Pulmonology — MCQs

Pulmonology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 761: A 60-year-old male with COPD has FEV1 45% predicted, mMRC grade 2 dyspnea, and 2 exacerbations last year. Which GOLD category?

A. GOLD A
B. GOLD D (Correct Answer)
C. GOLD B
D. GOLD C

Explanation: Gold D - This patient meets criteria for **GOLD D** due to both high symptom burden (mMRC grade 2 dyspnea) and a high risk of exacerbations (2 exacerbations last year) [1]. - COPD severity in GOLD D is characterized by an **FEV1 < 50% predicted** (in this case, 45%) along with significant symptoms and/or frequent exacerbations [1]. *GOLD A* - **GOLD A** patients have low symptom burden (mMRC 0-1 or CAT < 10) and a low risk of exacerbations (0-1 exacerbations not leading to hospitalization) [1]. - This patient's **mMRC grade 2** and **2 exacerbations** last year exclude him from GOLD A. *GOLD B* - **GOLD B** patients have a high symptom burden (mMRC ≥ 2 or CAT ≥ 10) but a low risk of exacerbations (0-1 exacerbations not leading to hospitalization) [1]. - This patient's **2 exacerbations** last year place him in a higher risk category than GOLD B. *GOLD C* - **GOLD C** patients have a low symptom burden (mMRC 0-1 or CAT < 10) but a high risk of exacerbations (≥ 2 exacerbations or ≥ 1 leading to hospitalization) [1]. - This patient's **mMRC grade 2** indicates a high symptom burden, which is not characteristic of GOLD C.

Question 762: A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening cough and eosinophilia. CXR shows fleeting infiltrates. Diagnosis?

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (Correct Answer)
C. TB
D. COPD

Explanation: ***Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)*** - The combination of **asthma**, **eosinophilia**, and **fleeting pulmonary infiltrates** on CXR is highly suggestive of ABPA, an allergic response to *Aspergillus fumigatus* in the airways. - Patients typically experience **worsening lower respiratory symptoms** like cough and wheezing, often with mucus plugging. *Sarcoidosis* - Characterized by **non-caseating granulomas** and can cause pulmonary infiltrates, but **eosinophilia is not a typical feature** [1]. - While it can involve the lungs, it usually presents with **hilar lymphadenopathy**, constitutional symptoms, and hypercalcemia, which are not described. *TB* - Presents with cough, fever, night sweats, and weight loss, and CXR often shows **upper lobe infiltrates, cavities**, or effusions. - While it can cause pulmonary infiltrates, **eosinophilia is not a characteristic finding**, and a history of asthma is not a direct predisposing factor [2]. *COPD* - Primarily caused by **smoking** and is defined by **persistent airflow limitation**. - While it can present with chronic cough, **eosinophilia and fleeting infiltrates are not typical features**; infiltrates in COPD usually suggest an exacerbation with infection or other complications.

Question 763: Which test is most useful for initial evaluation of suspected pulmonary sarcoidosis?

A. Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) (Correct Answer)
B. Cutaneous skin biopsy
C. Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) levels
D. Chest radiograph (X-ray)

Explanation: ***Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)*** - While other tests provide supportive evidence, **BAL with differential cell count** is crucial for distinguishing sarcoidosis from other interstitial lung diseases by detecting a high CD4/CD8 ratio. - It allows for direct sampling of inflammatory cells and helps to exclude infections, making it a critical step in confirming the diagnosis, often combined with **transbronchial biopsy**, which can be facilitated through endobronchial ultrasound (EBUS) mapping [2]. *Cutaneous skin biopsy* - **Skin biopsies** are useful if there are visible skin lesions (seen in ~5% of patients), which can show non-caseating granulomas supporting sarcoidosis [1]. - However, sarcoidosis often presents without skin involvement, and a skin biopsy would not be the **initial diagnostic test** for suspected pulmonary disease. *Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) levels* - Elevated **serum ACE levels** are found in some sarcoidosis patients and can support the diagnosis or monitor disease activity. - However, ACE levels are **not specific** to sarcoidosis and can be normal even in active disease, making it a less reliable primary diagnostic tool. *Chest radiograph (X-ray)* - A **chest X-ray** is often the first imaging study performed and can show findings like **bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy** or interstitial infiltrates, which are highly suggestive of sarcoidosis [1]. - While important for initial suspicion, a chest X-ray does not provide a definitive diagnosis and requires further investigation to confirm sarcoidosis and rule out other causes.

Question 764: Which is the most common complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A. Myocardial infarction (MI)
B. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
C. Renal failure
D. Pulmonary embolism (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Pulmonary embolism*** - A **pulmonary embolism (PE)** occurs when a part of a **DVT** dislodges and travels to the lungs, blocking pulmonary arteries [1]. - It is the most serious and common life-threatening complication of **DVT**, with significant morbidity and mortality [1]. *Myocardial infarction (MI)* - **Myocardial infarction** is typically caused by **atherosclerosis** in the coronary arteries, not directly by a DVT. - While DVT and MI share some risk factors, DVT doesn't directly cause a heart attack. *Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)* - A **cerebrovascular accident (stroke)** is usually caused by a clot **originating in the heart** or **carotid arteries**, not typically from a lower extremity DVT. - Only in cases of a **patent foramen ovale** can a DVT cause a paradoxical embolism leading to stroke, which is rare [1]. *Renal failure* - **Renal failure** is a disease of the kidneys and is not a direct or common complication of a **DVT**. - DVTs primarily affect the venous system, and their complications mainly involve distal tissues or the pulmonary circulation.

