Pulmonology Practice Questions

Q: A 20-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress and tachypnea. His BP is 90/60. Loud P2 is present. What is true about his condition?

All of the above.. This patient presents with a classic triad of **Massive Pulmonary Embolism (PE)**: acute respiratory distress, signs of right heart strain (loud P2), and hemodynamic instability (hypotension, BP 90/60 mmHg) [1]. ### **Detailed Explanation** 1. **Diagnosis (Massive PE):** The presence of hypotension (Systolic BP <90 mmHg) categorizes this as a **Massive (High-risk) PE**. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. 2. **Option A (D-dimer):** While D-dimer has a high negative predictive value (useful for ruling out PE in low-risk patients), it is often elevated in confirmed cases. However, in clinical practice, for a high-probability case, imaging is prioritized [2]. 3. **Option B (S1Q3T3 Pattern):** This is the classic ECG sign of acute cor pulmonale (right heart strain) [1]. It consists of a deep **S wave in Lead I**, a **Q wave in Lead III**, and an **inverted T wave in Lead III**. While not pathognomonic, it is a high-yield finding for exams. 4. **Option C (Thrombolysis):** This is the most critical step. According to current guidelines, **hemodynamic instability (hypotension)** is an absolute indication for systemic thrombolysis with agents like **Streptokinase**, Alteplase, or Tenecteplase to rapidly dissolve the clot and restore perfusion [3]. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls** * **Gold Standard Investigation:** CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA) [2]. * **Most Common ECG Finding:** Sinus tachycardia (S1Q3T3 is specific but less common) [1]. * **Most Common Symptom:** Dyspnea; **Most Common Sign:** Tachypnea. * **Management Strategy:** * *Stable patient:* Anticoagulation (Heparin/LMWH). * *Unstable patient (Hypotension):* Thrombolysis (Streptokinase) [3]. * **Chest X-ray signs:** Westermark sign (focal oligemia) and Hampton’s Hump (wedge-shaped opacity) [1].

Q: Which of the following is not a cause of Cor pulmonale?

Mitral stenosis. **Explanation:** **Cor pulmonale** is defined as hypertrophy and/or dilatation of the right ventricle (RV) resulting from diseases affecting the **pulmonary vasculature** or the **lung parenchyma**. A critical diagnostic criterion is that the right-sided heart failure must **not** be secondary to left-sided heart disease or congenital heart disease. **Why Mitral Stenosis is the Correct Answer:** In **Mitral Stenosis (Option D)**, there is an obstruction to blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle [1]. This leads to increased left atrial pressure, which is transmitted backward into the pulmonary veins and capillaries (post-capillary pulmonary hypertension), eventually causing RV failure [1]. Because the primary pathology originates in the **left heart**, it is excluded from the definition of Cor pulmonale. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **COPD (Option C):** The most common cause of Cor pulmonale worldwide. It causes RV strain via alveolar hypoxia, which triggers pulmonary vasoconstriction and parenchymal destruction. * **Kyphoscoliosis (Option B):** A restrictive lung disease where chest wall deformity leads to alveolar hypoventilation and chronic hypoxia, resulting in pulmonary hypertension. * **Intermittent Pulmonary Embolism (Option A):** Recurrent small emboli lead to Chronic Thromboembolic Pulmonary Hypertension (CTEPH), a classic vascular cause of Cor pulmonale. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Right heart catheterization (showing mean Pulmonary Artery Pressure >20 mmHg at rest). * **ECG Findings:** Right axis deviation, dominant R wave in V1, and "P pulmonale" (tall, peaked P waves in lead II). * **Key Distinction:** If RV failure is due to Pulmonary Edema or Left Heart Failure, it is **not** Cor pulmonale [1]. * **Most Common Acute Cause:** Massive Pulmonary Embolism.

Q: What is the most common cause of pulmonary embolism?

