Mycology — MCQs

Mycology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 311: Which of the following is NOT true about Cryptococcus neoformans?

A. It is a yeast.
B. It is capsulated.
C. It produces a germ tube. (Correct Answer)
D. It can cause meningitis.

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Why Option C is the correct answer:** The **Germ Tube Test** is a specific diagnostic test used to identify ***Candida albicans*** and *Candida dubliniensis*. When these species are incubated in human or rabbit serum at 37°C for 2–3 hours, they produce true hyphae-like extensions without constriction at the origin (germ tubes). **Cryptococcus neoformans** is an obligate yeast; it does not produce germ tubes, pseudohyphae, or true hyphae in clinical specimens or standard cultures. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (It is a yeast):** This is true. Unlike many other systemic fungi that are dimorphic, *Cryptococcus* is a monomorphic yeast both at room temperature and at 37°C. * **Option B (It is capsulated):** This is true. Its prominent **polysaccharide capsule** (Glucuronoxylomannan) is its primary virulence factor. It is the only medically important fungus that is routinely identified by its capsule using **India Ink** (negative staining). * **Option D (It can cause meningitis):** This is true. *C. neoformans* is the most common cause of fungal meningitis, particularly in immunocompromised patients (e.g., HIV/AIDS with CD4 counts <100 cells/µL). **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** 1. **Source:** Associated with **pigeon droppings** and soil. 2. **Urease Test:** *Cryptococcus* is **Urease positive** (unlike *Candida*). 3. **Culture:** Grows on Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA); produces **creamy mucoid colonies**. 4. **Phenol Oxidase:** Produces melanin on **Bird Seed Agar** (Niger Seed Agar), appearing as brown/black colonies. 5. **Antigen Detection:** Latex Agglutination test for capsular antigen is more sensitive than India Ink for CSF diagnosis.

Question 312: What is the most common fungal infection in patients with febrile neutropenia?

A. Aspergillus niger
B. Candida albicans (Correct Answer)
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Mucormycosis

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Febrile neutropenia** is a medical emergency defined as a single oral temperature of >38.3°C (101°F) or >38.0°C (100.4°F) sustained for over one hour in a patient with an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) <500 cells/mm³. **Why Candida albicans is correct:** Fungi are a major cause of persistent fever in neutropenic patients who do not respond to broad-spectrum antibiotics. Among these, **Candida species** are the most frequently isolated fungal pathogens. *Candida albicans* remains the most common species overall, typically originating from the patient's own endogenous flora (gastrointestinal tract) following mucosal barrier damage caused by chemotherapy. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Aspergillus fumigatus:** While *Aspergillus* is the most common **mould** (filamentous fungus) causing invasive infection in neutropenic patients, it ranks second to *Candida* in overall frequency. It is primarily acquired via inhalation. * **Aspergillus niger:** This species is more commonly associated with otomycosis (fungal ear infections) rather than systemic infection in febrile neutropenia. * **Mucormycosis:** Caused by *Rhizopus* or *Mucor*, this is a highly aggressive infection seen in neutropenic patients and diabetics, but it is significantly less common than Candidiasis or Aspergillosis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **First-line Empiric Antifungal:** Echinocandins (e.g., Caspofungin) are now preferred over Fluconazole for suspected systemic Candidiasis in hemodynamically unstable neutropenic patients. 2. **Investigation of Choice:** For invasive Candidiasis, blood culture is standard; for invasive Aspergillosis, **Galactomannan assay** and High-Resolution CT (HRCT) showing the **"Halo Sign"** are high-yield diagnostic markers. 3. **Risk Factor:** The duration and severity of neutropenia are the most critical risk factors for developing these opportunistic fungal infections.

Question 313: Which of the following is true for Candida?

