Pulmonology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is false regarding the CURB-65 criteria used to assess pneumonia severity?

Systolic blood pressure <= 100 mmHg. The **CURB-65 score** is a validated clinical prediction rule used to determine the severity of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) and guide the site of care (outpatient vs. inpatient vs. ICU) [1]. ### **Why Option C is the Correct Answer (The False Statement)** In the CURB-65 criteria, the threshold for **hypotension** is defined as a **Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP) 7 mmol/L:** This is a correct component (**U**rea) [1]. In mg/dL, this corresponds to > 19 mg/dL. * **B. Respiratory rate ≥ 30 breaths/min:** This is a correct component (**R**espiratory rate) indicating significant respiratory distress. * **D. Diastolic blood pressure ≤ 60 mmHg:** This is a correct component (**B**lood pressure) representing hemodynamic instability. ### **The CURB-65 Breakdown** Each criteria carries 1 point [1]: 1. **C**onfusion (new onset) 2. **U**rea > 7 mmol/L (19 mg/dL) 3. **R**espiratory Rate ≥ 30/min 4. **B**lood Pressure (SBP < 90 or DBP ≤ 60 mmHg) 5. **Age ≥ 65** years ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Management Guide:** * **Score 0-1:** Low risk; consider outpatient treatment [1]. * **Score 2:** Moderate risk; consider short-stay inpatient observation [1]. * **Score ≥ 3:** Severe pneumonia; requires hospitalization (consider ICU if score is 4-5) [1]. * **CRB-65:** A modified version used in primary care settings where urea testing is unavailable. * **Limitation:** CURB-65 does not account for comorbidities or oxygenation (unlike the PSI/PORT score), which are also critical in management decisions.

Q: Hemoptysis is commonly seen in:

Pulmonary thromboembolism. **Explanation:** **Pulmonary Thromboembolism (PTE)** is a classic cause of hemoptysis, occurring in approximately 10–30% of cases. The underlying mechanism is **pulmonary infarction** [1]. When a peripheral pulmonary artery is occluded, the lung tissue distal to the block undergoes necrosis and hemorrhage into the alveolar spaces. This typically presents as small amounts of bright red blood or blood-streaked sputum, often accompanied by pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea [1]. **Analysis of Options:** * **Miliary Tuberculosis (Option B):** While pulmonary TB is the most common cause of hemoptysis in India, *miliary* TB typically presents with hematogenous spread, resulting in millet-sized tubercles throughout the lung parenchyma. It usually presents with fever, weight loss, and dyspnea; hemoptysis is rare in the miliary form compared to cavitary TB. * **Pneumoconiosis (Option C):** Occupational lung diseases like silicosis or asbestosis primarily cause progressive pulmonary fibrosis [2]. Hemoptysis is not a standard feature unless there is a complication like Progressive Massive Fibrosis (PMF) or a superimposed infection (e.g., Silicotuberculosis). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause of hemoptysis (Global):** Acute Bronchitis [3]. * **Most common cause of hemoptysis (India):** Tuberculosis. * **Massive Hemoptysis:** Defined as >200–600 ml of blood in 24 hours. The most common source is the **Bronchial Arteries** (high pressure) rather than the Pulmonary Arteries. * **PTE Triad:** Hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain, and dyspnea (seen in <20% of patients). * **Chest X-ray in PTE:** Usually normal, but may show **Hampton’s Hump** (wedge-shaped opacity indicating infarction) or **Westermark sign** (focal oligemia).

Q: What is true about sarcoidosis?