Thrombosis of leg veins. **Explanation:** Pulmonary Embolism (PE) is a life-threatening condition caused by the obstruction of the pulmonary arterial system by a detached thrombus. The most common source of these emboli is **Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) of the leg veins**, accounting for over 90% of cases. **Why Option B is Correct:** The deep veins of the lower limbs (specifically the popliteal, femoral, and iliac veins) are the primary sites for thrombus formation due to Virchow’s Triad (stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability). Thrombi formed in these large-caliber vessels are more likely to propagate, detach, and travel through the right heart into the pulmonary circulation. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (Prostatic veins):** While pelvic vein thrombosis (including prostatic and uterine veins) can cause PE, especially after pelvic surgeries, it is significantly less common than lower limb DVT. * **Option C (IVC thrombosis):** Thrombosis of the Inferior Vena Cava is usually a result of the upward extension of a clot from the iliofemoral veins. Primary IVC thrombosis is rare and not the leading cause of PE. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site for DVT:** The calf veins (soleal sinuses); however, **proximal DVT** (above the knee) carries a much higher risk of causing PE. * **Gold Standard Investigation:** CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA) is the investigation of choice for PE. * **ECG Finding:** The most common finding is sinus tachycardia; the "classic" S1Q3T3 pattern is specific but seen in fewer than 20% of patients. * **Treatment:** Immediate anticoagulation with Heparin (LMWH or Unfractionated) followed by oral anticoagulants.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding non-specific interstitial pneumonia?

It has a good prognosis.. **Explanation:** Non-specific Interstitial Pneumonia (NSIP) is a distinct pattern of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia that is crucial to differentiate from Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (UIP/IPF) due to its significantly better clinical outcome. **1. Why Option D is Correct:** NSIP has a **good prognosis**, especially when compared to Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF) [1]. It is highly responsive to corticosteroids and immunosuppressive therapy. The 5-year survival rate for NSIP is approximately 80-100%, whereas for IPF, it is only 30-50%. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A:** Honeycombing is a hallmark of **UIP/IPF** [1]. In NSIP, the characteristic HRCT finding is **Ground Glass Opacities (GGO)**, usually bilateral and symmetrical, with subpleural sparing. While traction bronchiectasis may occur in fibrotic NSIP, true honeycombing is rare. * **Option B:** Unlike IPF (which favors males), NSIP **predominantly affects females** and is the most common interstitial lung disease pattern seen in patients with connective tissue diseases (CTD) like Scleroderma [1]. * **Option C:** NSIP typically affects a **younger age group** (40–50 years) compared to IPF, which is a disease of the elderly (usually >65 years) [1]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Subpleural Sparing:** This is the most specific HRCT sign for NSIP. * **Histology:** Characterized by **temporal homogeneity** (all lesions are of the same age), unlike the temporal heterogeneity seen in UIP (fibroblastic foci). * **Associations:** Always screen for **Connective Tissue Diseases (CTD)** in a patient with an NSIP pattern [1]. * **Subtypes:** Cellular NSIP (better prognosis) and Fibrotic NSIP.

Q: Tubular breathing is heard in which of the following conditions?

Consolidation. Explanation: Tubular breathing is a high-pitched, harsh variety of bronchial breathing with a distinct "blowing" quality. It is characterized by a prolonged expiratory phase and a gap between inspiration and expiration. Why Consolidation is correct: In a normal lung, the air-filled alveoli act as a low-pass filter, muffling the high-pitched sounds generated in the large airways (trachea/bronchi). In consolidation (e.g., lobar pneumonia), the alveoli are filled with fluid or exudate [1]. This solid medium conducts sound from the large airways to the chest wall with minimal attenuation and high velocity. For tubular breathing to occur, the bronchus leading to the consolidated area must remain patent. Analysis of Incorrect Options: * Pleural Effusion: Fluid in the pleural space typically acts as an insulator, leading to diminished or absent breath sounds. However, "Amphoric" or "Eegophony" may be heard at the upper border of an effusion. * Pleurisy: This involves inflammation of the pleura without significant parenchymal change [2]. The classic finding is a pleural rub, not tubular breathing. * TB Cavity: While cavities can produce bronchial breathing, they typically produce Amphoric breathing (a hollow, low-pitched sound like blowing into a glass bottle), provided the cavity is large (>2cm), superficial, and communicates with a bronchus. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls: 1. Bronchial Breathing Types: * Tubular: Consolidation. * Cavernous: Small, superficial cavities. * Amphoric: Large cavities or Open Pneumothorax. 2. Prerequisite for Tubular Breathing: The underlying bronchus must be patent. If the bronchus is obstructed (e.g., collapse due to a foreign body), breath sounds will be absent. 3. Vocal Resonance: In consolidation, tubular breathing is usually accompanied by increased tactile vocal fremitus and vocal resonance (Bronchophony/Whispering Pectoriloquy).

