Rheumatology and Immunology — MCQs

A 58-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with acute monoarthritis of the knee, fever, and chills. Synovial fluid analysis shows a white blood cell count of 50,000 with 90% polymorphonuclear cells and a positive Gram stain. Analyze and determine the diagnosis and treatment.

Rheumatology and Immunology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 801: A 30-year-old woman complains of bilateral pain and stiffness in the small joints of her hands, worse in the morning and improving throughout the day. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Psoriatic arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis (Correct Answer)
D. Gout

Explanation: ***Rheumatoid arthritis*** - This presentation of **bilateral pain and stiffness in the small joints of the hands**, characterized by **morning stiffness that improves with activity**, is highly classic for rheumatoid arthritis [1]. - Rheumatoid arthritis is a **chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease** primarily affecting the synovial joints [2]. *Psoriatic arthritis* - While it can affect hands, it typically presents with **asymmetric joint involvement**, often associated with **skin psoriasis** and **nail changes** [1][3]. - Morning stiffness can occur but less commonly presents with the classic bilateral, symmetrical small joint involvement seen in rheumatoid arthritis. *Osteoarthritis* - Characteristically presents with **pain that worsens with activity** and improves with rest, often described as "wear and tear." - Morning stiffness in osteoarthritis is usually brief (less than 30 minutes), unlike the prolonged stiffness seen in inflammatory arthritis [4]. *Gout* - Gout typically causes **acute, severe, unilateral joint pain**, often in the **first metatarsophalangeal joint** (big toe). - It is caused by the deposition of **uric acid crystals** and does not typically present with bilateral, symmetrical small joint stiffness.

Question 802: A 35-year-old woman presents with widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and poor sleep. She has tenderness in 14 of 18 specific points on physical exam. What is the best treatment strategy?

A. Pharmacological pain management with opioids
B. CBT and exercise (Correct Answer)
C. Anti-inflammatory medications
D. Surgical intervention for pain relief

Explanation: ***CBT and exercise*** - **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** addresses the psychological factors contributing to pain perception and coping, which is crucial in managing **fibromyalgia**. - **Exercise**, particularly low-impact aerobic activities, has been shown to improve widespread pain, fatigue, sleep disturbances, and overall function in patients with **fibromyalgia** [1]. *Pharmacological pain management with opioids* - **Opioids** are generally not recommended for fibromyalgia due to their limited efficacy for chronic widespread pain and significant risk of **dependence** and side effects [2]. - Their use can lead to **hyperalgesia** and worsened pain perception over time, contrary to the desired outcome. *Anti-inflammatory medications* - **NSAIDs** are typically ineffective for fibromyalgia because it is not primarily an inflammatory condition [1]. - While they might provide mild symptomatic relief, they do not address the central sensitization and neurochemical imbalances characteristic of **fibromyalgia** [1]. *Surgical intervention for pain relief* - **Surgical intervention** is not indicated for fibromyalgia, as it is a systemic chronic pain condition without a focal structural anomaly requiring surgery. - There is no evidence supporting the efficacy of surgery for the relief of widespread musculoskeletal pain in **fibromyalgia**.

Question 803: A 60-year-old male presents with pain and stiffness in the lower back, worse in the morning and improving throughout the day. X-rays show sacroiliitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ankylosing spondylitis (Correct Answer)
B. Fibromyalgia
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Explanation: ***Ankylosing spondylitis*** - The combination of **morning stiffness**, **improvement with activity** throughout the day, and **sacroiliitis on X-ray** is highly characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis [1]. - This chronic inflammatory disease primarily affects the **axial skeleton**, leading to pain and progressive stiffness [1]. *Fibromyalgia* - Characterized by **widespread musculoskeletal pain** and tenderness in specific **tender points** but does not typically present with structural joint changes like sacroiliitis. - Pain is often chronic and diffuse, without the clear inflammatory pattern of morning stiffness improving with activity. *Osteoarthritis* - A **degenerative joint disease** that typically **worsens with activity** and improves with rest, unlike the pattern described [1]. - While it can affect the spine, it primarily involves articular cartilage breakdown and is less likely to cause prominent sacroiliitis in isolation [1]. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - Primarily affects the **synovial lining** of joints, typically involving **small joints** of the hands and feet symmetrically [1]. - While it causes morning stiffness, it rarely involves significant sacroiliitis or presents with primary lower back pain as the dominant symptom.

