Sleep-Disordered Breathing — MCQs
A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step?
Severe Obstructive sleep apnea is defined as AHI of greater than
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician complaining of excessive sleepiness for the past several months. He reports falling asleep while dealing with customers and had a near accident when he fell asleep while driving. The patient reports that he occasionally hears voices while falling asleep and finds himself "temporarily frozen" and unable to move upon awakening. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
All of the following criteria are required for diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome except -
Patient with BMI 40 presents for emergency surgery. All are correct about airway management EXCEPT:
Which of the following is not a diagnostic criterion for SIRS?
Laser uvulopalatoplasty is indicated for which of the following conditions?
Which of the following statements about obstructive sleep apnea is false?
Muller's manoeuvre is used to
The sleep apnea syndrome is defined as -
Sleep-Disordered Breathing Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step?
- A. Arrange for a sleep study to check the patient for obstructive sleep apnea. (Correct Answer)
- B. Consider prescribing a sleep aid to help her sleep better and increase her energy to exercise during the day.
- C. Assess for possible depression as a contributor to her fatigue.
- D. Educate the patient on sleep hygiene as a supportive measure to improve her overall well-being.
Explanation: A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step? ***Arrange for a sleep study to check the patient for obstructive sleep apnea.*** - The patient's presentation with **severe fatigue**, **daytime sleepiness**, **obesity**, and a **full-appearing posterior pharynx** are highly suggestive of **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)** [1]. - OSA can lead to **insulin resistance** and worsen glycemic control, making it a critical factor to address before escalating diabetes medications. *Consider prescribing a sleep aid to help her sleep better and increase her energy to exercise during the day.* - Prescribing a sleep aid without investigating the cause of her sleep disturbances could mask a serious underlying condition like **OSA**, which requires specific treatment [1]. - While improved sleep might transiently boost energy, it would not address the **pathophysiology of OSA** or its impact on diabetes. *Assess for possible depression as a contributor to her fatigue.* - While **depression** can cause fatigue and impact exercise, her physical findings (obesity, full pharynx) and the specific symptom of **daytime sleepiness** point more strongly towards a primary sleep disorder like OSA [1]. - A definitive diagnosis of OSA would better explain the combination of her symptoms and poor glycemic control. *Educate the patient on sleep hygiene as a supportive measure to improve her overall well-being.* - **Sleep hygiene** is important for overall health, but it is unlikely to resolve severe daytime sleepiness and fatigue caused by a mechanical obstruction like in **OSA** [1]. - This intervention would be insufficient to address the potential link between her sleep disorder and uncontrolled diabetes.
Question 2: Severe Obstructive sleep apnea is defined as AHI of greater than
- A. 15 events/hour
- B. 30 events/hour (Correct Answer)
- C. 25 events/hour
- D. 20 events/hour
Explanation: ***30 events/hour*** - A **severe form of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)** is diagnosed when the Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) is greater than or equal to **30 events per hour** [1]. - The AHI represents the average number of **apnea and hypopnea events** per hour of sleep [1]. *15 events/hour* - An AHI of **15 to 30 events/hour** typically defines **moderate sleep apnea**, not severe. - This level indicates a significant number of sleep disturbances, but less than what is categorized as severe. *25 events/hour* - An AHI of **25 events/hour** falls within the **moderate range** of OSA severity (15-30 events/hour). - It does not meet the criteria for severe OSA, which requires a higher AHI. *20 events/hour* - An AHI of **20 events/hour** also falls into the **moderate category** of OSA. - This value is above the threshold for mild OSA (5-15 events/hour) but below the threshold for severe OSA.
Question 3: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician complaining of excessive sleepiness for the past several months. He reports falling asleep while dealing with customers and had a near accident when he fell asleep while driving. The patient reports that he occasionally hears voices while falling asleep and finds himself "temporarily frozen" and unable to move upon awakening. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
- A. Melatonin
- B. Modafinil (Correct Answer)
- C. Clonazepam
- D. Continuous positive airway pressure
Explanation: ***Modafinil*** - The patient's symptoms of **excessive daytime sleepiness** (EDS), **hypnagogic hallucinations** (hearing voices while falling asleep), and **sleep paralysis** are classic signs of **narcolepsy**. - **Modafinil** is a **non-amphetamine stimulant** that promotes wakefulness and is a first-line treatment for narcolepsy, improving alertness and reducing EDS. *Melatonin* - **Melatonin** is a hormone involved in regulating the **sleep-wake cycle** and is primarily used for **insomnia**, **jet lag**, or **circadian rhythm disorders**. - It is not effective for treating the hallmark symptoms of narcolepsy, such as cataplexy or excessive daytime sleepiness. *Clonazepam* - **Clonazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** that acts as a central nervous system depressant, primarily used for **anxiety disorders**, seizures, and some sleep disorders like **REM sleep behavior disorder**. - While it can help with some parasomnias, it would worsen daytime sleepiness in a patient with narcolepsy and is not a primary treatment for its core symptoms. *Continuous positive airway pressure* - **Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)** is the standard treatment for **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**, a condition characterized by recurrent upper airway collapse during sleep. - Although OSA can cause excessive daytime sleepiness, the patient's additional symptoms of hypnagogic hallucinations and sleep paralysis are not typical of OSA, making narcolepsy and its specific treatments more appropriate.
