Mycology Practice Questions

Q: Cigar bodies are seen in which condition?

Sporotrichosis. **Explanation:** **Sporotrichosis** is a subcutaneous fungal infection caused by the dimorphic fungus *Sporothrix schenckii*. The correct answer is **A** because "Cigar bodies" are the characteristic tissue form of this fungus. * **Why it is correct:** In tissue biopsies (at 37°C), *Sporothrix schenckii* exists as pleomorphic, elongated, fusiform yeast cells measuring 1–3 µm by 3–10 µm. Their elongated shape resembles a cigar, hence the term **"Cigar bodies."** These are often difficult to visualize on routine H&E stains and are better seen with PAS or GMS stains. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Chromoblastomycosis:** Characterized by **Medlar bodies** (Sclerotic bodies/Copper-penny bodies), which are thick-walled, dark brown, multiseptate fungal cells. * **Mycetoma:** Characterized by the presence of **grains** or granules (sulfur granules in actinomycetoma or fungal hyphae in eumycetoma) draining from sinuses. * **Basidiomycosis:** Typically presents as subcutaneous zygomycosis (e.g., *Conidiobolus*), characterized by thin-walled, sparsely septate hyphae often surrounded by an eosinophilic halo (**Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon**). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Occupational Hazard:** Known as **"Rose Gardener’s Disease"** due to traumatic inoculation via thorns. * **Clinical Presentation:** Presents as a linear chain of nodules along the lymphatic drainage (**Sporotrichoid spread**). * **Asteroid Bodies:** In tissue, yeast cells may be surrounded by eosinophilic radiating processes (Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon), termed Asteroid bodies. * **Culture:** At 25°C, it shows a "Flower-like" or **"Daisy petal"** arrangement of conidia. * **Treatment:** Drug of choice is **Itraconazole**. Historically, saturated solution of potassium iodide (SSKI) was used.

Q: Which dermatophyte species does not involve the nail?

Microsporum. ### Explanation The correct answer is **Microsporum**. The classification of dermatophytes into three genera—*Trichophyton*, *Microsporum*, and *Epidermophyton*—is based on the specific keratinized tissues they can invade (skin, hair, and nails). **1. Why Microsporum is correct:** *Microsporum* species primarily infect the **hair and skin**. They lack the biochemical capability to effectively invade the nail plate. Therefore, it is the only genus among the three that does not cause Onychomycosis (nail infection). **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Trichophyton:** This is the most versatile genus. It can involve all three keratinized structures: **Skin, Hair, and Nails**. *T. rubrum* is the most common cause of Onychomycosis worldwide. * **Epidermophyton:** This genus involves the **Skin and Nails** but notably **does not involve the hair**. *Epidermophyton floccosum* is a common cause of Tinea cruris and Onychomycosis. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** To quickly memorize the tissue involvement, use this simple table: | Genus | Skin | Hair | Nails | | :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: | | **Trichophyton** | Yes | Yes | Yes | | **Microsporum** | Yes | Yes | **No** | | **Epidermophyton** | Yes | **No** | Yes | * **Wood’s Lamp Examination:** *Microsporum* species (like *M. audouinii* and *M. canis*) typically show a brilliant greenish fluorescence, whereas most *Trichophyton* species (except *T. schoenleinii*) do not fluoresce. * **Macroconidia Shape:** *Microsporum* has spindle-shaped macroconidia, *Trichophyton* has pencil-shaped, and *Epidermophyton* has club-shaped macroconidia.

Q: A 31-year-old woman has had vulvar pruritus along with a thick, whitish, odorless, globular vaginal discharge for the past week. On pelvic examination, the cervix appears erythematous, but there are no erosions or masses. A Pap smear shows budding cells and pseudo hyphae. No dysplastic cells are present. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to produce these findings?

