Pulmonology — MCQs

A 65-year-old miner presents with a two-month history of 7 kg weight loss, cough, and blood-streaked sputum. He had a history of pulmonary tuberculosis 10 years ago. He also reports drooping of his left eyelid for one month. Physical examination reveals left-sided ptosis and pupillary miosis. Chest X-ray shows a round opacification in the left upper apical lobe. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Q505Hard

A 58-year-old female smoker with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and osteoarthritis, who is on ipratropium bromide, albuterol inhalers, and hydrocodone-acetaminophen, presents with respiratory distress for 2 days. She has increased thick, yellow sputum production, low-grade fever, and increasing confusion. On examination, she is mildly obtunded but arousable, with a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg, pulse of 115/min, respiratory rate of 30/min, and O2 saturation of 84% on her usual 3 L/min nasal cannula oxygen. She is using accessory muscles to breathe, has diffuse wheezing and rhonchi bilaterally, a prolonged expiratory phase, distant but regular heart sounds, and no peripheral edema. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) on arrival are: pH 7.20, PO2 70 mmHg, PCO2 65 mmHg, calculated HCO3 29 mEq/L. Electrolytes are: Na 140 mEq/L, K 5.1 mEq/L, HCO3 29 mEq/L, Cl 100 mEq/L, BUN 20 mg/dL, creatinine 1.5 mg/dL, glucose 89 mg/dL. After prompt initiation of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (Bi-pap), blood cultures, toxicology screen, intravenous fluids, and IV antibiotics, consider the patient's metabolic situation. Which of the following best describes the acid-base condition and its etiology?

Q506Easy

What is the commonest intrabronchial cause of hemoptysis?

Q507Medium

A patient presents with elevated JVP on the right side and a positive Kussmaul sign. Superior Vena Cava (SVC) obstruction is suspected. In which of the following is SVC obstruction commonly seen?

Q508Easy

The Kveim test is used for the diagnosis of which condition?

Q509Easy

Cavernous respiration is heard in which of the following conditions?

Q510Medium

Which of the following is NOT seen in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Pulmonology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 501: What is the most common cause of diffuse bronchiectasis?

A. Untreated pneumonia
B. Obstruction due to foreign bodies
C. Cystic Fibrosis (Correct Answer)
D. Tuberculous infection

Explanation: **Explanation:** Bronchiectasis is the permanent, abnormal dilation of the bronchi due to a cycle of inflammation and infection [1]. To answer this question correctly, one must distinguish between **focal** and **diffuse** involvement. **Why Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is correct:** Cystic Fibrosis is the most common cause of **diffuse (bilateral)** bronchiectasis in developed nations and a high-yield cause globally [1]. It results from a mutation in the CFTR gene, leading to thick, viscous secretions that impair mucociliary clearance [3]. This leads to chronic endobronchial infection and progressive airway destruction throughout both lungs, typically starting in the upper lobes [1]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Obstruction due to foreign bodies (B):** This is a classic cause of **focal (localized)** bronchiectasis. The pathology is limited to the airway segment distal to the obstruction [1]. * **Untreated pneumonia (A):** While severe or recurrent pneumonia can lead to bronchiectasis, it usually results in localized damage unless the patient has an underlying systemic predisposition [1]. * **Tuberculous infection (D):** In developing countries like India, TB is a very common cause of bronchiectasis. However, post-tubercular bronchiectasis is typically **focal** (often involving the upper lobes or the site of the primary lesion) rather than diffuse [1]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause (Global/Diffuse):** Cystic Fibrosis [1]. * **Most common cause (India/Focal):** Tuberculosis [1]. * **Most common organism in CF patients:** *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* (though *S. aureus* is common in childhood) [2]. * **Radiological Sign:** "Signet ring sign" on HRCT (bronchial artery appearing smaller than the dilated bronchus). * **Kartagener Syndrome:** A triad of bronchiectasis, sinusitis, and situs inversus (due to primary ciliary dyskinesia) [1].

