Rheumatology and Immunology — MCQs

A 25-year-old woman complains of low-grade fever, fatigue, and a persistent rash over her nose and upper chest. She also notes pain in her knees and elbows. A skin biopsy shows dermal inflammation and granular deposits of IgG and C3 complement along the basement membrane at the epidermal/dermal junction. Urinalysis reveals microscopic hematuria and proteinuria. The ANA is positive. What is commonly associated with the development of thromboembolic complications in this patient?

Q19Easy

Metacarpophalangeal joints are most commonly affected in which condition?

Q20Easy

Which of the following antibodies is most frequently seen in Antiphospholipid Syndrome?

Rheumatology and Immunology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 11: In which of the following vasculitides does lung involvement not occur?

A. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with vasculitis
B. Polyarteritis nodosa (Correct Answer)
C. Microscopic polyangiitis
D. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Explanation: Explanation: The key to answering this question lies in understanding the classification of vasculitides based on the size of the vessels involved and their association with Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies (ANCA). 1. Why Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN) is the correct answer: PAN is a medium-vessel vasculitis. A defining clinical characteristic of classic PAN is that it spares the lungs (pulmonary arteries are not involved). It primarily affects the renal and visceral arteries, often leading to hypertension, renal failure (without glomerulonephritis), and abdominal angina. If a patient presents with systemic vasculitis and lung involvement, PAN should be ruled out. 2. Why the other options are incorrect: Options A, C, and D are all ANCA-associated small-vessel vasculitides, which characteristically involve the respiratory tract: * Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA): Classically involves the "triad" of upper respiratory tract (sinusitis, saddle nose), lower respiratory tract (cavitary nodules, hemoptysis), and kidneys. * Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA/Churg-Strauss): Defined by asthma, peripheral eosinophilia, and pulmonary infiltrates. * Microscopic polyangiitis (MPA): Frequently causes pulmonary capillaritis leading to diffuse alveolar hemorrhage. Unlike GPA, it lacks granulomatous inflammation. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * PAN & Hepatitis B: There is a strong association between PAN and Hepatitis B surface antigenemia (HBsAg). * Microaneurysms: PAN is characterized by "string of beads" appearance on angiography due to microaneurysms. * ANCA Status: PAN is ANCA-negative, whereas GPA (c-ANCA/PR3), MPA (p-ANCA/MPO), and EGPA (p-ANCA/MPO) are typically ANCA-positive. * Renal Involvement: PAN causes renal artery vasculitis (infarcts), while small-vessel vasculitides cause Glomerulonephritis.

Question 12: Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) seen in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) are directed against which of the following?

A. dsDNA (Correct Answer)
B. mRNA
C. Nucleolus
D. Ribosomes

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: A (dsDNA)** Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is the prototype autoimmune disease characterized by the production of antibodies against self-antigens, primarily those located within the cell nucleus. **Anti-dsDNA (double-stranded DNA)** antibodies are highly specific for SLE (95-100% specificity) and are a hallmark of the disease [1]. They are directed against the deoxyribonucleic acid backbone. Clinically, their titers correlate with disease activity, particularly the development of **Lupus Nephritis** [2]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. mRNA:** While SLE involves antibodies against various ribonucleoproteins (like Anti-Smith or Anti-U1 RNP), they are directed against proteins complexed with RNA, not typically naked messenger RNA (mRNA) itself. * **C. Nucleolus:** Anti-nucleolar antibodies (producing a nucleolar pattern on immunofluorescence) are more characteristic of **Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma)**, specifically associated with antigens like PM-Scl or RNA polymerase I [2]. * **D. Ribosomes:** Anti-ribosomal P antibodies are found in SLE but are less common than anti-dsDNA. They are highly specific for **Neuropsychiatric SLE (Lupus Psychosis)** rather than being the primary target of general ANA screening. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Best Screening Test for SLE:** ANA (High sensitivity, >95%) [1]. * **Most Specific Test for SLE:** Anti-Smith (Anti-Sm) and Anti-dsDNA [2]. * **Drug-Induced Lupus:** Anti-Histone antibodies are the marker of choice. * **Neonatal Lupus/Sjogren’s:** Associated with Anti-Ro (SS-A) and Anti-La (SS-B) [2]. * **Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD):** Characterized by high titers of Anti-U1 RNP [2].

