Rheumatology and Immunology — MCQs

Rheumatology and Immunology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 841: A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral, symmetric joint pain and morning stiffness lasting more than an hour. Laboratory tests show positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis (Correct Answer)
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis

Explanation: ***Rheumatoid arthritis*** - The combination of **bilateral**, **symmetric joint pain**, **prolonged morning stiffness** (over an hour) [1], and positive **rheumatoid factor (RF)** and **anti-CCP antibodies** is highly characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis [2]. - This condition involves chronic **inflammation of the synovium**, leading to potential joint destruction and systemic manifestations [2]. *Systemic lupus erythematosus* - While it can cause **arthralgia** and **arthritis**, it typically presents with a broader range of symptoms like **malar rash**, photosensitivity, and renal involvement, which are not described. - Although ANA can be positive, **RF** and **anti-CCP** are not as specific or consistently high in SLE as they are in RA. *Osteoarthritis* - Characterized by **degenerative joint disease**, with pain that worsens with activity and **short-lived morning stiffness** (usually less than 30 minutes). - It does not show positive **rheumatoid factor** or **anti-CCP antibodies**, as it is not primarily an autoimmune inflammatory condition. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - Primarily affects the **axial skeleton** (spine and sacroiliac joints), causing **inflammatory back pain** that improves with activity. - It is strongly associated with **HLA-B27**, and **RF** and **anti-CCP antibodies** are typically negative.

Question 842: A 29-year-old man presents with recurrent oral ulcers, uveitis, and arthritis. Which HLA subtype is most commonly associated with his condition?

A. HLA-B27
B. HLA-DR4
C. HLA-B51 (Correct Answer)
D. HLA-DR3

Explanation: ***HLA-B51*** - The constellation of **recurrent oral ulcers**, **uveitis**, and **arthritis** in a young man is highly suggestive of **Behçet's disease**. - **HLA-B51** is the most strongly associated genetic marker with Behçet's disease, particularly in patients of Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, and East Asian descent. *HLA-B27* - **HLA-B27** is primarily associated with **seronegative spondyloarthropathies**, such as **ankylosing spondylitis** and **reactive arthritis** [1]. - While uveitis can occur in these conditions, recurrent oral ulcers are not a prominent feature, and the overall clinical picture doesn't fit Behçet's disease [1]. *HLA-DR4* - **HLA-DR4** is most strongly linked to **rheumatoid arthritis**, a chronic inflammatory condition primarily affecting joints. - Ocular involvement in rheumatoid arthritis typically manifests as **scleritis** or **episcleritis**, and recurrent oral ulcers are not a characteristic symptom. *HLA-DR3* - **HLA-DR3** is associated with several autoimmune diseases, including **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**, **Sjögren's syndrome**, and **Type 1 diabetes** [2]. - While SLE can cause oral ulcers and arthritis, uveitis is less common, and Sjögren's primarily causes sicca symptoms.

Question 843: A 30-year-old man presents with a history of migratory arthritis, carditis, and erythema marginatum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Rheumatic fever (Correct Answer)
D. Psoriatic arthritis

Explanation: ***Rheumatic fever*** - This diagnosis aligns perfectly with the classic presentation of **migratory arthritis**, **carditis**, and **erythema marginatum**, which are major criteria for rheumatic fever (Jones criteria) [1]. - Its etiology is typically a delayed, non-suppurative complication of a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection [1]. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - Characterized by **symmetric polyarthritis** primarily affecting small joints, prolonged morning stiffness, and can have systemic manifestations [2]. - While it can involve multiple joints, it doesn't typically present with a **migratory pattern** or **erythema marginatum**. *Systemic lupus erythematosus* - A multisystem autoimmune disease that can cause arthritis, serositis, and skin manifestations like the **malar rash** [3]. - However, **erythema marginatum** is not a typical skin finding, and its arthritis is usually non-erosive and non-deforming. *Psoriatic arthritis* - Associated with **psoriasis** and can present with various forms of arthritis, including oligoarthritis, polyarthritis, and spondyloarthritis. - It does not present with **carditis** or **erythema marginatum**, which are key features in the question.

Question 844: A 55-year-old man develops severe pain and swelling in his knee over the past 24 hours. His knee is erythematous and warm. Arthrocentesis reveals negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pseudogout
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Septic arthritis
D. Gout (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Gout** - The presence of **negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals** in joint fluid is pathognomonic for **gout** [1]. - **Acute onset** of severe pain, swelling, erythema, and warmth in a single joint, such as the knee, are classic symptoms of an acute gout attack [2]. *Pseudogout* - Characterized by the presence of **positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals**, which are calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals, not negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals [1]. - While it can present with acute joint inflammation similar to gout, the crystal morphology in the joint fluid is distinct. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - Typically presents as a **chronic, symmetric polyarthritis** affecting smaller joints, and rarely causes acute monoarticular inflammation of this severity. - Joint fluid analysis in rheumatoid arthritis would show inflammatory changes but not specific crystals like those described. *Septic arthritis* - While septic arthritis can cause acute, severe joint pain and inflammation, joint fluid analysis would reveal a **high white blood cell count** with a predominance of neutrophils and **positive bacterial cultures**, but not crystals. - The crucial finding of negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals rules out septic arthritis as the primary diagnosis.