A. Dimorphic fungi
B. Moulds
C. Yeast
D. Yeast-like fungus (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. Yeast-like fungus**. **Why it is correct:** *Candida albicans* is classified as a **yeast-like fungus** because it primarily grows as unicellular budding cells (yeasts) but, unlike true yeasts, it fails to separate after budding. This results in the formation of elongated chains called **pseudohyphae**. While true yeasts (like *Saccharomyces*) only exist as single cells, *Candida*’s ability to form these "false filaments" defines its yeast-like status. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **A. Dimorphic fungi:** These fungi exist as moulds in the environment (25°C) and as yeasts in host tissues (37°C) (e.g., *Histoplasma*, *Blastomyces*). *Candida* is often called "polymorphic" because it can form yeasts, pseudohyphae, and true hyphae simultaneously at 37°C, but it does not follow the classic temperature-dependent dimorphism. * **B. Moulds:** These are multicellular fungi that form true mycelia/hyphae (e.g., *Aspergillus*, *Rhizopus*). * **C. Yeast:** While *Candida* buds like a yeast, the term "True Yeast" is reserved for organisms that do not produce pseudohyphae and reproduce by transverse division or budding with complete separation. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Germ Tube Test (Reynolds-Braude Phenomenon):** A definitive diagnostic test for *C. albicans*. When incubated in serum for 2 hours at 37°C, it produces true hyphae (germ tubes) with no constriction at the origin. 2. **Chlamydospores:** On Cornmeal Agar (CMA), *C. albicans* produces thick-walled, resting spores called chlamydospores. 3. **Phenotypic Switching:** *Candida* can switch between different morphological forms to evade the host immune system and invade tissues. 4. **Culture:** Grows as creamy white, smooth colonies with a characteristic "yeasty" odor on Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA).

Question 314: What is the drug of choice for paracoccidioidomycosis?

A. Nystatin
B. Fluconazole
C. Ketoconazole
D. Amphotericin B (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Paracoccidioidomycosis** (South American Blastomycosis) is a systemic fungal infection caused by the dimorphic fungus *Paracoccidioides brasiliensis*. **Why Amphotericin B is the Correct Answer:** For **severe or disseminated forms** of paracoccidioidomycosis, **Amphotericin B** is the drug of choice for initial induction therapy. It is the most potent antifungal agent and is required to rapidly reduce the fungal burden in life-threatening cases. Following stabilization with Amphotericin B, patients are typically transitioned to long-term maintenance therapy with azoles or sulfonamides. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Nystatin (A):** This is a polyene antifungal used only for **topical or oral (luminal)** candidiasis. It is not absorbed systemically and is ineffective for deep-seated systemic mycoses. * **Fluconazole (B):** While an azole, it has relatively poor activity against *P. brasiliensis* compared to Itraconazole. It is not the primary choice for systemic management. * **Ketoconazole (C):** Although historically used, it has been largely replaced by **Itraconazole** (the drug of choice for mild-to-moderate cases) due to Ketoconazole’s significant side effects, including hepatotoxicity and inhibition of steroidogenesis. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Microscopic Appearance:** Classically described as a **"Pilot’s wheel"** or **"Mariner’s wheel"** appearance due to multiple budding yeast cells. 2. **Epidemiology:** Primarily found in **South and Central America** (Brazil); often affects agricultural workers. 3. **Clinical Presentation:** Often involves painful **mucocutaneous ulcers** (mouth and nose) and lymphadenopathy. 4. **Maintenance Therapy:** For non-severe cases, **Itraconazole** is the preferred oral agent. Sulfonamides (TMP-SMX) are also an effective, low-cost alternative for long-term suppression.

Question 315: A patient who recently underwent denture fixation presents with oral thrush that bleeds on scraping. What is the causative agent for this condition?

A. Diphtheria
B. Candida (Correct Answer)
C. Strep Mutans
D. Staph Aureus

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of white, curd-like patches on the oral mucosa that **bleed upon scraping** (erythematous base) is the hallmark of **Pseudomembranous Candidiasis** (Oral Thrush). In this case, the recent denture fixation is a significant predisposing factor, as dentures can create a microenvironment (stomatitis) conducive to the overgrowth of *Candida albicans*, an opportunistic fungus. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Diphtheria:** Caused by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*, it presents with a "greyish-white pseudomembrane" on the tonsils/pharynx. Unlike Candida, this membrane is tough, leathery, and very difficult to scrape off; attempting to do so causes profuse bleeding. * **Strep Mutans:** This is the primary causative agent of **dental caries** (tooth decay) due to its ability to produce acid from dietary sugars. It does not cause thrush or scrapable white patches. * **Staph Aureus:** While it can cause skin infections or angular cheilitis, it is not the typical cause of white, scrapable oral plaques. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Risk Factors:** Immunosuppression (HIV/AIDS - often the first sign), prolonged antibiotic use, inhaled corticosteroids (asthma), and diabetes mellitus. * **Diagnosis:** KOH mount of the scrapings shows **budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae**. * **Culture:** Grows on **Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA)** as creamy white colonies. *C. albicans* is specifically identified by a positive **Germ Tube Test**. * **Treatment:** Topical Nystatin or oral Fluconazole.

Question 316: What type of pneumonia is typically caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii?