Question 502: What is true about Bronchial Asthma?

A. Allergic hyporesponsiveness of airway
B. Inhaled steroids are the mainstay of treatment (Correct Answer)
C. Is seen in Samter's triad along with urticaria
D. IgE levels are increased in intrinsic Asthma

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Bronchial Asthma** is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways characterized by reversible airflow obstruction and airway hyperresponsiveness [1]. **Why Option B is Correct:** The pathophysiology of asthma is driven by chronic airway inflammation. **Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICS)**, such as Budesonide or Fluticasone, are the most effective anti-inflammatory agents and are considered the **mainstay of long-term management**. They reduce airway edema, decrease mucus secretion, and prevent airway remodeling, thereby reducing the frequency of exacerbations. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** Asthma is characterized by **hyperresponsiveness** (exaggerated bronchoconstriction to stimuli), not hyporesponsiveness [1]. * **Option C:** **Samter’s Triad** (Aspirin-Exacerbated Respiratory Disease) consists of Asthma, **Nasal Polyposis**, and **Aspirin sensitivity** [1]. Urticaria is not a component of this specific triad. * **Option D:** **Intrinsic (Non-atopic) Asthma** is typically triggered by non-immune factors (e.g., exercise, cold air) and usually presents with **normal IgE levels**. Increased IgE levels are a hallmark of **Extrinsic (Atopic) Asthma** [1]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Diagnosis:** Gold standard is Spirometry showing reversibility (increase in FEV1 >12% and >200ml after bronchodilator). * **Drug of Choice (Acute):** SABA (Salbutamol) is the DOC for acute relief, but ICS-Formoterol is now preferred as the "Reliever" in GINA guidelines to address underlying inflammation. * **Charcot-Leyden Crystals & Curschmann Spirals:** Classic microscopic findings in the sputum of asthmatic patients. * **Status Asthmaticus:** A life-threatening emergency; look for a "silent chest" on auscultation, which indicates minimal air movement.

Question 503: What is the least common site of lung abscess?

A. Left upper lobe (Correct Answer)
B. Left lower lobe
C. Right upper lobe
D. Right lower lobe

Explanation: ### Explanation The location of a lung abscess is primarily determined by **gravity** and **bronchial anatomy** during aspiration. **Why Left Upper Lobe is the correct answer:** The left upper lobe is the least common site for a lung abscess because of the anatomical structure of the tracheobronchial tree. The **left main bronchus** is more horizontal (less vertical) and narrower than the right. Furthermore, the apical segment of the left upper lobe is oriented in a way that makes it highly unlikely for aspirated material to enter it, regardless of the patient's position (supine or upright). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Right Lower Lobe (Superior Segment):** This is the **most common** site for lung abscesses in a supine patient. The right main bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical, making it a direct path for aspirated contents. * **Right Upper Lobe (Posterior Segment):** This is the second most common site. When a patient is lying on their right side or supine, gravity directs aspirated material into this segment. * **Left Lower Lobe (Superior Segment):** While less common than the right side due to the angle of the left bronchus, it is still a more frequent site than the left upper lobe because gravity favors the lower lobes in an upright or semi-recumbent position. [1] **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site (Supine):** Superior segment of the Right Lower Lobe. * **Most common site (Upright):** Basal segments of the Right Lower Lobe. * **Microbiology:** Most lung abscesses are polymicrobial, involving **anaerobes** (e.g., *Peptostreptococcus*, *Fusobacterium*, *Bacteroides*). * **Radiology:** Characterized by a thick-walled cavity with an **air-fluid level**. * **Primary Risk Factor:** Altered sensorium (alcoholism, seizure, general anesthesia) leading to aspiration. [1] **Management:** Prolonged antibiotic treatment for 4–6 weeks is often required, and physiotherapy is valuable for lower lobe suppuration. [1]

