Hematology — MCQs

An elderly woman presented with confusion, thirst, and abdominal pain symptoms. On examination, she had pallor and thoracic spine tenderness. X-ray spine showed osteolytic lesions. Her lab investigations showed the following findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? - Hb - 69 g/dl - WBC 4000/cm3 with normal differential count - Serum calcium 13 mg/dl - Creatinine 2.3 mg/dl - Total protein 9 g/dl - Albumin 2.4 g/dl

Q892

Q893

A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of mild fatigue and weakness. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin concentration is 11 g/dL and mean corpuscular volume is 74 μm3. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows 10% HbA2 (normal < 3.5%). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Q894

A 63-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of fatigue. He lives alone and has not seen a doctor in 10 years. He does not exercise, eats a poor diet, and drinks 1-2 beers per day. He does not smoke. He has never had a colonoscopy. Labs show a hemoglobin of 8.9 g/dL (normal 13.5 - 17.5), mean corpuscular volume of 70 fL (normal 80-100), serum ferritin of 400 ng/mL (normal 15-200), TIBC 200 micrograms/dL (normal 250-420), and serum iron 50 micrograms/dL (normal 65-150). Which of the following is the cause of his abnormal lab values?

Q895

Which type of anemia is seen in patients of rheumatoid arthritis?

Q896

Which type of anaemia is seen in vitamin B12 deficiency?

Q897

Which of the following is a feature of Vit B12 deficiency anemia?

Q898

Which type of gout is seen in a patient who is on treatment of CML?

Q899

What is the most likely diagnosis in an individual with normal serum alkaline phosphatase, normal PTH, normal Vitamin D3, and elevated serum calcium?

Q900

Blood is stored at what temperature:

Hematology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 891: An elderly woman presented with confusion, thirst, and abdominal pain symptoms. On examination, she had pallor and thoracic spine tenderness. X-ray spine showed osteolytic lesions. Her lab investigations showed the following findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? - Hb - 69 g/dl - WBC 4000/cm3 with normal differential count - Serum calcium 13 mg/dl - Creatinine 2.3 mg/dl - Total protein 9 g/dl - Albumin 2.4 g/dl

A. Milk alkali syndrome
B. Metastatic breast cancer
C. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)
D. Primary hyperparathyroidism

Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma*** - The combination of **anemia** (Hb - 69 g/dl), **renal insufficiency** (creatinine 2.3 mg/dl), **hypercalcemia** (serum calcium 13 mg/dl), and **osteolytic lesions** on X-ray spine is highly characteristic of multiple myeloma, often remembered by the acronym **CRAB** (Calcium elevation, Renal failure, Anemia, Bone lesions) [1]. - The **elevated total protein** (9 g/dl) with a relatively low albumin (2.4 g/dl) suggests a **paraproteinemia**, a hallmark of multiple myeloma caused by the overproduction of monoclonal antibodies [1]. *Milk alkali syndrome* - This syndrome is characterized by **hypercalcemia**, **metabolic alkalosis**, and **renal insufficiency**, usually due to excessive intake of calcium and absorbable alkali. While hypercalcemia and renal dysfunction are present, the absence of metabolic alkalosis and the presence of osteolytic lesions make this less likely. - It does not typically cause **anemia** or **osteolytic lesions**, and the high total protein is not a feature. *Metastatic breast cancer* - While metastatic breast cancer can cause **osteolytic lesions** and **hypercalcemia**, it typically presents with a primary breast mass or a history of breast cancer [2]. - The **elevated total protein** with a narrowed albumin-globulin gap is not a characteristic feature of metastatic breast cancer unless it also involves multiple myeloma, which is less common. *Primary hyperparathyroidism* - This condition is characterized by **elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH)** leading to **hypercalcemia** and, in severe cases, bone disease (osteitis fibrosa cystica). - Unlike the patient's presentation, primary hyperparathyroidism typically does not cause **anemia** or such pronounced **renal failure** (though kidney stones are common), nor does it lead to significantly elevated total protein with a low albumin.