Candida albicans. ### Explanation The clinical presentation and laboratory findings are classic for **Vulvovaginal Candidiasis (VVC)**, most commonly caused by *Candida albicans*. **Why the correct answer is right:** * **Clinical Features:** The "thick, whitish, odorless, globular" discharge is often described as **curd-like** or **cottage cheese-like**. Vulvar pruritus (itching) is the hallmark symptom. * **Microscopy:** The Pap smear (or a KOH mount) showing **budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae** is the definitive diagnostic feature for *Candida*. While Pap smears are for cytology, they frequently incidentally detect fungal elements. * **Physical Exam:** Erythema of the cervix and vaginal walls is common due to inflammation, but unlike other infections, the discharge remains odorless. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Chlamydia trachomatis:** Typically causes a mucopurulent cervicitis. It is an obligate intracellular bacterium and would not show pseudohyphae on microscopy. * **Neisseria gonorrhoeae:** Causes purulent cervical discharge and pelvic inflammatory disease. Diagnosis is via Gram stain (Gram-negative diplococci) or NAAT, not fungal elements. * **Trichomonas vaginalis:** Characterized by a **foul-smelling, greenish-yellow, frothy** discharge. On examination, one would expect a "strawberry cervix" (punctate hemorrhages) and motile flagellated organisms on a wet mount. **High-Yield Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Risk Factors:** Pregnancy, Diabetes Mellitus, recent antibiotic use, and immunosuppression (HIV). * **pH Level:** In Candidiasis, the vaginal pH is typically **normal ( 4.5. * **Treatment:** First-line treatment is topical or oral azoles (e.g., **Fluconazole** 150mg single dose). Note: Oral fluconazole is contraindicated in pregnancy; use topical clotrimazole instead.

Q: Pneumocystis carinii is classified as a fungus because?

All of the above.. **Explanation:** *Pneumocystis jirovecii* (formerly *P. carinii*) was historically classified as a protozoan due to its morphology (trophozoites and cysts) and lack of response to traditional antifungals like Amphotericin B. However, modern molecular and biochemical evidence has firmly reclassified it as a **fungus**. **Why Option D is Correct:** * **Molecular Evidence (Option A):** Phylogenetic analysis of its **18S ribosomal RNA**, mitochondrial protein gene sequences, and the structure of its **thymidylate synthase** enzyme show a closer genetic affinity to fungi (specifically Ascomycetes) than to protozoa. * **Cell Wall Composition (Option B):** The cell wall of *Pneumocystis* contains **glucans** (specifically β-1,3-glucan), which is a hallmark of fungal cell walls. This is the target for Echinocandins, though they are only active against the cyst stage. * **Antifungal Sensitivity (Option C):** While it is resistant to many drugs, it is sensitive to certain antifungal-like actions. More importantly, its biochemical pathways align with fungal metabolism. Note: While Co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice, the biological classification is based on the organism's inherent fungal machinery. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Taxonomy:** It is an atypical, unicellular fungus. * **Staining:** **Gomori Methenamine Silver (GMS)** stain is the gold standard for visualizing the characteristic "crushed ping-pong ball" appearance of cysts. * **Cell Membrane:** Unlike most fungi, *Pneumocystis* **lacks ergosterol** in its cell membrane (it contains cholesterol instead), which explains why Amphotericin B and Azoles are ineffective. * **Clinical Presentation:** It is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS patients (CD4 count <200 cells/µL), typically presenting as interstitial plasma cell pneumonia. * **Drug of Choice:** Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Co-trimoxazole).

Q: Which of the following statements about mycetoma is false?

It is uncommon in India.. **Explanation:** **Mycetoma** is a chronic, granulomatous, subcutaneous infection characterized by a clinical triad of localized swelling, multiple interconnecting sinus tracts, and the discharge of grains (sulfur granules). **1. Why Option D is the Correct Answer (The False Statement):** Mycetoma is **not uncommon** in India. In fact, India is part of the global "Mycetoma Belt" (along with Sudan, Mexico, and Venezuela). It is endemic in several Indian states, particularly Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal. It primarily affects rural laborers and farmers who walk barefoot, leading to traumatic inoculation of the causative agents from the soil. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (True):** While the foot is the most common site ("Madura Foot"), mycetoma can affect any part of the body exposed to trauma, including the hands (upper extremities), back, and shoulders. * **Option B (True):** It is caused by two distinct groups: **Actinomycetoma** (caused by filamentous bacteria like *Nocardia*, *Actinomadura*, and *Streptomyces*) and **Eumycetoma** (caused by true fungi like *Madurella mycetomatis*). * **Option C (True):** Diagnosis relies on the macroscopic and microscopic examination of **grains** discharged from the sinus tracts in the pus. The color, size, and consistency of these grains provide a preliminary identification of the causative agent. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Actinomycetoma:** Faster progression, more inflammatory, responds to antibiotics (Welsh regimen: Amikacin + Cotrimoxazole). * **Eumycetoma:** Slower progression, well-defined margins, requires surgical debridement and long-term antifungals (Itraconazole). * **Grains:** Black grains are pathognomonic for **Eumycetoma** (*Madurella*). Red grains suggest *Actinomadura pelletieri*. White/Yellow grains can be seen in both types.

