman comes after 96 hours post coitus. Best contraceptive of choice is?
- A. Progesterone only pills
- B. OCP
- C. IUCD (Correct Answer)
- D. Mifepristone
Explanation: ***IUCD*** - An **intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD)** can be inserted up to **5 days (120 hours)** after unprotected intercourse or within 5 days of the earliest estimated ovulation. - It is the **most effective form of emergency contraception**, offering approximately **99% efficacy**. - Provides **immediate ongoing contraception** after insertion, making it the optimal choice at 96 hours post-coitus. *Progesterone only pills* - **Progesterone-only emergency contraceptive pills** (e.g., levonorgestrel) are most effective when taken within **72 hours (3 days)** of unprotected intercourse. - At **96 hours**, their efficacy is **significantly reduced**, making them suboptimal compared to IUCD. *OCP* - **Combined oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)** used for emergency contraception (Yuzpe method) are less effective and have more side effects than other emergency contraceptive methods. - Their effectiveness also significantly declines after **72 hours** post-coitus. *Mifepristone* - **Mifepristone** is an **anti-progestin** that can be used for emergency contraception within **120 hours (5 days)** of unprotected intercourse. - While effective within this timeframe at **96 hours**, the **IUCD remains superior** due to its higher efficacy (>99% vs ~98%) and provision of ongoing contraception.
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