Spontaneous remission may occur. **Explanation:** Sarcoidosis is a multisystem, idiopathic disease characterized by the formation of **non-caseating granulomas**. **1. Why Option B is Correct:** Spontaneous remission is a hallmark of sarcoidosis, occurring in approximately **60-70% of patients**. This is particularly common in patients with Stage I disease (bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy) and those presenting with **Löfgren syndrome** (erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy, and arthralgia) [1]. Most remissions occur within the first two years of diagnosis. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** Sarcoidosis typically presents with interstitial lung disease or hilar lymphadenopathy. While rare "cystic" changes can occur in end-stage fibrosis, **large cavitary lesions** are characteristic of Tuberculosis or fungal infections, not sarcoidosis [2]. * **Option C:** While it is true that many sarcoidosis patients exhibit **cutaneous anergy** (a negative Tuberculin Skin Test/Mantoux), this is a *clinical finding*, not a defining rule. More importantly, Option B is the "most true" classic teaching regarding the natural history of the disease. (Note: In exams, spontaneous remission is the preferred high-yield fact). * **Option D:** By definition, sarcoidosis granulomas are **non-caseating**. The presence of caseation or central necrosis strongly suggests an infectious etiology like Tuberculosis [2]. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Biochemical Marker:** Elevated **Serum ACE levels** (reflects total granuloma burden). * **Bronchoalveolar Lavage (BAL):** Shows an increased **CD4+:CD8+ ratio** (usually >3.5:1). * **Kveim-Siltzbach Test:** Historically used but now obsolete due to infection risks. * **Scadding Stages:** Stage I (Hilar nodes), Stage II (Nodes + Infiltrates), Stage III (Infiltrates only), Stage IV (Fibrosis). * **Asteroid bodies** and **Schaumann bodies** are characteristic microscopic findings within the giant cells.

Q: Extensive pleural thickening, especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura, is a classical feature of which condition?

Asbestosis. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Asbestosis** (specifically, asbestos-related pleural disease) [1]. **1. Why Asbestosis is correct:** Asbestos fibers are unique among mineral dusts for their ability to migrate to the periphery of the lung and reach the visceral and parietal pleura [1]. The hallmark of asbestos exposure is the development of **pleural plaques**, which are areas of dense, collagenous thickening [1]. These plaques characteristically involve the **parietal pleura**, particularly the **posterolateral chest wall** and the **diaphragmatic pleura** (often sparing the costophrenic angles). Diaphragmatic calcification is considered nearly pathognomonic for prior asbestos exposure. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Coal Worker’s Pneumoconiosis (CWP):** Primarily involves the lung parenchyma (macules and nodules) with a predilection for the upper lobes [1]. Pleural involvement is rare. * **Silicosis:** Characterized by "eggshell calcification" of hilar lymph nodes and silicotic nodules in the upper lobes [1]. While it can cause some pleural thickening, it does not classically target the diaphragmatic pleura. * **Siderosis:** Caused by iron oxide inhalation (common in welders) [1]. It is a "benign" pneumoconiosis that causes reticulonodular opacities on X-ray but typically does not cause fibrosis or pleural disease. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common manifestation of asbestos exposure:** Pleural plaques (asymptomatic). * **Most common malignancy in asbestosis:** Bronchogenic carcinoma (Risk is synergistically increased with smoking). * **Most specific malignancy:** Mesothelioma (Not related to smoking). * **Radiology:** Look for "Holly leaf" appearance of pleural plaques on chest X-ray. * **Histology:** Ferruginous bodies (asbestos bodies) – golden-brown, fusiform rods with beaded appearance (Prussian blue positive) [1].

Q: What is the initial management for a spontaneous pneumothorax?