Question 4: All of the following criteria are required for diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome except -
- A. PaCO2 > 45 mmHg
- B. BMI 30 kg/m2
- C. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- D. Sleep disorder breathing
Explanation: ***Hypertension*** - While **hypertension** is a common comorbidity in patients with **obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS)**, it is _not_ a diagnostic criterion. - OHS is defined by specific respiratory and obesity-related parameters, not the presence of associated cardiovascular conditions. *BMI $\geq$ 30 kg/m$^2$* - A **body mass index (BMI)** of **30 kg/m$^2$** or greater is a fundamental criterion for diagnosing OHS, as the syndrome is directly linked to obesity. - Severe obesity leads to mechanical compression of the lungs and chest wall, contributing to hypoventilation. *PaCO$_{2}$ > 45 mmHg* - A **daytime arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO$_{2}$)** greater than **45 mmHg** is a key diagnostic criterion, indicating chronic alveolar hypoventilation. - This persistent hypercapnia is present even when other causes like obstructive lung disease have been excluded. *Sleep-disordered breathing* - **Sleep-disordered breathing**, most commonly **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**, is almost universally present in OHS patients and is a required diagnostic criterion [1]. - The combination of severe obesity and OSA often leads to the development of chronic hypoventilation [1].
Question 5: Patient with BMI 40 presents for emergency surgery. All are correct about airway management EXCEPT:
- A. Extended ramping
- B. Avoid cricoid pressure (Correct Answer)
- C. Rapid sequence induction
- D. Avoid preoxygenation
Explanation: ***Avoid cricoid pressure*** - While **cricoid pressure** (Sellick's maneuver) is used to prevent **aspiration** by compressing the esophagus, its effectiveness in **obese patients** is highly debated and often hindered by excess neck tissue. - In obese patients, cricoid pressure can actually worsen the view during laryngoscopy, making intubation more difficult and potentially causing airway trauma. *Extended ramping* - **Ramping** the patient, where the head and shoulders are elevated, is crucial in **obese patients** to align the **oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes**. - This position improves the view during laryngoscopy and facilitates successful intubation by effectively displacing excess tissue. *Rapid sequence induction* - **Rapid sequence induction (RSI)** is often indicated in **obese patients** undergoing emergency surgery due to their increased risk of **gastric reflux** and **pulmonary aspiration**. - RSI involves administering a sedative and a paralytic agent in rapid succession, followed immediately by intubation, to minimize the time the airway is unprotected. *Avoid preoxygenation* - **Preoxygenation** is essential in **obese patients** to maximize their **oxygen reserves** before intubation. - Obese patients have reduced **functional residual capacity (FRC)** and increased **oxygen consumption**, making them desaturate rapidly during apnea, so preoxygenation significantly prolongs safe apnea time.
Question 6: Which of the following is not a diagnostic criterion for SIRS?
- A. Hypotension (Correct Answer)
- B. Tachypnoea
- C. Leucocytosis
- D. Tachycardia
Explanation: ### Hypotension - **Hypotension** is a criterion for **sepsis** and **septic shock**, but not for **SIRS** itself. - **SIRS** criteria are based on inflammatory responses, while hypotension indicates a more severe systemic compromise. *Tachycardia* - **Tachycardia**, defined as a **heart rate >90 beats per minute**, is a diagnostic criterion for **SIRS** [1]. - It reflects the body's physiological stress response to a systemic inflammatory state [1]. *Tachypnoea* - **Tachypnoea**, indicated by a **respiratory rate >20 breaths per minute** or a **PaCO2 <32 mmHg**, is a diagnostic criterion for **SIRS** [1]. - This symptom shows the body's effort to compensate for metabolic acidosis or increased oxygen demand. *Leucocytosis* - **Leucocytosis**, defined as a **white blood cell count >12,000/mm³** or **<4,000/mm³**, or the presence of **>10% immature neutrophils (bands)**, is a diagnostic criterion for **SIRS** [1]. - This indicates a significant systemic inflammatory response in the blood [1].
Question 7: Laser uvulopalatoplasty is indicated for which of the following conditions?
