Hematology — MCQs

Hematology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 981: A 70-year-old male with anemia, hypercalcemia, and renal insufficiency presents with bone pain. Laboratory results show increased total protein, increased calcium, increased creatinine, and decreased hemoglobin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Bone metastasis
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C. Osteoporosis
D. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma*** - The constellation of **anemia**, **hypercalcemia**, **renal insufficiency**, and **bone pain** in an elderly patient points strongly to multiple myeloma, often summarized by the acronym **CRAB** (Calcium elevation, Renal failure, Anemia, Bone lesions). [1] - Increased total protein, particularly in the presence of hypercalcemia and renal failure, further suggests the presence of a **paraprotein**, a hallmark of multiple myeloma. [1] *Bone metastasis* - While bone metastasis can cause bone pain and hypercalcemia, it typically does not present with unexplained **anemia** and **renal insufficiency** as primary features without an identified primary tumor. - The elevated total protein is less characteristic of bone metastasis compared to multiple myeloma, which involves excessive **monoclonal protein** production. *Primary hyperparathyroidism* - This condition is characterized by hypercalcemia and can lead to bone disease and renal stones, but it does not typically cause the significant **anemia** or the magnitude of **renal insufficiency** seen in this patient. - Total protein levels are usually normal in primary hyperparathyroidism, lacking the **paraprotein** seen in myeloma. *Osteoporosis* - Osteoporosis causes bone pain due to fractures and can lead to elevated calcium if severe and prolonged bed rest is involved, but it does not cause **anemia**, **renal insufficiency**, or elevated total protein. - Bone pain in osteoporosis is primarily due to **vertebral compression fractures**, not direct bone destruction by plasma cells.

Question 982: A 65-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor, and dyspnea on exertion. Laboratory tests show a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, an MCV of 72 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Folate deficiency
C. Iron deficiency anemia (Correct Answer)
D. Anemia of chronic disease

Explanation: ### Iron deficiency anemia - The combination of **microcytic anemia** (MCV 72 fL) and **low serum ferritin** is highly indicative of iron deficiency [1], [2]. - **Fatigue, pallor, and dyspnea on exertion** are classic symptoms of any significant anemia [3]. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - Typically causes **macrocytic anemia** (high MCV), not microcytic [2], [4]. - Associated with **neurological symptoms** (e.g., paresthesias) and megaloblastic changes in the bone marrow. *Folate deficiency* - Also results in **macrocytic anemia**, similarly to B12 deficiency, with a high MCV [2], [4]. - **Serum folate levels** would be low, and neurological symptoms are generally absent. *Anemia of chronic disease* - Can present with **normocytic** or mildly **microcytic anemia**, but generally has **normal or elevated ferritin** levels due to iron sequestration [1]. - The primary distinguishing factor here is the **low serum ferritin**, ruling out anemia of chronic disease [4].

Question 983: A patient with recurrent infections has a defect in the NADPH oxidase complex. Which condition is most likely?

A. Chronic granulomatous disease (Correct Answer)
B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
C. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Explanation: ***Chronic granulomatous disease*** - This condition is characterized by a defect in the **NADPH oxidase complex**, impairing the generation of **reactive oxygen species** and leading to recurrent, severe infections [1]. - Patients are highly susceptible to infections with **catalase-positive organisms** like *Staphylococcus aureus* and fungi [1]. *Chediak-Higashi syndrome* - This is an **autosomal recessive disorder** characterized by a defect in lysosomal trafficking, leading to impaired phagosome-lysosome fusion and giant lysosomes. - It presents with **oculocutaneous albinism**, recurrent pyogenic infections, and peripheral neuropathy. *Leukocyte adhesion deficiency* - This immune deficiency is caused by defects in **integrins**, preventing leukocytes from adhering to endothelial cells and migrating to sites of infection. - It typically manifests as recurrent bacterial infections, impaired wound healing, and **delayed umbilical cord separation**. *Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome* - This is an **X-linked recessive disorder** characterized by a classic triad of **thrombocytopenia**, **eczema**, and recurrent infections. - It involves defects in the **WASP protein**, affecting cytoskeleton rearrangement in hematopoietic cells.

Question 984: Which immunoglobulin is predominantly produced in multiple myeloma?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG (Correct Answer)
D. IgE

Explanation: ***IgG*** - In **multiple myeloma**, the most common immunoglobulin produced is **IgG**, associated with increased bone marrow plasma cells [1]. - This condition is marked by the presence of a **monoclonal protein** (M-protein), frequently identified as **IgG** in the patient's serum or urine [1]. *IgA* - While **IgA** can be produced in some cases of multiple myeloma, it is less common than **IgG**. - Typically, it is associated with other conditions, like **IgA myeloma**, rather than being the predominant type. *IgE* - **IgE** is primarily involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections and is not linked to multiple myeloma [2]. - It is generally present in **very low concentrations** in the serum compared to other immunoglobulins. *IgM* - Although **IgM** can be involved in certain plasma cell disorders, it is not the dominant immunoglobulin in **multiple myeloma**. - Its presence is typically associated with **Waldenström's macroglobulinemia** rather than myeloma specifically [1].