Simple needle aspiration. **Explanation:** The management of spontaneous pneumothorax (SP) has evolved toward less invasive interventions. According to current British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines, **Simple Needle Aspiration (16–18G)** is the recommended **initial management** for a primary spontaneous pneumothorax that is large (>2 cm at the level of the hilum) or symptomatic. It is as effective as a chest tube in terms of immediate lung re-expansion but carries a lower risk of complications and shorter hospital stays. **Analysis of Options:** * **B. Closed Drainage (Intercostal Drainage/ICD):** This is indicated if needle aspiration fails (twice), in cases of secondary spontaneous pneumothorax (in patients >50 years with underlying lung disease), or if the patient is hemodynamically unstable (tension pneumothorax). It is not the first-line "simple" intervention for primary SP. * **A. Intermittent Positive-Pressure Ventilation (IPPV):** This is **contraindicated** in an untreated pneumothorax as it can rapidly convert a simple pneumothorax into a life-threatening **tension pneumothorax**. * **D. Thoracotomy:** This is a definitive surgical intervention reserved for recurrent episodes, bilateral pneumothorax, or persistent air leaks (failure of ICD). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Definition of "Large":** >2 cm distance between the lung margin and chest wall at the level of the hilum. * **Needle Decompression:** In **Tension Pneumothorax**, the immediate treatment is needle decompression in the **5th intercostal space** just anterior to the mid-axillary line (updated from the 2nd ICS). * **Success Rate:** Simple aspiration has a success rate of approximately 60-70% for primary SP. * **Observation:** Small (<2 cm), asymptomatic primary SP can often be managed with observation and supplemental oxygen alone.

Q: All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except?

Progesterone therapy. The risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) and subsequent pulmonary embolism (PE) is primarily driven by **Virchow’s Triad**: endothelial injury, stasis, and hypercoagulability. **Why Progesterone therapy is the correct answer:** While **Estrogen** is a well-known risk factor for VTE (as it increases clotting factors and decreases Antithrombin III) [1], **Progesterone alone** (progestogen-only therapy) does not significantly increase the risk of thromboembolism. In clinical practice, progestogen-only pills (POPs) or levonorgestrel-releasing IUDs are often the preferred contraceptive methods for patients with a high risk of VTE. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Protein S deficiency:** Protein S is a natural anticoagulant that acts as a cofactor for Protein C. A deficiency leads to a hypercoagulable state, significantly increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and PE [1]. * **Malignancy:** Cancers (especially adenocarcinoma) induce a prothrombotic state through the release of tissue factors and mucins (Trousseau’s syndrome), making it a major risk factor for PE. * **Obesity:** Obesity promotes VTE through multiple mechanisms, including chronic low-grade inflammation, increased intra-abdominal pressure leading to venous stasis in the lower limbs, and decreased fibrinolytic activity. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common source of PE:** Deep veins of the lower limbs (above the knee), specifically the **iliofemoral veins** [2]. * **Most common inherited hypercoagulable state:** Factor V Leiden mutation (resistance to Protein C) [1]. * **Gold Standard Investigation for PE:** CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA). * **ECG Finding:** Most common is sinus tachycardia; most specific is the **S1Q3T3 pattern**.

Q: A patient presents with acute onset high-grade fever, chills, productive cough with rusty-colored sputum, and pleuritic chest pain. The chest X-ray is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pneumococcal Pneumonia. ***Pneumococcal Pneumonia*** - **Lobar consolidation** on chest X-ray is the classic radiographic pattern for **Streptococcus pneumoniae** pneumonia. - Most common cause of **community-acquired pneumonia** in immunocompetent adults, presenting with homogeneous consolidation affecting an entire lobe. *Tuberculosis* - Typically presents with **upper lobe involvement** and **cavitation** on chest imaging, not lobar consolidation. - Associated with **night sweats**, **weight loss**, and **chronic cough** over weeks to months. *Klebsiella pneumonia* - Usually causes **upper lobe consolidation** with **bulging fissure sign** and potential **cavitation**. - More commonly seen in **alcoholics** and **diabetics**, with thick, bloody sputum production. *Pneumocystis pneumonia* - Characterized by **bilateral interstitial infiltrates** or **ground-glass opacities**, not lobar consolidation. - Occurs almost exclusively in **immunocompromised patients** (HIV, organ transplant recipients).