Question 765: Which test is most sensitive for screening/detecting pulmonary involvement in sarcoidosis?

A. Bronchoalveolar lavage
B. Chest X-ray (Correct Answer)
C. Serum ACE levels
D. Skin biopsy

Explanation: A **chest X-ray** is the most widely available and often the initial imaging modality performed in suspected sarcoidosis, showing characteristic patterns such as **bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy** [1]. While not confirmatory, its high sensitivity in detecting pulmonary involvement makes it a crucial preliminary diagnostic tool, especially given the frequency of lung involvement in sarcoidosis [1]. *Bronchoalveolar lavage* - **Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)** can show **lymphocytosis** with a high CD4/CD8 ratio, which is suggestive but not specific for sarcoidosis. - While supportive, BAL is an invasive procedure and less commonly the **initial diagnostic test** compared to a chest X-ray. *Serum ACE levels* - **Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)** levels can be found in sarcoidosis, reflecting granulomatous activity, but are neither sensitive nor specific enough for diagnosis. - ACE levels are elevated in only about **60% of patients** with active sarcoidosis and can be normal even in widespread disease, or elevated in other conditions. *Skin biopsy* - **Skin biopsy** can reveal **non-caseating granulomas** if there are cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis, which occur in about 20-30% of patients. - While diagnostic when positive, its use is limited to patients with **visible skin lesions** and it is not a screening test for systemic disease.

Question 766: A 50-year-old male presents with cyanosis and is diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary mechanism causing his cyanosis?

A. Low cardiac output
B. Carbon monoxide poisoning
C. Right-to-left shunt
D. Chronic hypoxemia (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Chronic hypoxemia*** - **Chronic hypoxemia** is a hallmark of severe COPD, leading to insufficient oxygen in the arterial blood, which is the direct cause of cyanosis. [1] - The body compensates for ongoing hypoxemia by increasing **red blood cell production (polycythemia)**, which, when deoxygenated, becomes more visible as a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes. *Low cardiac output* - While low cardiac output can impair tissue oxygen delivery, it typically presents with signs of **poor perfusion** (e.g., cool extremities, altered mental status) rather than primary cyanosis in the absence of severe respiratory compromise. - In COPD, the primary issue is impaired gas exchange in the lungs, not usually a profound cardiac dysfunction leading to cyanosis, unless comorbid heart failure is present. *Carbon monoxide poisoning* - **Carbon monoxide (CO)** binds to hemoglobin with a much higher affinity than oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin, which is bright red. [3] - This typically leads to a **cherry-red appearance** rather than cyanosis, even in the presence of severe tissue hypoxia. [2] *Right-to-left shunt* - A **right-to-left shunt** allows deoxygenated blood to bypass the lungs and enter the systemic circulation, causing hypoxemia and cyanosis. [1] - While shunting can occur in severe COPD (e.g., due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch), the primary mechanism for generalized chronic cyanosis in COPD is the overall failure of the lungs to adequately oxygenate blood, classifying it as **chronic hypoxemia** rather than a specific anatomical shunt.

Question 767: A 55-year-old male with a history of bronchiectasis presents with acute onset of massive hemoptysis. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

A. Thoracotomy
B. Intravenous corticosteroids
C. Bronchoscopy (Correct Answer)
D. Antibiotics

Explanation: ***Bronchoscopy*** - **Bronchoscopy** is the immediate and most appropriate intervention for **massive hemoptysis** to localize the bleeding site, achieve hemostasis (e.g., with balloon tamponade), and protect the airway. - In a patient with **bronchiectasis**, damaged airways are prone to bleeding, making precise localization and control critical [1], [2]. *Thoracotomy* - **Thoracotomy** is a surgical procedure typically reserved for cases where bronchoscopic interventions fail to control life-threatening hemorrhage or when the bleeding source is inoperable via bronchoscopy. - It is a more invasive option and not the first-line immediate intervention for acute management. *Intravenous corticosteroids* - **Intravenous corticosteroids** are used to reduce inflammation in certain pulmonary conditions, but they do not directly address acute bleeding in massive hemoptysis. - They would not be an immediate intervention for stopping active hemorrhage and might even have adverse effects in an acutely ill patient. *Antibiotics* - **Antibiotics** treat bacterial infections, which can sometimes trigger hemoptysis, particularly in bronchiectasis. - While an infection might be an underlying cause, antibiotics alone will not stop **massive hemoptysis** acutely and are secondary to airway management and hemorrhage control [1].

Question 768: A 55-year-old male presents with chronic cough and dyspnea. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history. His chest CT shows emphysematous changes. What is the most appropriate pharmacologic management?