Question 845: A 40-year-old man presents with a history of hypertension and episodes of abdominal pain. Angiography reveals multiple aneurysms in the renal arteries. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Polyarteritis nodosa (Correct Answer)
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Takayasu arteritis
D. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Explanation: Polyarteritis nodosa - This systemic vasculitis is characterized by necrotizing inflammation of medium-sized arteries, often leading to aneurysm formation and organ ischemia [1]. - Renal artery involvement, manifesting as multiple aneurysms and resulting in hypertension and abdominal pain, is highly characteristic of this condition. Takayasu arteritis - This condition primarily affects large arteries, particularly the aorta and its major branches, leading to stenosis and occlusion, not multiple aneurysms in the renal arteries. - It typically presents in younger females and is often associated with symptoms of reduced pulse and claudication in the limbs. Kawasaki disease - This is an acute vasculitis of childhood primarily affecting medium-sized arteries, notably the coronary arteries, leading to aneurysms [1]. - It is unlikely in a 40-year-old and presents with a distinct clinical picture including fever, rash, conjunctivitis, and mucositis [1]. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis - This is a small vessel vasculitis characterized by granulomatous inflammation of the respiratory tract and glomerulonephritis, often associated with c-ANCA antibodies. - While it can affect the kidneys, it typically causes vasculitic lesions and glomerulonephritis, not multiple macroscopic aneurysms in the renal arteries [2].

Question 846: A 55-year-old man with a history of gout presents with a sudden onset of severe pain in the big toe. What is the best initial treatment?

A. Allopurinol
B. Probenecid
C. Indomethacin
D. Colchicine (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Colchicine** - **Colchicine** is effective in treating acute gout flares when administered promptly, ideally within 24-36 hours of symptom onset. - It works by **inhibiting neutrophil migration** and activity, reducing inflammation in the affected joint. *Allopurinol* - **Allopurinol** is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used for **long-term management** of gout by reducing uric acid production [1]. - It is generally **not recommended during an acute gout flare** as it can potentially worsen the attack by rapidly altering serum urate levels [1]. *Probenecid* - **Probenecid** is a uricosuric agent used for **long-term prevention** of gout attacks by increasing renal excretion of uric acid [1]. - Like allopurinol, it is **contraindicated during an acute gout attack** as it can exacerbate symptoms [1]. *Indomethacin* - While **Indomethacin**, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is an appropriate treatment for acute gout, it is not listed as the "best initial treatment" in this option set, as **colchicine** is also a first-line option [1]. - NSAIDs work by **reducing inflammation** and pain, but they may have contraindications such as renal insufficiency or gastrointestinal bleeding risk. *Overview of Pathophysiology* - Gout is characterized by recurrent attacks of arthritis and elevated uric acid levels, commonly affecting the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe [2].

Question 847: A 35-year-old man presents with chronic sinusitis, hemoptysis, and renal dysfunction. Which of the following antibodies is most likely to be positive?

A. Anti-dsDNA
B. Anti-Ro
C. c-ANCA (Correct Answer)
D. Anti-centromere

Explanation: p-ANCA (MPO) can be seen in some vasculitides [1], but the combination of **chronic sinusitis**, **hemoptysis** (indicating pulmonary involvement), and **renal dysfunction** is highly suggestive of **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)**. **c-ANCA** (cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies), particularly those targeting **proteinase 3 (PR3)**, are the serological hallmark of GPA [1]. *Anti-dsDNA* - **Anti-dsDNA antibodies** are highly specific for **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** [1]. - While SLE can cause renal dysfunction and sometimes pulmonary symptoms, chronic sinusitis is not a typical hallmark, and the overall clinical picture does not align well with SLE. *Anti-Ro* - **Anti-Ro antibodies** are associated with **Sjogren's Syndrome** and sometimes SLE, especially in cases with subacute cutaneous lupus or neonatal lupus [1]. - Sjogren's syndrome primarily involves sicca symptoms (dry eyes, dry mouth) and would not typically present with the described triad of sinusitis, hemoptysis, and renal failure [1]. *Anti-centromere* - **Anti-centromere antibodies** are characteristic of the **limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (CREST syndrome)** [1]. - This syndrome primarily involves Raynaud's phenomenon, telangiectasias, and calcinosis, and does not typically present with the given combination of symptoms.

Question 848: In a patient with a history of chronic back pain and morning stiffness that improves with exercise, which radiographic finding is characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis?