A. Lobar pneumonia
B. Interstitial pneumonia (Correct Answer)
C. Bronchopneumonia
D. Any of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Pneumocystis jirovecii** (formerly *P. carinii*) is an atypical fungus that primarily causes **Interstitial Pneumonia**, particularly in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., HIV/AIDS patients with CD4 counts <200 cells/µL). **Why Interstitial Pneumonia is correct:** The organism attaches to Type I pneumocytes, leading to alveolar damage and an inflammatory response within the alveolar walls (interstitium). This results in a characteristic **"ground-glass opacity"** on HRCT and a **"bat-wing"** appearance on chest X-rays. Histologically, the alveoli are filled with a distinctive **foamy, eosinophilic exudate** (honeycomb appearance), but the consolidation is diffuse and interstitial rather than localized to a lobe or bronchus. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Lobar pneumonia:** Typically caused by bacteria like *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, involving the consolidation of an entire lobe. *P. jirovecii* presents with diffuse, bilateral infiltrates. * **Bronchopneumonia:** Characterized by patchy consolidation centered around bronchioles, usually caused by *Staphylococcus aureus* or *Klebsiella*. *P. jirovecii* does not follow a bronchial distribution. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Stains of Choice:** **Gomori Methenamine Silver (GMS)** stain (shows crushed-cup/disk-shaped cysts) and **Toluidine blue O**. * **Clinical Marker:** Elevated **Serum Beta-D-Glucan** (a component of the fungal cell wall). * **Treatment:** Drug of choice is **Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)**. * **Prophylaxis:** Indicated in HIV patients when CD4 count falls below **200 cells/µL**. * **Key Symptom:** Exertional dyspnea with a non-productive cough and a significant "desaturation on exercise."

Question 317: Which fungus possesses a capsule?

A. Candida
B. Aspergillus
C. Cryptococcus (Correct Answer)
D. Mucor

Explanation: **Explanation:** The presence of a polysaccharide capsule is a defining characteristic of **Cryptococcus neoformans**, making it unique among clinically significant fungi. This capsule is primarily composed of **Glucuronoxylomannan (GXM)**, which acts as a potent virulence factor by inhibiting phagocytosis and suppressing T-cell responses. **Why Cryptococcus is correct:** * It is the only medically important fungus that is **encapsulated**. * The capsule does not stain with common dyes, creating a "halo" effect against a dark background in **India Ink** or Nigrosin preparations of CSF. * It can also be visualized using specific stains like **Mucicarmine** (stains the capsule red) or Alcian blue. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Candida:** A budding yeast (with pseudohyphae) that lacks a polysaccharide capsule. Its primary virulence factors are biofilm formation and phenotypic switching. * **Aspergillus:** A filamentous fungus (mold) characterized by septate hyphae with acute-angle branching. It is non-encapsulated. * **Mucor:** A member of the Zygomycetes family, it presents as broad, non-septate hyphae with right-angle branching. It does not possess a capsule. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Diagnosis:** The **Cryptococcal Antigen (CrAg)** test (Latex agglutination or LFA) is more sensitive than India Ink. * **Culture:** Grows on **Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA)** as mucoid colonies; also grows on **Bird Seed Agar** (Niger seed agar) producing melanin (brown-black colonies) via phenoloxidase activity. * **Clinical:** Most common cause of fungal meningitis in HIV/AIDS patients (CD4 <100). * **Treatment:** Induction with Amphotericin B + Flucytosine, followed by Fluconazole.

Question 318: Thick-walled, resting spores of round shape and thickening of the hyphal segments are a feature of which of the following?

A. Arthrospore
B. Chlamydospore (Correct Answer)
C. Basidiospore
D. Conidiospore

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: B. Chlamydospore** Chlamydospores are thick-walled, asexual, **resting spores** formed by the rounding up and thickening of vegetative hyphal segments. They are designed for survival during unfavorable environmental conditions. In medical mycology, the production of terminal chlamydospores on Cornmeal Agar is a definitive diagnostic feature used to identify ***Candida albicans***, distinguishing it from other *Candida* species. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Arthrospore:** These are formed by the fragmentation of septate hyphae into individual square or rectangular cells (e.g., *Coccidioides immitis*, *Dermatophytes*). They do not involve significant wall thickening or "rounding up" of segments. * **C. Basidiospore:** These are sexual spores produced externally on a club-shaped structure called a basidium. They are characteristic of the phylum Basidiomycota (e.g., *Cryptococcus*). * **D. Conidiospore:** This is a broad term for asexual spores produced at the tips or sides of hyphae (conidiophores). Unlike chlamydospores, they are not typically "resting" spores formed from the hyphal segment itself but are specialized reproductive structures (e.g., *Aspergillus*, *Penicillium*). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Candida albicans:** Produces **terminal** chlamydospores. * **Germ Tube Test (Reynolds-Braude Phenomenon):** The earliest screening test for *C. albicans*. * **Histoplasma capsulatum:** Characterized by **tuberculate macroconidia** (thick-walled with finger-like projections) at 25°C. * **Dermatophytes:** *Microsporum* is identified by its spindle-shaped macroconidia, while *Trichophyton* has predominant microconidia.