Question 504: A 65-year-old miner presents with a two-month history of 7 kg weight loss, cough, and blood-streaked sputum. He had a history of pulmonary tuberculosis 10 years ago. He also reports drooping of his left eyelid for one month. Physical examination reveals left-sided ptosis and pupillary miosis. Chest X-ray shows a round opacification in the left upper apical lobe. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Secondary tuberculosis
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
D. Asbestosis

Explanation: ### Explanation **Diagnosis: Pancoast Tumor (Superior Sulcus Tumor) secondary to Squamous Cell Carcinoma.** The patient presents with a classic triad suggestive of a **Pancoast tumor**: a mass in the lung apex, constitutional symptoms (weight loss, cough), and **Horner’s syndrome** (ptosis and miosis) [1]. Horner’s syndrome occurs due to the local invasion of the paravertebral sympathetic chain and the stellate ganglion. **Why Squamous Cell Carcinoma is correct:** While any lung cancer can cause a Pancoast tumor, **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)** is the most common histological subtype associated with superior sulcus tumors. Furthermore, SCC has a strong association with smoking and often arises in the background of chronic lung scarring (e.g., old TB), known as **"Scar Carcinoma."** [2] **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Secondary Tuberculosis:** While the history of TB and apical opacification are suggestive, the presence of Horner’s syndrome and significant weight loss in an elderly patient strongly points toward malignancy rather than reactivation TB [1]. * **Adenocarcinoma:** Although it is the most common lung cancer overall and can present as a scar carcinoma, it typically presents as a peripheral nodule. SCC remains more classically linked to Pancoast presentations in clinical examinations. * **Asbestosis:** This is a restrictive lung disease characterized by diffuse interstitial fibrosis and pleural plaques, usually in the lower lobes, not a localized apical mass with sympathetic nerve involvement. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Pancoast Syndrome:** Includes Horner’s syndrome, shoulder pain (brachial plexus involvement, C8-T2), and atrophy of hand muscles. * **Horner’s Syndrome Triad:** Ptosis (partial), Miosis, and Anhidrosis. * **Scar Carcinoma:** Most commonly Adenocarcinoma, but in the context of apical Pancoast tumors, SCC is frequently cited in exams. * **Squamous Cell Carcinoma Characteristics:** Central location (usually), cavitary lesions [1], and association with **Hypercalcemia** [2] (due to PTHrP production).

Question 505: A 58-year-old female smoker with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and osteoarthritis, who is on ipratropium bromide, albuterol inhalers, and hydrocodone-acetaminophen, presents with respiratory distress for 2 days. She has increased thick, yellow sputum production, low-grade fever, and increasing confusion. On examination, she is mildly obtunded but arousable, with a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg, pulse of 115/min, respiratory rate of 30/min, and O2 saturation of 84% on her usual 3 L/min nasal cannula oxygen. She is using accessory muscles to breathe, has diffuse wheezing and rhonchi bilaterally, a prolonged expiratory phase, distant but regular heart sounds, and no peripheral edema. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) on arrival are: pH 7.20, PO2 70 mmHg, PCO2 65 mmHg, calculated HCO3 29 mEq/L. Electrolytes are: Na 140 mEq/L, K 5.1 mEq/L, HCO3 29 mEq/L, Cl 100 mEq/L, BUN 20 mg/dL, creatinine 1.5 mg/dL, glucose 89 mg/dL. After prompt initiation of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (Bi-pap), blood cultures, toxicology screen, intravenous fluids, and IV antibiotics, consider the patient's metabolic situation. Which of the following best describes the acid-base condition and its etiology?