Question 804: Which of the following is not a feature of ankylosing spondylitis?

A. Morning stiffness is a feature of ankylosing spondylitis.
B. Improvement with exercise is a feature of ankylosing spondylitis.
C. Asymmetric joint involvement (Correct Answer)
D. Pain relief with NSAIDs is a feature of ankylosing spondylitis.

Explanation: ***Asymmetric joint involvement*** - While ankylosing spondylitis can involve peripheral joints, the axial skeletal involvement (sacroiliac joints and spine) is typically **symmetric** [1]. - **Asymmetric joint involvement** is more characteristic of other spondyloarthropathies, such as **psoriatic arthritis** or **reactive arthritis** [1]. *Morning stiffness is a feature of ankylosing spondylitis* - Patients with ankylosing spondylitis frequently experience significant **morning stiffness**, often lasting more than 30 minutes, which is a classic symptom of inflammatory back pain [2]. - This stiffness is due to the characteristic **inflammation** of the axial skeleton, particularly the sacroiliac joints and spine. *Improvement with exercise is a feature of ankylosing spondylitis* - The back pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis typically **improve with activity and exercise**, distinguishing it from mechanical back pain which often worsens with movement [2]. - Regular physical activity helps to reduce the **stiffness and discomfort** by promoting joint mobility. *Pain relief with NSAIDs is a feature of ankylosing spondylitis* - Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (**NSAIDs**) are often very effective in providing **significant pain relief** for patients with ankylosing spondylitis, especially early in the disease course [3]. - Their effectiveness in reducing pain and inflammation is a key diagnostic clue and a cornerstone of initial symptomatic treatment.

Question 805: A 40-year-old male presents with sudden, excruciating pain in his left great toe. The joint is swollen, red, and warm. What is the most likely cause?

A. Osteoarthritis
B. Gout (Correct Answer)
C. Septic arthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Explanation: ***Gout*** - **Sudden onset** of **excruciating pain** in the **great toe** (podagra) with associated **swelling**, **redness**, and **warmth** is highly characteristic of acute gout [1]. - Gout is caused by the deposition of **monosodium urate crystals** in joints, leading to an inflammatory response [2]. *Osteoarthritis* - Characterized by **chronic, progressive joint pain** that worsens with activity and improves with rest, rather than sudden, excruciating pain. - Typically affects weight-bearing joints and **lacks the acute inflammatory signs** (redness, warmth) seen in gout [3]. *Septic arthritis* - Presents with acute joint pain, swelling, and warmth, similar to gout, but is usually accompanied by **systemic signs of infection** such as fever and chills. - Would require aspiration and culture of synovial fluid to differentiate, but the classic great toe involvement points away from this diagnosis initially. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - Presents as a **chronic, symmetrical polyarthritis**, primarily affecting small joints of the hands and feet. - While it causes inflammation, the **sudden, monoarticular** presentation in the great toe described here is not typical for rheumatoid arthritis [3].