Q: Cerebral infarction is caused by which of the following fungi?

Mucor. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Mucor**. The underlying medical concept is **angioinvasion**. **1. Why Mucor is correct:** Fungi belonging to the order Mucorales (Mucor, Rhizopus, Lichtheimia) are characterized by their aggressive ability to invade blood vessel walls (angioinvasion). In patients with predisposing factors like uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus (especially DKA) or immunosuppression, these fungi cause **Rhinocerebral Mucormycosis**. The hyphae penetrate the endothelial lining, leading to thrombosis, vessel occlusion, and subsequent **hemorrhagic cerebral infarction** and necrosis. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Toxoplasma:** While it causes ring-enhancing lesions in the brain (especially in HIV patients), it is a protozoan, not a fungus, and typically causes encephalitis rather than primary infarction. * **Cryptococcus:** This fungus typically presents as chronic meningitis or meningoencephalitis. It spreads via the Virchow-Robin spaces (causing "soap bubble" lesions) but is not primarily angioinvasive. * **Aspergillus:** While *Aspergillus* is also angioinvasive and can cause infarction, **Mucor** is the classic association for rapid, fulminant cerebral infarction in the context of the "Rhinocerebral" clinical presentation often tested in NEET-PG. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Morphology:** Mucor has broad, **aseptate** hyphae with **wide-angled (90°)** branching. (Contrast with Aspergillus: narrow, septate, 45° branching). * **Clinical Sign:** Look for a **black eschar** on the palate or nasal turbinates. * **Treatment:** Surgical debridement + Liposomal **Amphotericin B**. Isavuconazole is an alternative. * **Predisposition:** Ketone reductase enzyme in *Rhizopus* allows it to thrive in acidic environments (DKA).

Q: A 53-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease who received a kidney transplant was maintained on an immunosuppressive regimen. Three months later, she developed a fever (38.3°C) and acute renal failure. Renal transplant biopsy was performed, and Periodic acid-Schiff staining showed yeast cells and hyphae. What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's infection?

Candida albicans. ### Explanation **Correct Answer: B. Candida albicans** The clinical presentation of a post-transplant patient on immunosuppressants developing fever and renal failure, combined with the histopathological finding of **both yeast cells and hyphae**, is classic for *Candida albicans*. * **Underlying Concept:** *Candida albicans* is a dimorphic fungus (though often referred to as polymorphic) that exists as oval budding yeast cells and produces **pseudohyphae** and **true hyphae** in tissue. In immunocompromised states (like post-transplant), it can cause disseminated candidiasis, often involving the kidneys. The PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff) stain is excellent for highlighting these fungal elements in tissue sections. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Aspergillus fumigatus:** This is a filamentous fungus. It presents only as **septate hyphae** with acute-angle (45°) branching; it **does not** form yeast cells. * **C. Candida glabrata:** Unlike *C. albicans*, *C. glabrata* exists **only as yeast cells** and does not form hyphae or pseudohyphae. It is also smaller in size. * **D. Cryptococcus neoformans:** This is an encapsulated yeast. In tissue, it appears as **round-to-oval budding yeast** with a prominent polysaccharide capsule (visible on India ink or Mucicarmine stain). It **does not** form hyphae. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Germ Tube Test:** Positive for *C. albicans* (Reynolds-Braude phenomenon). * **Chlamydospores:** *C. albicans* produces thick-walled terminal chlamydospores on Cornmeal agar. * **Morphology Rule:** If you see "Yeast + Hyphae/Pseudohyphae" in a biopsy, think *Candida albicans*. If you see "Only Hyphae," think *Aspergillus*. If you see "Only Yeast," think *Cryptococcus* or *Histoplasma*.