Question 319: Which of the following stains is used to demonstrate yeast forms of Cryptococci in tissue sections?

A. Mucicarmine (Correct Answer)
B. Perl's
C. Sudan black
D. Masson Fontana

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Mucicarmine is correct:** *Cryptococcus neoformans* is unique among pathogenic fungi because it possesses a thick **polysaccharide capsule** composed of glucuronoxylomannan. **Mayer’s Mucicarmine** stain specifically targets these acidic mucopolysaccharides, staining the capsule a vibrant **rose-red/pink** against a yellow background. This is the gold standard for demonstrating the yeast forms in tissue sections (histopathology), helping to differentiate it from other non-encapsulated yeasts like *Candida*. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Perl’s Prussian Blue:** Used to detect **Iron** (ferric ions). It is the stain of choice for identifying hemosiderin in tissues (e.g., in Hemochromatosis). * **Sudan Black B:** A lipophilic stain used to demonstrate **Lipids/Fats**. In hematology, it is used to differentiate Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) from Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL). * **Masson Fontana:** Used to detect **Melanin**. While *Cryptococcus* does produce melanin in its cell wall (visible with this stain), Mucicarmine is more specific and classically associated with the capsule in tissue sections. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **India Ink:** Used for CSF (negative staining); highlights the translucent capsule against a dark background. * **Gomori Methenamine Silver (GMS) & PAS:** General fungal stains that stain the cell wall of *Cryptococcus* but not the capsule. * **Latex Agglutination Test:** Detects the capsular antigen in CSF/Serum; more sensitive than India Ink. * **Culture:** Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA) shows creamy, mucoid colonies. Niger Seed/Bird Seed Agar is used to demonstrate melanin production (brown-black colonies).

Question 320: Sporulation from flask-shaped, pigmented projections is commonly observed in which one of the following fungi?

A. E. floccosum
B. C. immitis
C. P. verrucosa (Correct Answer)
D. M. canis

Explanation: **Explanation:** The question describes **Phialophora type of sporulation**, which is a diagnostic hallmark of **Phialophora verrucosa**, one of the primary causative agents of **Chromoblastomycosis**. 1. **Why P. verrucosa is correct:** In this fungus, conidia are produced from **phialides**. These are characteristic **flask-shaped or vase-shaped** pigmented projections (conidiogenous cells) that possess a distinct, darkened, cup-like collarette at the apex. The conidia are typically extruded in clusters from these openings, resembling a "bouquet of flowers" in a vase. 2. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **E. floccosum (Epidermophyton):** A dermatophyte characterized by large, smooth-walled, **club-shaped (macroconidia)** arranged in pairs or triplets. It lacks microconidia and flask-shaped phialides. * **C. immitis (Coccidioides):** A dimorphic fungus that forms **spherules** filled with endospores in tissue and **arthroconidia** (rectangular, barrel-shaped spores) in culture. * **M. canis (Microsporum):** A dermatophyte known for spindle-shaped, thick-walled macroconidia with **tapered, recurved (hooked) ends**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Chromoblastomycosis:** A chronic subcutaneous mycosis characterized by "cauliflower-like" lesions. * **Sclerotic Bodies (Medlar Bodies):** The pathognomonic finding in histopathology—thick-walled, dark brown, copper-colored structures (resembling "copper pennies") that divide by septation, not budding. * **Other Sporulation Types in Chromoblastomycosis:** * *Cladosporium type:* Branching chains of conidia (Shield cells). * *Rhinocladiella type:* Conidia borne laterally and terminally on a conidiophore (Acrotheca type).

Practice by Chapter

Classification of Fungi

Practice Questions

Superficial Mycoses

Practice Questions

Dermatophytes

Practice Questions

Subcutaneous Mycoses

Practice Questions

Candidiasis

Practice Questions

Aspergillosis

Practice Questions

Cryptococcosis

Practice Questions

Zygomycosis

Practice Questions

Endemic Mycoses

Practice Questions

Opportunistic Fungal Infections

Practice Questions

Antifungal Agents

Practice Questions

Laboratory Diagnosis of Fungal Infections

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free

Mycology — MCQs

Mycology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?