Question 806: A 50-year-old woman presents with dull, aching pain in both shoulders and hips, associated with morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes. ESR is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Fibromyalgia
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Polymyalgia rheumatica (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Polymyalgia rheumatica*** - This condition is characterized by **bilateral aching and morning stiffness** in the **shoulders and hips** in individuals over 50, accompanied by an **elevated ESR**. [1] - Symptoms typically arise rapidly and respond well to **low-dose corticosteroids**. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - This typically affects **smaller joints symmetrically** (e.g., wrists, MCPs, PIPs) rather than primarily the shoulders and hips. [1] - While it can cause morning stiffness and elevated ESR, the **pattern of joint involvement** is different, and it's often associated with positive rheumatoid factor or anti-CCP antibodies. *Fibromyalgia* - Characterized by **widespread musculoskeletal pain** and tenderness at specific points, along with fatigue, sleep disturbances, and cognitive issues. [1] - Unlike polymyalgia rheumatica, fibromyalgia is not typically associated with inflammation, so **ESR is usually normal**. *Osteoarthritis* - This is a **degenerative joint disease** that causes pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion, often in weight-bearing joints or those with previous injury. [1] - Morning stiffness is usually **less than 30 minutes**, and while ESR can be slightly elevated, it's not a primary feature of acute inflammation in the way it is with polymyalgia rheumatica.

Question 807: A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with fever and joint pain. Which laboratory test is most definitive in distinguishing between a rheumatoid flare and an infectious process?

A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
B. Joint aspiration and culture (Correct Answer)
C. C-reactive protein (CRP)
D. Rheumatoid factor (RF)

Explanation: Detailed joint aspiration and culture is the most definitive step [1]. This procedure directly analyzes synovial fluid for **white blood cells**, **bacteria**, or **crystals**, providing a definitive diagnosis for an infectious process such as **septic arthritis** [1]. *Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)* - While elevated in both inflammation and infection, the **ESR is a non-specific marker** and cannot differentiate between a rheumatoid flare and an infectious process. - It indicates overall inflammation but does not identify the underlying cause of the inflammation. *C-reactive protein (CRP)* - Similar to ESR, **CRP is an acute-phase reactant** [2]. It increases significantly during both inflammatory conditions and infections [2]. - It is a more sensitive marker for inflammation than ESR but **lacks specificity** to distinguish between inflammatory and infectious etiologies [2]. *Rheumatoid factor (RF)* - **Rheumatoid factor** is an autoantibody primarily associated with **rheumatoid arthritis** and is usually present in patients with the disease. - Its presence or elevated levels would not differentiate between an RA flare and a concurrent infection, as it reflects the underlying autoimmune disease rather than an acute infectious process.

Question 808: What is the most effective method to differentiate septic arthritis from inflammatory arthritis in a patient with a swollen, painful knee and high white blood cell count in synovial fluid?

A. Joint fluid culture and uric acid levels
B. Rheumatoid factor and synovial biopsy
C. Joint fluid culture and synovial biopsy
D. Joint fluid cell count and Gram stain (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Joint fluid cell count and Gram stain - A **Gram stain** of synovial fluid is crucial for identifying bacterial organisms, directly indicating **septic arthritis**. [1] - A very **high cell count** (often >50,000 cells/mm³) with a predominance of **neutrophils** is highly suggestive of septic arthritis, distinguishing it from most inflammatory arthritides. [1] *Joint fluid culture and uric acid levels* - While **joint fluid culture** is essential for definitive diagnosis of septic arthritis, its results are not immediately available, making it less effective for initial differentiation compared to Gram stain for rapid management decisions. [2] - **Uric acid levels** in synovial fluid are primarily used to diagnose **gouty arthritis** (a form of inflammatory arthritis) but do not directly differentiate between septic and other inflammatory causes. *Joint fluid culture and synovial biopsy* - **Synovial biopsy** is generally reserved for cases where other diagnostic methods are inconclusive, such as atypical infections or chronic inflammatory conditions, and is not a first-line diagnostic tool for acute differentiation. [1] - As mentioned, **joint fluid cultures** provide definitive identification but take time, delaying immediate differentiation. [3] *Rheumatoid factor and synovial biopsy* - **Rheumatoid factor (RF)** is a serological marker for **rheumatoid arthritis** (an inflammatory arthritis) and does not directly help differentiate between septic arthritis and other inflammatory conditions in the acute setting of a swollen joint. - **Synovial biopsy**, as explained, is a more invasive and time-consuming procedure not typically used for initial acute differentiation. [1]

Question 809: In a patient with suspected rheumatoid arthritis, which antibody is the most specific for diagnosis?