Question 13: Which of the following is a characteristic finding in Churg-Strauss syndrome?

A. Sinusitis
B. Raynaud's phenomenon
C. Allergic rhinitis (Correct Answer)
D. Epistaxis

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Churg-Strauss Syndrome**, now formally known as **Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EGPA)**, is a small-to-medium vessel necrotizing vasculitis characterized by three distinct phases: the prodromal (allergic) phase, the eosinophilic phase, and the vasculitic phase [1]. **Why Allergic Rhinitis is Correct:** The hallmark of the prodromal phase is **allergic rhinitis** and **adult-onset asthma**. Nearly all patients (up to 95%) suffer from severe allergic rhinitis, nasal polyposis, and asthma, which often precede the systemic vasculitis by several years. The presence of eosinophilic infiltration in the nasal mucosa makes allergic rhinitis a classic diagnostic feature of EGPA. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Sinusitis:** While sinus involvement occurs in EGPA, it is much more characteristic and destructive in **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA/Wegener’s)**. * **B. Raynaud's phenomenon:** This is typically associated with connective tissue diseases like Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma) or SLE, rather than primary vasculitides like EGPA. * **D. Epistaxis:** This is a common presenting symptom of **GPA (Wegener’s)** due to friable granulomatous crusting in the nasal passages; it is not a defining feature of EGPA. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Triad of EGPA:** Asthma + Peripheral Eosinophilia (>1500 cells/µL) + Vasculitis [1]. * **Antibody Marker:** p-ANCA (anti-MPO) is positive in approximately 40-50% of cases (usually those with renal involvement) [1]. * **Organ Involvement:** Most common cause of death is **cardiac involvement** (myocarditis/coronary vasculitis). * **Neurology:** Mononeuritis multiplex (e.g., foot drop) is a frequent vasculitic manifestation [1]. * **Distinction:** Unlike GPA, EGPA is rarely associated with cavitary lung lesions.

Question 14: Urate crystals are deposited in small joints of the hands and feet in which condition?

A. Gout (Correct Answer)
B. Still's disease
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. Ankylosing spondylitis

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Correct Option: A. Gout** Gout is a crystal arthropathy caused by **monosodium urate (MSU)** crystal deposition in joints and soft tissues [1]. This occurs due to chronic hyperuricemia (serum uric acid >6.8 mg/dL) [2]. These crystals are needle-shaped and exhibit **strong negative birefringence** under polarized light [3]. Gout characteristically involves small peripheral joints, most commonly the **first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint** (Podagra), but frequently affects the small joints of the hands and feet [4]. The deposition is favored in cooler peripheral areas where urate solubility is lower. **Incorrect Options:** * **B. Still’s Disease:** This is a systemic autoinflammatory disorder (Systemic Onset JIA in children) characterized by high-grade spiking fever, evanescent salmon-pink rash, and arthritis. It does not involve crystal deposition. * **C. Retropharyngeal Abscess:** This is a deep neck space infection. While it can cause "Grisel’s syndrome" (atlantoaxial subluxation), it is an infectious/surgical emergency unrelated to urate metabolism. * **D. Ankylosing Spondylitis:** A seronegative spondyloarthropathy primarily affecting the axial skeleton (sacroiliac joints and spine). It is associated with the **HLA-B27** gene and involves enthesitis and syndesmophyte formation, not urate crystals. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Identification of needle-shaped, negatively birefringent MSU crystals from joint aspirate [3]. 2. **Radiology:** Look for **"punched-out" erosions** with overhanging edges (Martel’s sign) in chronic tophaceous gout. 3. **Acute Management:** NSAIDs (first-line), Colchicine, or Corticosteroids. 4. **Chronic Management:** Xanthine oxidase inhibitors like **Allopurinol** or Febuxostat [2] (started only after the acute attack has subsided).

Question 15: Among patients with polymyositis, which one of the following auto-antibodies is associated with an increased risk of interstitial lung disease?