A. Bamboo spine
B. Syndesmophytes (Correct Answer)
C. Osteophytes (associated with osteoarthritis)
D. Schmorl's nodes (indicate disc herniation)

Explanation: ***Syndesmophytes*** - **Syndesmophytes** are characteristic radiographic findings in ankylosing spondylitis, representing ossification within the **annulus fibrosus** and along the outer fibers of the intervertebral disc [1]. - Their presence indicates active disease processes leading to **bony fusion** of vertebrae, contributing to spinal stiffness [1]. *Osteophytes (associated with osteoarthritis)* - **Osteophytes** are bony spurs that form at the margins of joints, primarily associated with **osteoarthritis** due to degenerative changes. - Unlike **syndesmophytes**, they are not specific to inflammatory conditions like ankylosing spondylitis and are typically unilateral and not vertically oriented [1]. *Schmorl's nodes (indicate disc herniation)* - **Schmorl's nodes** are vertebral endplate indentations where the nucleus pulposus herniates into the vertebral body. - While sometimes associated with back pain, they are indicative of **disc degeneration** or trauma, not the inflammatory process of ankylosing spondylitis. *Bamboo spine* - **Bamboo spine** is a descriptive term for the advanced stage of ankylosing spondylitis, resulting from widespread **syndesmophyte formation** and fusion of the vertebrae [1]. - While ultimately a feature of ankylosing spondylitis, it describes the overall appearance due to multiple **syndesmophytes**, rather than being a specific individual finding itself [1].

Question 849: A 65-year-old woman presents with a femur fracture after minimal trauma. Laboratory studies reveal hypercalcemia and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Osteoporosis
B. Paget disease of bone (Correct Answer)
C. Osteomalacia
D. Primary hyperparathyroidism

Explanation: ***Paget disease of bone*** - **Hypercalcemia** and a significantly **elevated serum alkaline phosphatase** in an elderly patient with a fracture after minimal trauma are classic findings in Paget disease. - Paget disease is characterized by disordered bone remodeling with excessive bone resorption and formation, leading to structurally unsound and fragile bones [1]. *Osteoporosis* - While osteoporosis causes fractures with minimal trauma, it typically does not cause **hypercalcemia** or a markedly **elevated serum alkaline phosphatase**. - Bone density is reduced, but bone turnover markers (including ALP) are usually normal or only mildly elevated. *Osteomalacia* - Osteomalacia is characterized by defective mineralization of bone, usually due to **vitamin D deficiency**, leading to bone pain and fractures. - It typically presents with **hypocalcemia** or normal calcium, and **hypophosphatemia**, along with an elevated alkaline phosphatase, but not typically hypercalcemia. *Primary hyperparathyroidism* - Primary hyperparathyroidism causes **hypercalcemia** due to increased PTH, which leads to bone resorption [1]. - While it can cause elevated alkaline phosphatase due to increased bone turnover, it does not typically cause the extreme elevations seen in Paget disease, and fractures are often more related to generalized bone loss rather than focal disorganized bone.

Question 850: A 40-year-old woman with newly diagnosed lupus presents with proteinuria. Which antibody test is the most specific for lupus nephritis?

A. Anti-dsDNA (Correct Answer)
B. ANA
C. Anti-Ro
D. Anti-Smith

Explanation: ***Anti-dsDNA*** - **Anti-dsDNA antibodies** are highly specific for **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** and their titers often correlate with disease activity, especially **lupus nephritis** [1]. - High levels of **anti-dsDNA antibodies** are found in up to 70% of lupus patients and are particularly implicated in the pathogenesis and severity of **renal involvement** [1]. *ANA* - **Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)** are a very sensitive screening test for lupus, being positive in over 95% of patients, but they are **not specific** to lupus and can be found in other autoimmune diseases or even healthy individuals [1]. - A positive ANA alone does not confirm a diagnosis of lupus or indicate **lupus nephritis** [1]. *Anti-Ro* - **Anti-Ro antibodies** (also known as SS-A) are associated with **subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus**, **neonatal lupus**, and **Sjogren's syndrome**, as well as a subset of SLE patients [1]. - While present in some lupus patients, they are not specifically linked to **lupus nephritis** as strongly as anti-dsDNA [1]. *Anti-Smith* - **Anti-Smith (Sm) antibodies** are highly specific for SLE, but their prevalence is lower (around 20-30%) compared to other lupus-related antibodies [1]. - While diagnostic for SLE, anti-Sm antibodies do not correlate well with disease activity or specifically with **lupus nephritis** in the same way as anti-dsDNA [1].

Practice by Chapter

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Practice Questions

Spondyloarthropathies

Practice Questions

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Practice Questions

Vasculitis Syndromes

Practice Questions

Scleroderma and Related Disorders

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Myopathies

Practice Questions

Crystal Arthropathies

Practice Questions

Osteoarthritis

Practice Questions

Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders

Practice Questions

Autoinflammatory Syndromes

Practice Questions

Sjögren's Syndrome

Practice Questions

Antiphospholipid Syndrome

Practice Questions

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