- A. Obstructive sleep apnea (Correct Answer)
- B. Pharyngotonsillitis
- C. Cleft palate
- D. Stammering
Explanation: ***Obstructive sleep apnea*** - **Laser uvulopalatoplasty (LUP)** is a surgical procedure that reshapes the **uvula** and **soft palate** to enlarge the airway in patients with **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**. - OSA is characterized by repetitive episodes of upper airway obstruction during sleep, leading to snoring, daytime sleepiness, and other health issues. *Pharyngotonsillitis* - This condition involves inflammation of the **pharynx** and **tonsils**, usually caused by bacterial or viral infections. - Treatment typically involves antibiotics for bacterial infections or symptomatic relief for viral infections, not surgical reshaping of the palate. *Cleft palate* - **Cleft palate** is a congenital birth defect where the roof of the mouth does not fully close during fetal development. - The primary treatment involves **surgical repair** to close the opening, which is a different procedure from LUP and focuses on reconstructing normal anatomy. *Stammering* - **Stammering** is a **speech disorder** characterized by disruptions in fluency, such as repetitions, prolongations, or blocks in speech. - It is managed through **speech therapy** and behavioral interventions, and is unrelated to airway obstruction or surgical procedures on the palate.
Question 8: Which of the following statements about obstructive sleep apnea is false?
- A. Apnea is associated with high respiratory effort
- B. Apnea is associated with fall in SpO2
- C. Apnea is associated with sudden awakening
- D. Contraction of pharyngeal muscles can worsen obstruction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Contraction of pharyngeal muscles can worsen obstruction*** - In **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**, the pharyngeal muscles are normally responsible for maintaining airway patency [1]. - A *contraction* of these muscles would *open* the airway, whereas *relaxation* or *loss of tone* leads to collapse and obstruction. *Apnea is associated with high respiratory effort* - During an **apneic episode** in OSA, the airway is *obstructed*, leading to continued but **unsuccessful inspiratory efforts** against a closed airway. - This results in a significant increase in **respiratory effort** as the diaphragm and accessory muscles try to overcome the obstruction. *Apnea is associated with fall in SpO2* - The cessation of airflow during **apnea** prevents **gas exchange**, leading to a progressive decrease in **oxygen saturation (SpO2)**. - This **hypoxia** is a hallmark physiological consequence of apneic events and often triggers arousal from sleep [2]. *Apnea is associated with sudden awakening* - The combination of **hypoxia** and **hypercapnia** (increased CO2), along with the increased respiratory effort, stimulates the central nervous system [2]. - This stimulation causes a **brief arousal or awakening** from sleep, often accompanied by gasping or snorting, to re-establish airway patency.
Question 9: Muller's manoeuvre is used to
- A. To remove foreign body from ear
- B. To find degree of obstruction in sleep disordered breathing (Correct Answer)
- C. To remove laryngeal foreign body
- D. To find out opening of mouth
Explanation: ***To find degree of obstruction in sleep disordered breathing*** - **Muller's manoeuvre** is a diagnostic technique where the patient attempts to inspire forcefully against a **closed mouth and nostrils** while an endoscope observes the upper airway. - This maneuver helps to simulate the negative intraluminal pressure that occurs during sleep, making it useful in identifying the **site and severity of airway obstruction** in patients with sleep-disordered breathing. *To remove foreign body from ear* - Removing foreign bodies from the ear typically involves **irrigation**, specialized instruments (e.g., alligator forceps), or suction, not a breathing maneuver. - This option is unrelated to the physiological assessment of airway obstruction. *To remove laryngeal foreign body* - The primary methods for removing laryngeal foreign bodies are the **Heimlich maneuver** (abdominal thrusts) or direct laryngoscopy and removal. - Muller's manoeuvre is a diagnostic procedure, not a therapeutic one for foreign body extraction. *To find out opening of mouth* - Measuring the **opening of the mouth** is typically done with a ruler or specific instruments to assess jaw mobility (e.g., for temporomandibular joint disorders or trismus). - This is a simple measurement and does not involve the complex physiological assessment of the upper airway that Muller's manoeuvre provides.
Question 10: The sleep apnea syndrome is defined as -
- A. Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) ≥ 5/hour (Correct Answer)
- B. Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) ≥ 10/hour
- C. Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) ≥ 30/hour
- D. Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) ≥ 15/hour
Explanation: ***Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) ≥ 5/hour*** - The definition of **sleep apnea syndrome** generally requires an **AHI of 5 or more events per hour**, often accompanied by symptoms like excessive daytime sleepiness or cardiovascular complications [1]. - This threshold identifies individuals with clinically significant sleep-disordered breathing that warrants further evaluation and potential treatment [1]. *Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) ≥ 10/hour* - While an AHI of 10/hour indicates sleep apnea, it is a higher severity criterion and does not represent the **minimum threshold** for defining the syndrome [1]. - Patients with an AHI between 5 and 10 also have sleep apnea and can experience significant symptoms. *Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) ≥ 30/hour* - An AHI of 30/hour or more signifies **severe sleep apnea**, which requires aggressive management. - This is far above the **general diagnostic threshold** for sleep apnea syndrome. *Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) ≥ 15/hour* - An AHI of 15/hour is typically classified as **moderate sleep apnea**. - This value is higher than the **lowest AHI threshold** used to define the presence of sleep apnea syndrome.
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