A. Anti-CCP antibody
B. Anti ds DNA antibody
C. Anti cardiolipin antibody
D. Anti-Jo-1 antibody (Correct Answer)

Explanation: Explanation: **Correct Option: D. Anti-Jo-1 antibody** Anti-Jo-1 is the most common **Myositis-Specific Antibody (MSA)**, directed against histidyl-tRNA synthetase. It is the hallmark of **Antisynthetase Syndrome**, a clinical triad characterized by: 1. **Myositis** (Polymyositis or Dermatomyositis) [2] 2. **Interstitial Lung Disease (ILD)**: Present in up to 30% of patients generally and is strongly associated with the presence of antisynthetase (Jo-1) antibodies [2]. 3. **Other features**: Raynaud’s phenomenon, "Mechanic’s hands" (hyperkeratotic skin on fingers), non-erosive arthritis, and fever. The presence of Anti-Jo-1 is a strong predictor of pulmonary involvement, which significantly impacts the prognosis of patients with polymyositis [2]. **Incorrect Options:** * **A. Anti-CCP antibody:** Highly specific for **Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)**. While RA can cause ILD, this antibody is not a marker for polymyositis. * **B. Anti-dsDNA antibody:** Highly specific for **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** and is associated with lupus nephritis. * **C. Anti-cardiolipin antibody:** Part of the **Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APS)**, associated with arterial/venous thrombosis and recurrent pregnancy loss [3]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Anti-Mi-2:** Associated with classic Dermatomyositis (good prognosis, "V-sign" and "Shawl sign"). * **Anti-SRP (Signal Recognition Particle):** Associated with severe, necrotizing myopathy and poor response to therapy. * **Anti-MDA5:** Associated with clinically amyopathic dermatomyositis and **rapidly progressive ILD**. * **Initial Screening:** ANA is positive in about 30–80% of patients with dermatomyositis or polymyositis [1], but MSAs (like Jo-1) are required for specific subtyping.

Question 16: All of the following are true regarding Temporal arteritis except?

A. Age > 50 years
B. Unilateral headache (Correct Answer)
C. Diagnosed by measuring high ESR
D. Complicated by ischemic optic neuropathy

Explanation: Temporal Arteritis, also known as **Giant Cell Arteritis (GCA)**, is a large-vessel vasculitis that primarily affects the branches of the external carotid artery. **Why Option B is the Correct Answer (The "Except"):** While headache is the most common symptom of GCA (seen in ~75% of cases), it is typically **bilateral** or generalized. While it can occasionally present unilaterally, the classic description for board exams emphasizes that the pain is often diffuse. More importantly, the other options represent "major" diagnostic criteria or hallmark complications, making "unilateral headache" the least accurate definitive statement among the choices. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Age > 50 years):** This is a core diagnostic criterion. GCA almost never occurs in individuals under 50; the incidence peaks between ages 70 and 80. * **Option C (High ESR):** An elevated Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (often >50 mm/h, frequently >100 mm/h) is a hallmark laboratory finding. While C-reactive protein (CRP) is more sensitive, a high ESR is a classic diagnostic marker [1]. * **Option D (Ischemic Optic Neuropathy):** This is the most feared complication. Anterior Ischemic Optic Neuropathy (AION) due to occlusion of the posterior ciliary arteries can lead to sudden, irreversible blindness [1]. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Strong Association:** ~50% of patients have **Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR)** (proximal muscle stiffness/pain) [1]. * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Temporal artery biopsy (look for "skip lesions"—hence a long segment must be biopsied) [1]. * **Classic Sign:** **Jaw claudication** (highest specificity for GCA). * **Treatment:** Start high-dose corticosteroids **immediately** if suspected to prevent permanent vision loss; do not wait for biopsy results [1].

Question 17: CREST syndrome is an autoimmune condition associated with atrophy and fibrosis of the oesophageal musculature, resulting in dysphagia and reflux-type symptoms. Which of the following is NOT a feature of CREST syndrome?