Q: At what angle do Aspergillus hyphae typically branch?

45 degrees. **Explanation:** The morphological identification of fungi in tissue sections is a high-yield topic for NEET-PG. The correct answer is **45 degrees** because *Aspergillus* species are characterized by **septate hyphae** that exhibit **dichotomous branching at acute angles** (typically 45°). * **Why Option A is correct:** The term "dichotomous" means the hyphae split into two equal branches. In *Aspergillus*, this branching occurs consistently at an acute angle (45°), resembling a "V" shape. This is a hallmark histological feature used to identify the fungus in specimens like lung biopsies or "fungus balls" (Aspergillomas). * **Why Options B and C are incorrect:** These options describe wide or right-angled branching. **90-degree (right-angle) branching** is the characteristic feature of **Mucormycosis** (caused by *Rhizopus*, *Mucor*, etc.). Unlike *Aspergillus*, Mucorales have broad, **non-septate (coenocytic)** hyphae with irregular widths. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Morphology Mnemonic:** **A**spergillus = **A**cute angle (45°) + **A**septate is false (it is Septate). 2. **Culture:** *Aspergillus* grows on Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA), producing velvety/powdery colonies. *A. fumigatus* is the most common pathogenic species. 3. **Staining:** Silver stains (GMS) and PAS are excellent for visualizing the septate hyphae. 4. **Clinical Presentation:** Look for "Monod’s Sign" (air crescent sign) on a chest X-ray, indicating an Aspergilloma within a pre-existing cavity.

Question 1

Cigar bodies are seen in which condition?

Accepted Answer

Sporotrichosis

Answer

Chromoblastomycosis

Answer

Mycetoma

Answer

Basidiomycosis

Question 2

Which dermatophyte species does not involve the nail?

Accepted Answer

Microsporum

Answer

Trichophyton

Answer

Epidermophyton

Answer

None of the above

Question 3

A 31-year-old woman has had vulvar pruritus along with a thick, whitish, odorless, globular vaginal discharge for the past week. On pelvic examination, the cervix appears erythematous, but there are no erosions or masses. A Pap smear shows budding cells and pseudo hyphae. No dysplastic cells are present. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to produce these findings?

Accepted Answer

Candida albicans

Answer

Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer

Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 4

All are true about Madura mycetoma except?

Accepted Answer

Presented as a painful nodular lesion for many months

Answer

Fungal infection

Answer

Discharging sinuses

Answer

Bone involvement seen

Question 5

Pneumocystis carinii is classified as a fungus because?

Accepted Answer

All of the above.

Answer

Its ribosomal RNA, mitochondrial protein gene sequence, and presence of thymidylate synthase.

Answer

Its cell wall contains glucans.

Answer

Antifungals are effective against P. carinii.

Question 6

Which of the following statements about mycetoma is false?

Accepted Answer

It is uncommon in India.

Answer

It can affect the lower and upper extremities.

Answer

It is caused by actinomycetes and filamentous fungi.

Answer

Diagnosis is made by examination of pus.

Question 7

Cryptococcus neoformans has a significant predilection for which body system?

Accepted Answer

Central nervous system

Answer

Respiratory system

Answer

Gastrointestinal system

Answer

Cardiovascular system

Question 8

Cerebral infarction is caused by which of the following fungi?

Accepted Answer

Mucor

Answer

Toxoplasma

Answer

Cryptococcus

Answer

Aspergillus

Question 9

A 53-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease who received a kidney transplant was maintained on an immunosuppressive regimen. Three months later, she developed a fever (38.3°C) and acute renal failure. Renal transplant biopsy was performed, and Periodic acid-Schiff staining showed yeast cells and hyphae. What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's infection?

Accepted Answer

Candida albicans

Answer

Aspergillus fumigatus

Answer

Candida glabrata

Answer

Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 10

At what angle do Aspergillus hyphae typically branch?

Accepted Answer

45 degrees

Answer

60-90 degrees

Answer

90-120 degrees

Answer

None of the above

Mycology — MCQs

Mycology — MCQs

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