A. The patient has acute, severe respiratory acidosis caused by the sudden deterioration in her respiratory status.
B. The patient has an underlying metabolic acidosis caused by her renal insufficiency now compounded by a respiratory alkalosis.
C. The patient ingested abundant amounts of aspirin which caused a severe metabolic acidosis and respiratory failure.
D. The patient has a baseline chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation, now with a superimposed further respiratory acidosis caused by decreased ventilation. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### **Explanation** **1. Analysis of the Correct Answer (Option D):** The patient has **acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis**. [1] * **Chronic Component:** As an end-stage COPD patient, she likely lives in a state of chronic CO2 retention. This is evidenced by the **elevated bicarbonate (29 mEq/L)**, which indicates renal compensation (metabolic alkalosis) that takes 3–5 days to develop. [4] * **Acute Component:** Her current ABG shows a **pH of 7.20** and **PCO2 of 65 mmHg**. In acute respiratory acidosis, for every 10 mmHg rise in PCO2, the pH drops by 0.08. In chronic cases, the pH drops by only 0.03 due to compensation. Here, the severe acidemia (pH 7.20) despite the high bicarbonate confirms an acute worsening of ventilation (likely due to COPD exacerbation and opioid use) superimposed on her baseline chronic state. [1] [3] **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** While she has acute respiratory acidosis, this option ignores her **chronic baseline** and the evident metabolic compensation (elevated HCO3). * **Option B:** Her creatinine (1.5 mg/dL) is mildly elevated but not sufficient to cause a primary metabolic acidosis that explains this picture. Furthermore, her PCO2 is high, not low, ruling out respiratory alkalosis. * **Option C:** Aspirin toxicity typically presents with a mixed respiratory alkalosis and high anion gap metabolic acidosis. This patient’s ABG shows pure respiratory acidosis (high PCO2, low pH). **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **ABG Rule of Thumb (Respiratory Acidosis):** * *Acute:* pH ↓ 0.08 for every 10 mmHg ↑ in PCO2. * *Chronic:* pH ↓ 0.03 for every 10 mmHg ↑ in PCO2. * **Bicarbonate Clue:** A high HCO3 in a COPD patient with respiratory distress is a hallmark of **chronic CO2 retention**. [2] * **Precipitating Factors:** In this patient, the acute deterioration was likely triggered by an infection (yellow sputum, fever) and potentially worsened by **opioid-induced hypoventilation** (hydrocodone). [1]

Question 506: What is the commonest intrabronchial cause of hemoptysis?

A. Carcinoma of the lung (Correct Answer)
B. Adenoma of the lung
C. Emphysema
D. Bronchiectasis

Explanation: The correct answer is **Carcinoma of the lung**. **1. Why Carcinoma of the lung is correct:** Intrabronchial causes of hemoptysis refer to pathologies originating within the bronchial tree. Bronchogenic carcinoma is the most common cause of hemoptysis in adults, particularly in smokers over the age of 40 [1]. The mechanism involves the erosion of the tumor into the bronchial mucosa and its underlying vascular supply (usually the high-pressure bronchial arteries) or the necrosis of the tumor tissue itself [1]. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Adenoma of the lung:** While bronchial adenomas (like carcinoid tumors) are highly vascular and frequently present with hemoptysis, they are significantly rarer than bronchogenic carcinoma. * **Emphysema:** This is a destructive process of the alveoli (parenchymal) rather than an intrabronchial lesion. While it can coexist with chronic bronchitis (which causes hemoptysis), emphysema itself rarely causes significant bleeding. * **Bronchiectasis:** This is a major cause of hemoptysis (often massive) due to the hypertrophy of bronchial arteries [2]. However, it is characterized by permanent *dilation* of the airways and chronic infection rather than a primary *intrabronchial mass* or lesion. Statistically, in many global series, malignancy remains the more frequent cause of any-grade hemoptysis in the elderly. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common cause of hemoptysis (Overall):** Bronchitis (Acute/Chronic). * **Most common cause of Massive Hemoptysis:** Bronchiectasis (followed by TB and Lung Abscess) [2]. * **Definition of Massive Hemoptysis:** Usually defined as >200–600 mL of blood within 24 hours. * **Vascular Source:** 90% of hemoptysis originates from the **Bronchial Arteries** (high pressure), not the Pulmonary Arteries. * **Initial Investigation of choice:** Chest X-ray; however, **CT Bronchography/MDCT** is the gold standard for localizing the site of bleeding.