A. Raynaud's phenomenon
B. Erythematous malar rash (Correct Answer)
C. Sclerodactyly
D. Soft tissue calcification

Explanation: CREST syndrome is a **limited cutaneous form of Systemic Sclerosis (SSc)**. The diagnosis is clinical and defined by its eponymous acronym. [1] **1. Why "Erythematous malar rash" is the correct answer:** An erythematous malar (butterfly) rash is the hallmark clinical feature of **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)**, not Systemic Sclerosis. While both are connective tissue diseases, they have distinct cutaneous manifestations. In CREST, skin involvement is typically limited to the face and distal extremities (distal to elbows/knees). **2. Analysis of incorrect options (Features of CREST):** * **C - Calcinosis cutis:** Soft tissue calcifications, often seen as painful nodules on fingertips or pressure points (Option D). * **R - Raynaud’s phenomenon:** Episodic vasospasm of digits in response to cold or stress; usually the earliest manifestation (Option A). * **E - Esophageal dysmotility:** Due to atrophy and fibrosis of the lower two-thirds of the esophageal smooth muscle. * **S - Sclerodactyly:** Thickening and tightening of the skin of the fingers or toes, giving them a "sausage-like" appearance (Option C). [1] * **T - Telangiectasia:** Dilated capillaries on the face, mucous membranes, and palms. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Serology:** CREST syndrome is highly associated with **Anti-centromere antibodies** (highly specific). In contrast, Diffuse SSc is associated with **Anti-Scl-70 (topoisomerase I)** antibodies. * **Prognosis:** Limited SSc (CREST) generally has a better prognosis than diffuse SSc but carries a significant risk of **Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH)** later in the disease course. * **Organ Involvement:** Unlike diffuse SSc, CREST rarely involves the kidneys (Scleroderma Renal Crisis) or causes early interstitial lung disease.

Question 18: A 25-year-old woman complains of low-grade fever, fatigue, and a persistent rash over her nose and upper chest. She also notes pain in her knees and elbows. A skin biopsy shows dermal inflammation and granular deposits of IgG and C3 complement along the basement membrane at the epidermal/dermal junction. Urinalysis reveals microscopic hematuria and proteinuria. The ANA is positive. What is commonly associated with the development of thromboembolic complications in this patient?

A. ABO blood group antigens
B. Class II HLA molecules
C. Clotting factors
D. Phospholipids (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: D. Phospholipids** **Reasoning:** The clinical presentation—malar rash, photosensitivity, polyarthritis, hematuria/proteinuria (lupus nephritis), and a positive ANA—is classic for **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** [1]. The biopsy finding of granular IgG and C3 at the dermo-epidermal junction is known as the **Lupus Band Test**. In SLE patients, thromboembolic complications (both arterial and venous) are most commonly associated with **Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APS)**. This occurs due to the presence of **antiphospholipid antibodies** (e.g., Lupus Anticoagulant, Anti-cardiolipin, and Anti-̢-glycoprotein I). These antibodies target **phospholipid-binding proteins**, leading to a prothrombotic state, recurrent miscarriages, and thrombocytopenia. **Incorrect Options:** * **A. ABO blood group antigens:** While certain blood groups (like Type A) have a slightly higher risk of general VTE, they are not the specific driver of thrombosis in the context of SLE. * **B. Class II HLA molecules:** HLA-DR2 and DR3 are strongly associated with the *genetic predisposition* to SLE, but they do not directly mediate the coagulation cascade or thromboembolic events. * **C. Clotting factors:** While deficiencies in Protein C or S cause thrombosis, the specific association with SLE-related hypercoagulability is the presence of autoantibodies against phospholipids, not a primary deficiency of clotting factors. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Lupus Band Test:** Positive in both involved and uninvolved skin in SLE, but only in involved skin in Discoid Lupus (DLE). * **APS Paradox:** Patients with Lupus Anticoagulant have a **prolonged aPTT** *in vitro* (due to interference with phospholipids in the assay) but a **prothrombotic state** *in vivo*. * **Libman-Sacks Endocarditis:** Non-bacterial verrucous vegetations on both sides of heart valves, also associated with APS in SLE patients.

Question 19: Metacarpophalangeal joints are most commonly affected in which condition?