Question 985: A 45-year-old female with isolated thrombocytopenia (platelet count 20,000) requires the best test to evaluate bone marrow response. What is the appropriate test?

A. Plt-associated IgG Ab
B. vWF activity
C. IPF (Correct Answer)
D. RPI

Explanation: ### IPF - **Immature Platelet Fraction (IPF)** is a direct measure of the proportion of newly produced, young platelets in the peripheral blood, reflecting the current rate of **megakaryopoiesis** and bone marrow's response to thrombocytopenia. - A high IPF in the setting of decreased peripheral platelet count indicates an **adequate bone marrow response** to platelet destruction or consumption [1]. *Plt-associated IgG Ab* - **Platelet-associated IgG antibodies** are relevant for diagnosing **immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)**, by indicating platelet destruction [1]. - While this test helps diagnose the cause of thrombocytopenia, it does not directly evaluate the **bone marrow's production capacity**. *vWF activity* - **Von Willebrand factor (vWF) activity** measures the function of vWF, which is crucial for **platelet adhesion** and aggregation. - This test is used to diagnose **von Willebrand disease**, a cause of bleeding disorders, but it does not assess bone marrow platelet production [1]. *RPI* - The **reticulocyte production index (RPI)** is a measure of the effective bone marrow **erythroid response** to anemia. - While useful for evaluating red blood cell production, the RPI does not provide information about the **bone marrow's platelet production**.

Question 986: A 60-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents with fatigue, nausea, and darkened skin. Blood tests show elevated serum ferritin and transferrin saturation. Which therapeutic approach would help prevent further organ damage?

A. Phlebotomy and iron chelation therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Corticosteroid therapy
C. Transfusion with packed red blood cells
D. High-dose vitamin C

Explanation: ***Phlebotomy and iron chelation therapy*** - The patient's symptoms (fatigue, nausea, darkened skin) along with elevated **ferritin** and **transferrin saturation** are classic signs of **hemochromatosis**, an iron overload disorder [1]. - **Phlebotomy** (therapeutic blood removal) is the primary treatment to reduce iron stores, and **iron chelation therapy** is used in patients who cannot tolerate phlebotomy or have severe cardiac involvement [2]. *Corticosteroid therapy* - **Corticosteroids** are anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive agents, used for conditions like autoimmune disorders, asthma, or allergic reactions. - They are **not indicated** for iron overload and would not address the underlying pathology of hemochromatosis. *Transfusion with packed red blood cells* - **Transfusions** deliver additional iron to the body (as red blood cells contain hemoglobin, which is rich in iron). - This would **exacerbate iron overload** in a patient with hemochromatosis and cause further organ damage. *High-dose vitamin C* - **Vitamin C** (ascorbic acid) enhances iron absorption from the gut. - Administering high doses would **increase iron absorption** and worsen iron overload in hemochromatosis, leading to more severe complications.

Question 987: A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is undergoing molecular testing. If the BCR-ABL fusion gene is detected by FISH, how should this result impact the patient’s treatment strategy?

A. Start tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Switch to conventional chemotherapy
C. Plan for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
D. Administer immunotherapy

Explanation: Start tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy - The detection of the **BCR-ABL fusion gene** is the hallmark of CML and signifies the presence of the **Philadelphia chromosome**. - **Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)** such as imatinib, dasatinib, and nilotinib specifically target the tyrosine kinase activity of the BCR-ABL protein, making them the **first-line and most effective treatment** for CML [1], [2]. *Switch to conventional chemotherapy* - **Conventional chemotherapy** (e.g., hydroxycarbamide) is generally **less effective** and associated with more severe side effects compared to TKIs in CML treatment [1]. - While chemotherapy might be used in rare, specific circumstances (e.g., blastic crisis or TKI resistance), it is not the initial or primary treatment strategy when BCR-ABL is detected. *Plan for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation* - **Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)** is a potential **curative option** for CML but is usually reserved for patients who **fail TKI therapy** or have accelerated/blastic phase disease, not as an initial step [1]. - Due to significant risks and complications, HSCT is not the first-line treatment for a patient newly diagnosed with BCR-ABL positive CML. *Administer immunotherapy* - **Immunotherapy** is a broad term, and while some forms might be explored in resistant or relapsed CML, it is **not the primary treatment** for newly diagnosed BCR-ABL positive CML. - **TKIs** are the targeted therapy for CML, directly addressing the molecular driver of the disease, which is distinct from many forms of conventional immunotherapy [2].