A. Inhaled corticosteroids
B. IV antibiotics
C. Long-acting beta-agonists (Correct Answer)
D. Short-acting beta-agonists

Explanation: ***Long-acting beta-agonists*** - **Long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs)** are a cornerstone of COPD management, providing sustained bronchodilation to improve airflow and reduce symptoms like dyspnea and cough in patients with **emphysema and a smoking history**. [1] - They are recommended for regular use to improve lung function, reduce exacerbation frequency, and enhance quality of life in patients with **stable COPD**. [1] *Inhaled corticosteroids* - **Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)** are generally reserved for patients with severe COPD (FEV1 < 50% predicted) and a history of frequent exacerbations, especially if they have features of asthma-COPD overlap or high eosinophil counts, which are not specified here. - While they can reduce exacerbations, their long-term monotherapy in COPD is discouraged due to potential side effects like pneumonia, and they are typically added to bronchodilators, not used as first-line monotherapy. *IV antibiotics* - **Intravenous antibiotics** are indicated for acute bacterial exacerbations of COPD, especially in severe cases or hospitalizations, to target bacterial infections. - There is no mention of an acute exacerbation, fever, increased purulent sputum, or other signs of infection that would warrant immediate antibiotic therapy in this chronic presentation. *Short-acting beta-agonists* - **Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)** like albuterol provide quick relief of bronchodilation but have a short duration of action, making them suitable as **rescue medications** for acute symptom relief. [1] - They are not appropriate for chronic, daily management as first-line monotherapy in stable COPD due to their limited duration of effect and high frequency of use required, which contrasts with the need for sustained symptom control. [1]

Question 769: Which of the following is a common cause of hypoxia due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch?

A. Methemoglobinemia
B. Pulmonary embolism (Correct Answer)
C. Anemia
D. Asthma

Explanation: ***Pulmonary embolism*** - A **pulmonary embolism** blocks blood flow to a portion of the lung, but ventilation to that area may remain intact, creating a high V/Q ratio as **perfusion is reduced** relative to ventilation [1]. - This **V/Q mismatch** means that ventilated alveoli are not adequately perfused, preventing efficient gas exchange and leading to hypoxemia [1]. *Methemoglobinemia* - This condition involves an altered form of hemoglobin that cannot bind oxygen or releases it abnormally, leading to **functional anemia** and tissue hypoxia [2]. - While it causes hypoxia, it primarily affects the **oxygen-carrying capacity of blood** rather than causing a ventilation-perfusion mismatch within the lungs [2]. *Anemia* - **Anemia** is a reduction in the number of red blood cells or the amount of hemoglobin, leading to a decreased **oxygen-carrying capacity** of the blood [2]. - It results in **hypoxic hypoxia** due to insufficient oxygen delivery to tissues, but it does not primarily cause a V/Q mismatch in the lungs [2]. *Asthma* - **Asthma** causes **airway obstruction** (bronchoconstriction, mucus plugging, inflammation), leading to areas of reduced ventilation. - While asthma can cause V/Q mismatch (low V/Q areas), it's typically due to **impaired ventilation**, whereas pulmonary embolism primarily causes mismatch by impairing perfusion [1].

Question 770: Which of the following is the most common cause of hemoptysis in developed countries?

A. Bronchitis (Correct Answer)
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Lung cancer
D. Tuberculosis

Explanation: ### Bronchitis - **Acute and chronic bronchitis** are the **most common causes of hemoptysis** in developed countries due to inflammation and irritation of the bronchial mucosa, leading to coughing and rupture of superficial blood vessels [3]. - The hemoptysis is typically **mild to moderate**, often described as blood-streaked sputum. *Pulmonary embolism* - While pulmonary embolism can cause hemoptysis, it is usually associated with **pulmonary infarction** and is **less common** than bronchitis as a cause of hemoptysis [1]. - Patients typically present with sudden onset **dyspnea**, **pleuritic chest pain**, and sometimes **tachycardia** or **hypoxia** [1]. *Lung cancer* - **Lung cancer** is a significant cause of hemoptysis, especially in **smokers** over 40 years old, but it is **not the most common cause overall** [2]. - Hemoptysis due to lung cancer can range from **streaky sputum to massive hemorrhage**, often accompanied by weight loss, persistent cough, and dyspnea [3]. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis** is a prominent cause of hemoptysis, particularly in **endemic regions** and among specific risk groups (e.g., immunocompromised individuals). - While important globally, it is **less common as the primary cause** in developed countries compared to bronchitis, and typically presents with chronic cough, fever, night sweats, and weight loss.

Practice by Chapter

Obstructive Airway Diseases (Asthma, COPD)

Practice Questions

Interstitial Lung Diseases

Practice Questions

Pulmonary Infections

Practice Questions

Pulmonary Vascular Diseases

Practice Questions

Pleural Diseases

Practice Questions

Sleep-Disordered Breathing

Practice Questions

Respiratory Failure

Practice Questions

Mediastinal Disorders

Practice Questions

Occupational Lung Diseases

Practice Questions

Pulmonary Function Testing

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Bronchiectasis and Cystic Fibrosis

Practice Questions

Lung Cancer Approach

Practice Questions

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