A. Osteoarthritis
B. Psoriatic arthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis (Correct Answer)
D. Rheumatic fever

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints** are the hallmark site of involvement in **Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)**. RA is a chronic, systemic inflammatory disease characterized by symmetric polyarthritis [1]. The underlying pathophysiology involves synovial hypertrophy (pannus formation) that specifically targets the small joints of the hands and feet, particularly the MCP and Proximal Interphalangeal (PIP) joints, while characteristically **sparing the Distal Interphalangeal (DIP) joints** [1]. **Analysis of Options:** * **Osteoarthritis (OA):** Primarily affects weight-bearing joints and the hands at the **DIP joints** (Heberden’s nodes) and **PIP joints** (Bouchard’s nodes). The MCP joints are typically spared in primary OA. * **Psoriatic Arthritis (PsA):** Classically involves the **DIP joints** and can present with "dactylitis" (sausage digits). While it can affect MCPs, it is usually asymmetric and associated with skin/nail changes. * **Rheumatic Fever:** Typically presents with a **migratory large-joint polyarthritis** (knees, ankles, elbows). It rarely involves the small joints of the hands. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **RA Hand Deformities:** Ulnar deviation at MCP joints, Swan-neck deformity, and Boutonniere deformity. * **Radiological Signs of RA:** Periarticular osteopenia, uniform joint space narrowing, and marginal erosions. * **Sparing Rule:** If the **DIP joint** is involved, think OA or Psoriatic Arthritis; if the **MCP joint** is involved, think RA or CPPD (Pseudogout) [1]. * **Morning Stiffness:** In RA, stiffness lasts >1 hour and improves with activity; in OA, it lasts <30 minutes and worsens with activity [1].

Question 20: Which of the following antibodies is most frequently seen in Antiphospholipid Syndrome?

A. Beta 2 microglobulin antibody
B. Anti-nuclear antibody
C. Anti-centromere antibody
D. Anti- beta 2 glycoprotein antibody (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APS) is an autoimmune prothrombotic state characterized by arterial or venous thrombosis and pregnancy complications. The diagnosis relies on the presence of at least one clinical criterion and one laboratory criterion. **Why Option D is Correct:** The laboratory criteria for APS include three specific antibodies: **Lupus Anticoagulant (LA)**, **Anti-cardiolipin (aCL) antibodies**, and **Anti-beta 2 glycoprotein I (̢2-GPI) antibodies**. Among these, Anti-̢2 glycoprotein I is considered the most specific and is frequently seen in patients with APS. It targets the ̢2-GPI protein, which normally binds to anionic phospholipids, playing a crucial role in the pathogenic clotting cascade of the syndrome. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** **Beta 2 microglobulin** is a component of MHC Class I molecules. It is used as a tumor marker (e.g., Multiple Myeloma) or a marker of renal function, but it is not an antibody associated with APS. * **Option B:** **Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)** is the screening test for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) [1]. While APS can occur secondary to SLE, ANA is not specific to APS itself [1], [2]. * **Option C:** **Anti-centromere antibody** is highly specific for **Limited Cutaneous Systemic Sclerosis (CREST syndrome)**, not APS. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Lupus Anticoagulant" Paradox:** Despite its name, LA is *prothrombotic* in vivo but causes a *prolonged aPTT* in vitro (which does not correct with a mixing study). * **False Positive VDRL:** Patients with APS often show a false positive syphilis test (VDRL/RPR) because the reagin antibodies cross-react with the cardiolipin used in the test. * **Catastrophic APS (Asherson’s Syndrome):** A rare, life-threatening form involving small-vessel thrombosis in at least three organ systems simultaneously.

Practice by Chapter

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Practice Questions

Spondyloarthropathies

Practice Questions

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Practice Questions

Vasculitis Syndromes

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Scleroderma and Related Disorders

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Myopathies

Practice Questions

Crystal Arthropathies

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Osteoarthritis

Practice Questions

Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders

Practice Questions

Autoinflammatory Syndromes

Practice Questions

Sjögren's Syndrome

Practice Questions

Antiphospholipid Syndrome

Practice Questions

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