Question 988: A 45-year-old female with chronic alcohol use presents with fatigue and pallor. A peripheral blood smear shows macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils. Based on these findings, which underlying mechanism is most likely contributing to her anemia?

A. Decreased DNA synthesis due to vitamin B12 deficiency (Correct Answer)
B. Increased hemolysis of red blood cells
C. Chronic blood loss leading to iron deficiency
D. Bone marrow suppression by alcohol

Explanation: - The presence of **macrocytic anemia** and **hypersegmented neutrophils** on the peripheral blood smear indicates impaired DNA synthesis, often due to vitamin B12 deficiency [1]. - Chronic alcohol use can lead to **malabsorption** of vitamin B12, thus exacerbating these hematological manifestations [1]. *Chronic blood loss leading to iron deficiency* - This type of anemia is typically **microcytic** due to iron deficiency, which does not align with the observed **macrocytes** in the blood smear. - Chronic blood loss usually presents with **fatigue and pallor**, but lacks the specific features of hypersegmented neutrophils. *Bone marrow suppression by alcohol* - While alcohol can affect bone marrow function, it generally leads to **pancytopenia** rather than specific findings of macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils. - Bone marrow suppression would manifest with a less typical blood smear that does not specifically indicate vitamin B12 deficiency. *Increased hemolysis of red blood cells* - Hemolytic anemia usually presents with **normocytic** or **microcytic** cells rather than macrocytic cells in the blood smear. - Common signs of hemolysis, like increased **bilirubin** and **LDH levels**, would not be present alongside the specific findings here.

Question 989: In anemia of chronic disease, which iron parameter is typically elevated?

A. Serum iron
B. Total iron-binding capacity
C. Ferritin (Correct Answer)
D. Transferrin

Explanation: ***Ferritin*** - In **anemia of chronic disease (ACD)**, inflammation leads to increased production of **hepcidin**, which blocks iron release from stores [1]. - As a result, iron is trapped within macrophages and liver cells, causing **elevated ferritin levels**, which reflects increased iron stores despite functional iron deficiency. *Serum iron* - **Serum iron** levels are typically **decreased** in ACD because hepcidin inhibits iron absorption from the gut and release from macrophages [1]. - This reduction in circulating iron contributes to the anemia, as less iron is available for erythropoiesis. *Total iron-binding capacity* - **Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)**, which primarily reflects **transferrin levels**, is usually **decreased** or normal in ACD [2]. - This is in contrast to iron deficiency anemia, where transferrin production increases to try and capture more iron. *Transferrin* - **Transferrin levels** are typically **decreased** or normal in ACD due to inflammation's suppressive effect on liver protein synthesis. - Reduced transferrin contributes to the decreased TIBC and further limits the transport of iron to erythroid precursors.

Question 990: Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with newly diagnosed essential thrombocythemia?

A. Hydroxyurea (Correct Answer)
B. Anagrelide
C. Interferon alfa
D. Plateletpheresis

Explanation: ***Hydroxyurea*** - **Hydroxyurea** is a first-line treatment for essential thrombocythemia (ET), particularly in high-risk patients, due to its effectiveness in reducing **platelet counts** and preventing **thrombotic events**. [1] - It works by inhibiting DNA synthesis, thus suppressing megakaryocyte proliferation and platelet production in the **bone marrow**. *Anagrelide* - **Anagrelide** is an alternative agent that specifically lowers platelet counts by inhibiting megakaryocyte maturation and differentiation. - It is typically reserved for patients who are **intolerant to hydroxyurea** or when hydroxyurea fails to achieve adequate platelet control. *Interferon alfa* - **Interferon alfa** can be used to treat ET, especially in younger patients or those with a desire for future pregnancy, as it is non-mutagenic. - Its use is often limited by significant **side effects** like fatigue, flu-like symptoms, and mood disturbances, making it less ideal for initial therapy in most cases. *Plateletpheresis* - **Plateletpheresis** is a procedure used for rapid, temporary reduction of extremely high platelet counts in patients with **acute thrombotic** or **hemorrhagic complications**. - It is an emergency measure and not a chronic, long-term treatment for essential thrombocythemia due to its temporary effect and the need for specialized equipment.

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Anemia Evaluation and Management

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Hemoglobinopathies

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Thalassemias

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Platelet Disorders

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Coagulation Disorders

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Thrombotic Disorders

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Leukemias

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Lymphomas

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Multiple Myeloma and Plasma Cell Disorders

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Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

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Transfusion Medicine

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Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation

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Hematology — MCQs

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