Question 507: A patient presents with elevated JVP on the right side and a positive Kussmaul sign. Superior Vena Cava (SVC) obstruction is suspected. In which of the following is SVC obstruction commonly seen?

A. Pancoast tumour
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Small cell lung cancer (Correct Answer)
D. Hoarseness of voice

Explanation: Superior Vena Cava (SVC) Syndrome occurs due to the compression or invasion of the SVC, leading to venous congestion in the head, neck, and upper extremities. **Why Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC) is correct:** While non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) is more common overall, **Small Cell Lung Cancer** is the most frequent histological subtype associated with SVC syndrome [3]. This is because SCLC typically arises **centrally** [1] near the mediastinum and grows rapidly, leading to extrinsic compression of the thin-walled SVC. Approximately 7-10% of SCLC patients develop SVC syndrome, compared to only 1-2% of NSCLC patients. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Pancoast Tumour:** These are superior sulcus tumours (usually squamous cell or adenocarcinoma) located at the extreme apex of the lung. They typically present with **Horner’s syndrome** and brachial plexus involvement (shoulder pain), rather than SVC obstruction. * **B. Adenocarcinoma:** This is the most common type of lung cancer overall, but it is usually located **peripherally** [2]. Therefore, it is less likely to compress central structures like the SVC compared to SCLC. * **D. Hoarseness of voice:** This is a **symptom/sign** (often due to recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy), not a cause or a condition where SVC obstruction is "seen." **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause of SVC Syndrome:** Malignancy (Lung cancer > Lymphoma). * **Kussmaul Sign:** A paradoxical rise in JVP on inspiration; in SVC syndrome, it indicates the inability of the heart to accommodate venous return due to the obstruction. * **Pemberton’s Sign:** Facial flushing and cyanosis upon raising both arms above the head; a classic bedside test for SVC obstruction (often seen in retrosternal goiters). * **Management:** SCLC is highly chemosensitive; therefore, chemotherapy is the primary treatment for SVC syndrome caused by SCLC.

Question 508: The Kveim test is used for the diagnosis of which condition?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus tissue
C. Sarcoidosis (Correct Answer)
D. Cystic fibrosis

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Sarcoidosis** The **Kveim-Siltzbach test** is a historical diagnostic skin test used for Sarcoidosis. It involves the intradermal injection of a processed suspension of human sarcoidal tissue (usually from the spleen or lymph node of a known patient). * **Mechanism:** In a positive case, a nodule forms at the injection site over 4–6 weeks. A biopsy of this nodule reveals **non-caseating granulomas**, which is the pathological hallmark of Sarcoidosis. * **Current Status:** While high-yield for exams, it is rarely used in modern clinical practice due to the risk of transmitting infections (like prions/Hepatitis), lack of standardized reagents, and the availability of safer diagnostic tools like EBUS-TBNA and ACE levels. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **A. Tuberculosis:** The screening test for TB is the **Mantoux test** (PPD), which detects a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to tuberculin protein. TB is characterized by *caseating* granulomas. * **B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE):** Diagnosis is based on clinical criteria (SLICC/ACR) and serology (ANA, Anti-dsDNA, Anti-Smith). Skin involvement is assessed via the **Lupus Band Test** (direct immunofluorescence). * **D. Cystic Fibrosis:** The gold standard for diagnosis is the **Sweat Chloride Test** (pilocarpine iontophoresis), showing chloride levels >60 mmol/L. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Schaumann bodies** (laminated calcium-protein concretions) and **Asteroid bodies** (star-shaped inclusions) are frequently seen in the giant cells of Sarcoidosis. * **Löfgren syndrome:** A specific acute presentation of Sarcoidosis consisting of the triad: Erythema nodosum, Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), and Arthralgia [1]. * **Heerfordt syndrome:** Uveoparotid fever (Uveitis, Parotid swelling, and Facial nerve palsy). * **Biochemical marker:** Elevated **Serum ACE** (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme) levels and hypercalciuria [1].