Q: All of the following are typically seen in chronic bronchitis except:

Clubbing. **Explanation:** In the context of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), **Clubbing** is a crucial clinical differentiator. While COPD (Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema) is a common cause of respiratory distress, it does **not** typically cause digital clubbing [2]. If clubbing is present in a patient with chronic bronchitis, a clinician must immediately investigate for underlying complications or alternative diagnoses such as **Bronchogenic Carcinoma**, **Bronchiectasis**, or **Interstitial Lung Disease** [2], [3]. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Cough for >3 months:** This is the hallmark of the clinical definition of Chronic Bronchitis—a productive cough for at least 3 months in 2 consecutive years, provided other causes are excluded [1]. * **B. Bronchorrhea:** Chronic bronchitis involves hypertrophy of mucus-secreting glands (increased Reid Index), leading to excessive production of sputum (bronchorrhea) [1]. * **C. Hoover sign:** This refers to the paradoxical inward movement of the lower costal margins during inspiration. It is a sign of hyperinflation (common in COPD) where a flattened diaphragm pulls the ribs inward rather than expanding them. * **D. Clubbing (Correct):** As established, simple chronic bronchitis does not cause clubbing. Its presence suggests a "suppurative" process or malignancy [2]. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Reid Index:** Ratio of the thickness of the mucous gland layer to the thickness of the wall between the epithelium and cartilage. Normal is 0.5**. * **Blue Bloaters:** The classic phenotype for Chronic Bronchitis (hypoxemic, hypercapnic, and edematous) [2]. * **Clubbing in Respiratory Medicine:** Remember the mnemonic **"ABCDE"** for causes: **A**bscess (Lung), **B**ronchiectasis/Bronchogenic Carcinoma, **C**ystic Fibrosis, **D**on't forget Empyema, **E**xtra-pulmonary (e.g., Cyanotic Heart Disease).

Question 1

Well's grading of pulmonary embolism is based on which of the following criteria?

Accepted Answer

Heart Rate > 100 beats per min

Answer

Doppler

Answer

Clinical symptoms

Answer

Hemoptysis

Question 2

A 20-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress and tachypnea. His BP is 90/60. Loud P2 is present. What is true about his condition?

Accepted Answer

All of the above.

Answer

D-dimer assay should be done.

Answer

S wave in lead I and Q wave in lead III of ECG is seen.

Answer

Streptokinase should be given.

Question 3

Which of the following is not a cause of Cor pulmonale?

Accepted Answer

Mitral stenosis

Answer

Intermittent pulmonary embolism

Answer

Kyphoscoliosis

Answer

COPD

Question 4

What is the most common cause of pulmonary embolism?

Accepted Answer

Thrombosis of leg veins

Answer

Thrombosis of prostatic veins

Answer

Inferior vena cava thrombosis

Answer

None of the above

Question 5

Which of the following statements is true regarding non-specific interstitial pneumonia?

Accepted Answer

It has a good prognosis.

Answer

Honeycombing is seen on CT scan.

Answer

It predominantly affects males.

Answer

It affects the elderly age group.

Question 6

A 44-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis is admitted with severe shortness of breath and left-sided chest pain. CXR shows left ventricular strain on EKG. What is the most likely diagnosis to explain the symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Pneumothorax

Answer

COPD

Answer

Bulla

Answer

Subendocardial infarct

Question 7

Tubular breathing is heard in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Consolidation

Answer

Pleural effusion

Answer

Pleurisy

Answer

TB cavity

Question 8

A patient with a Pancoast tumor develops a loss of voice after radiation. What is the most likely cause of this symptom?

Accepted Answer

Involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve

Answer

Vocal cord infiltration with secondaries

Answer

Direct irradiation to the vocal cords

Answer

Radiation stenosis of the larynx

Question 9

All of the following are typically seen in chronic bronchitis except:

Accepted Answer

Clubbing

Answer

Cough for more than 3 months

Answer

Bronchorrhea

Answer

Hoover sign

Question 10

A 60-year-old man is suspected of having bronchogenic carcinoma. Tuberculosis has been ruled out. What should be the next investigation?

Accepted Answer

Bronchoscopy and biopsy

Answer

CT guided FNAC

Answer

Sputum cytology

Answer

X-ray chest

Pulmonology — MCQs

Pulmonology — MCQs

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