A. Rheumatoid factor
B. Anti-CCP antibody (Correct Answer)
C. ANA
D. Anti-dsDNA antibody

Explanation: ***Anti-CCP antibody*** - **Anti-CCP antibodies** (antibodies to cyclic citrullinated peptides) are highly specific for **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**, with a specificity of around 90-98%. - Their presence can confirm RA diagnosis, especially in **seronegative** cases for rheumatoid factor, and is also predictive of more aggressive disease. *Rheumatoid factor* - **Rheumatoid factor (RF)** is often positive in RA patients but is less specific as it can be found in other autoimmune diseases, infections, and even in healthy individuals, especially the elderly. - While sensitive for RA, its lower specificity means it cannot exclusively distinguish RA from other conditions [2]. *ANA* - **Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)** are a hallmark of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** and other autoimmune diseases like Sjögren's syndrome or scleroderma [1]. - While sometimes positive in RA, ANA is not specific enough to diagnose RA and primarily suggests a broader autoimmune process [1]. *Anti-dsDNA antibody* - **Anti-dsDNA antibodies** are highly specific for **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** and are rarely seen in other conditions, making them a key marker for SLE diagnosis and monitoring. - They are not considered a diagnostic marker for rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 810: A 58-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with acute monoarthritis of the knee, fever, and chills. Synovial fluid analysis shows a white blood cell count of 50,000 with 90% polymorphonuclear cells and a positive Gram stain. Analyze and determine the diagnosis and treatment.

A. Septic arthritis; IV antibiotics and joint drainage (Correct Answer)
B. Gout; colchicine and NSAIDs
C. RA flare; steroids and DMARDs
D. Pseudogout; NSAIDs and joint aspiration

Explanation: ***Septic arthritis; IV antibiotics and joint drainage*** - The patient presents with **acute monoarthritis**, **fever**, and **chills**, which are classic signs of **septic arthritis** [1]. - **Synovial fluid analysis** showing a **WBC count of 50,000 with 90% PMNs** and a **positive Gram stain** confirms bacterial infection within the joint, necessitating immediate **IV antibiotics** and **joint drainage** [1]. *Gout; colchicine and NSAIDs* - Gout typically presents with **acute monoarthritis** but is characterized by the presence of **negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals** in synovial fluid, which are not mentioned here. - While fever can occur, **infection markers** like a very high WBC count with predominant PMNs and a positive Gram stain are not features of gout. *RA flare; steroids and DMARDs* - An RA flare typically presents with exacerbation of **polyarthritis**, not usually acute monoarthritis with such severe systemic symptoms and a high inflammatory response in the synovial fluid. - While WBC count can be elevated in RA, a count of **50,000 with 90% PMNs** and a positive Gram stain strongly indicates infection over a flare. *Pseudogout; NSAIDs and joint aspiration* - Pseudogout is characterized by **calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals** (positively birefringent, rhomboid-shaped) in the synovial fluid, which are not described [2]. - While it can cause acute monoarthritis and some inflammation, the specific finding of a **positive Gram stain** points definitively to a bacterial infection rather than crystal-induced arthritis.

Practice by Chapter

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Practice Questions

Spondyloarthropathies

Practice Questions

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Practice Questions

Vasculitis Syndromes

Practice Questions

Scleroderma and Related Disorders

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Myopathies

Practice Questions

Crystal Arthropathies

Practice Questions

Osteoarthritis

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Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders

Practice Questions

Autoinflammatory Syndromes

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Sjögren's Syndrome

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Antiphospholipid Syndrome

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