Question 509: Cavernous respiration is heard in which of the following conditions?

A. Cavity (Correct Answer)
B. Consolidation
C. Fibrosis
D. Interstitial inflammation

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Cavernous respiration** is a specific subtype of bronchial breathing characterized by a low-pitched, hollow sound (resembling blowing across the mouth of an empty bottle). 1. **Why "Cavity" is correct:** Cavernous breathing occurs when a large, thin-walled **pulmonary cavity** (at least 2 cm in diameter) communicates freely with a bronchus. The cavity acts as a resonating chamber, filtering out high frequencies and amplifying low-pitched sounds during both inspiration and expiration. It is classically seen in **cavitary tuberculosis** [1] or a drained lung abscess [3]. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Consolidation:** Typically produces **Tubular bronchial breathing**. This is high-pitched and occurs because solidified lung tissue conducts sounds from the large airways to the periphery more efficiently than air-filled alveoli. * **Fibrosis:** Often associated with **bronchial breathing** if there is associated bronchiectasis, but more commonly presents with fine "velcro" inspiratory crackles. * **Interstitial inflammation:** Characteristically presents with **vesicular breath sounds** (often diminished) and fine end-inspiratory crepitations, not bronchial or cavernous breathing. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Amphoric Breathing:** A variant of cavernous breathing that is even more high-pitched and metallic; it is seen in **large cavities** or **tension pneumothorax** (due to the "jar" effect). * **D'Espine's Sign:** Bronchial breathing heard over the spinous processes below T4, suggesting posterior mediastinal lymphadenopathy. * **Key Distinction:** In bronchial breathing, the expiratory phase is longer, louder, and higher-pitched than the inspiratory phase, with a distinct **pause** between the two.

Question 510: Which of the following is NOT seen in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

A. Hemoptysis
B. Cor Pulmonale
C. Pneumothorax
D. Aplastic anemia (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Aplastic Anemia is the Correct Answer:** Aplastic anemia is a bone marrow failure syndrome characterized by pancytopenia. It has no pathophysiological link to COPD. In contrast, patients with chronic hypoxemic lung diseases like COPD typically develop **Secondary Polycythemia** (increased red blood cell count) [1]. This occurs because chronic hypoxia stimulates the kidneys to release **erythropoietin**, which increases marrow production of RBCs to improve oxygen-carrying capacity [1]. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Hemoptysis:** While more common in bronchiectasis or lung cancer, hemoptysis can occur in COPD due to acute bronchitis (mucosal inflammation and friability) or during exacerbations. * **Cor Pulmonale:** This is a classic complication of late-stage COPD. Chronic hypoxia leads to pulmonary vasoconstriction, resulting in pulmonary hypertension, which eventually causes right ventricular hypertrophy and failure (Cor Pulmonale) [1]. * **Pneumothorax:** COPD patients often develop emphysematous bullae. The rupture of these subpleural blebs or bullae leads to **secondary spontaneous pneumothorax**, a common emergency in this population. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Polycythemia in COPD:** Defined as a hematocrit >55%. It increases blood viscosity, further worsening pulmonary hypertension. * **Pink Puffers vs. Blue Bloaters:** Emphysema-predominant patients (Pink Puffers) maintain oxygenation by hyperventilating, while Bronchitis-predominant patients (Blue Bloaters) are often cyanotic and more prone to Cor Pulmonale [1]. * **ECG in COPD:** Look for "P-pulmonale" (tall, peaked P waves in lead II) and right axis deviation, indicating right heart involvement.

Practice by Chapter

Obstructive Airway Diseases (Asthma, COPD)

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Interstitial Lung Diseases

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Pulmonary Infections

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Pulmonary Vascular Diseases

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Pleural Diseases

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Sleep-Disordered Breathing

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Respiratory Failure

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Mediastinal Disorders

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Occupational Lung Diseases

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Pulmonary Function Testing

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Bronchiectasis and Cystic Fibrosis

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Lung Cancer Approach

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