Q: Exudative pleural effusion is seen in:

Pneumonia. **Explanation:** Pleural effusions are classified into **Transudates** and **Exudates** based on the underlying pathophysiology. **1. Why Pneumonia is Correct:** Pneumonia causes an **Exudative effusion** (specifically a parapneumonic effusion). The mechanism involves local inflammation of the pleura, which increases capillary permeability. This allows protein-rich fluid and cells to leak into the pleural space. According to **Light’s Criteria**, an exudate meets at least one of the following: * Pleural fluid protein/Serum protein ratio > 0.5 * Pleural fluid LDH/Serum LDH ratio > 0.6 * Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3rd the upper limit of normal serum LDH. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Congestive Cardiac Failure (CCF):** The most common cause of transudative effusion. It occurs due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the systemic or pulmonary circulation. * **Nephrotic Syndrome:** Causes a transudative effusion due to decreased oncotic pressure (hypoalbuminemia). * **Cirrhosis:** Leads to "Hepatic Hydrothorax" (usually right-sided), a transudative effusion caused by decreased oncotic pressure and the movement of peritoneal fluid through diaphragmatic defects. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause of Transudate:** Congestive Heart Failure. * **Most common cause of Exudate:** Pneumonia (Parapneumonic) followed by Malignancy and TB. * **Meigs’ Syndrome:** Triad of Benign Ovarian Tumor (Fibroma), Ascites, and Pleural Effusion (Transudative). * **Chylothorax:** Exudative fluid with Triglycerides > 110 mg/dL. * **Low Glucose in Effusion:** Suggests Rheumatoid Arthritis, Empyema, Malignancy, or TB.

Question 1

Which of the following is false regarding the CURB-65 criteria used to assess pneumonia severity?

Accepted Answer

Systolic blood pressure <= 100 mmHg

Answer

Blood urea nitrogen > 7 mmol/L

Answer

Respiratory rate >= 30 breaths/min

Answer

Diastolic blood pressure <= 60 mmHg

Question 2

What is the major risk factor for the development of a lung abscess?

Accepted Answer

Aspiration

Answer

Pneumonia

Answer

Lung cancer

Answer

Tuberculosis

Question 3

A 25-year-old man presents with a progressive illness of several days' duration characterized by nonproductive cough, fever, and malaise. A lateral view chest radiograph reveals platelike atelectasis. Elevated titers of cold agglutinins are detected. Which of the following is the most likely type of pneumonia in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Interstitial pneumonia, most likely caused by M. pneumoniae

Answer

Bacterial pneumonia, most likely caused by S. pneumoniae

Answer

Hospital-acquired pneumonia, most likely caused by P. aeruginosa

Answer

P. jiroveci (carinii) pneumonia, most likely related to an immunocompromised state

Question 4

Hemoptysis is commonly seen in:

Accepted Answer

Pulmonary thromboembolism

Answer

Miliary tuberculosis

Answer

Pneumoconiosis

Answer

None of the above

Question 5

What is true about sarcoidosis?

Accepted Answer

Spontaneous remission may occur

Answer

Causes large cavitary lesions

Answer

Tuberculin test is negative

Answer

Caseation and necrosis may occur

Question 6

Extensive pleural thickening, especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura, is a classical feature of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Asbestosis

Answer

Coal worker's pneumoconiosis

Answer

Silicosis

Answer

Siderosis

Question 7

What is the initial management for a spontaneous pneumothorax?

Accepted Answer

Simple needle aspiration

Answer

Intermittent positive-pressure ventilation

Answer

Closed drainage

Answer

Thoracotomy

Question 8

All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except?

Accepted Answer

Progesterone therapy

Answer

Protein S deficiency

Answer

Malignancy

Answer

Obesity

Question 9

A patient presents with acute onset high-grade fever, chills, productive cough with rusty-colored sputum, and pleuritic chest pain. The chest X-ray is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Pneumococcal Pneumonia

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Klebsiella pneumonia

Answer

Pneumocystis pneumonia

Question 10

Exudative pleural effusion is seen in:

Accepted Answer

Pneumonia

Answer

Nephrotic syndrome

Answer

Congestive cardiac failure

Answer

Cirrhosis

Pulmonology — MCQs

Pulmonology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?