Question 892: An elderly woman presented with confusion, thirst, and abdominal pain symptoms. On examination, she had pallor and thoracic spine tenderness. X-ray spine showed osteolytic lesions. Her lab investigations showed the following findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? - Hb - 6.9 g/dl

A. Vertebral compression fracture
B. Metastatic carcinoma
C. Osteoporosis
D. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma*** - The combination of **osteolytic lesions** (bone pain, tenderness), **hypercalcemia** (confusion, thirst), **anemia** (Hb 69 g/dl, pallor), and **renal insufficiency** (confusion, thirst from dehydration) is highly suggestive of **multiple myeloma** [1]. - This plasma cell malignancy leads to excessive production of monoclonal antibodies and bone destruction [1]. *Vertebral compression fracture* - While **thoracic spine tenderness** and osteolytic lesions could be a component, it doesn't fully explain the systemic symptoms such as **anemia**, **confusion**, and **hypercalcemia**. - A simple compression fracture would not account for the profound **anemia** (Hb 69 g/dl) seen in this patient. *Metastatic carcinoma* - While metastatic carcinoma can cause **osteolytic lesions**, **anemia**, and sometimes **hypercalcemia**, the specific constellation of symptoms, particularly the severity of anemia and rapid progression, makes **multiple myeloma** a more fitting diagnosis. - Absence of primary tumor indicates that it is not a metastatic disease [1]. *Osteoporosis* - **Osteoporosis** can cause vertebral fractures and bone pain but typically does not lead to **osteolytic lesions**, **severe anemia**, or **hypercalcemia** [2]. - The bone changes in osteoporosis are primarily due to decreased bone density, not destructive lesions [2].

Question 893: A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of mild fatigue and weakness. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin concentration is 11 g/dL and mean corpuscular volume is 74 μm3. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows 10% HbA2 (normal < 3.5%). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Beta thalassemia minor (Correct Answer)
B. Hemoglobin Barts disease
C. Hemoglobin H disease
D. Alpha thalassemia minima
E. Sickle cell trait

Explanation: ***Beta thalassemia minor*** - The combination of **microcytic anemia** (MCV 74 µm3), mild fatigue, and significantly **elevated HbA2** (10%) is highly characteristic of beta thalassemia minor. - In beta thalassemia minor, there is reduced production of beta-globin chains, leading to a compensatory increase in **alpha-globin chains** [1] that combine with delta-globin chains to form more **HbA2**. *Hemoglobin Barts disease* - **Hemoglobin Barts disease** is a severe form of alpha thalassemia, where all four alpha-globin genes are deleted. - It results in **hydrops fetalis** and is incompatible with life, presenting in the perinatal period, not in a 19-year-old with mild symptoms. *Hemoglobin H disease* - **Hemoglobin H disease** is another form of alpha thalassemia caused by the deletion of three alpha-globin genes. - Patients typically present with **moderate to severe microcytic hypochromic anemia**, and **HbH** (beta-4 tetramers) is usually detectable on electrophoresis [2], not elevated HbA2. *Alpha thalassemia minima* - **Alpha thalassemia minima** (silent carrier) involves the deletion of only one alpha-globin gene and is usually **asymptomatic**, often presenting with no or very mild microcytosis. - It does not cause a significant increase in **HbA2** or noticeable anemia as described. *Sickle cell trait* - **Sickle cell trait** is characterized by the presence of both **HbA** and **HbS** (usually 35-45% HbS) on electrophoresis [2], and typically does not cause anemia or microcytosis. - While it can sometimes be associated with a slightly elevated HbA2, the 10% HbA2 level is more indicative of **beta thalassemia minor** in the context of microcytic anemia.

Question 894: A 63-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of fatigue. He lives alone and has not seen a doctor in 10 years. He does not exercise, eats a poor diet, and drinks 1-2 beers per day. He does not smoke. He has never had a colonoscopy. Labs show a hemoglobin of 8.9 g/dL (normal 13.5 - 17.5), mean corpuscular volume of 70 fL (normal 80-100), serum ferritin of 400 ng/mL (normal 15-200), TIBC 200 micrograms/dL (normal 250-420), and serum iron 50 micrograms/dL (normal 65-150). Which of the following is the cause of his abnormal lab values?

A. Vitamin deficiency
B. Chronic inflammation (Correct Answer)
C. Mineral deficiency
D. Occult bleeding
E. Mineral excess

Explanation: ***Chronic inflammation*** - The patient's **normocytic, normochromic anemia** (or slightly microcytic as indicated by MCV 70 fL) in the presence of **elevated ferritin** (400 ng/mL), **low TIBC**, and **low serum iron** is characteristic of **anemia of chronic disease (ACD)** [1]. - His history of **diabetes mellitus** and long-term lack of medical care suggest undiagnosed, ongoing chronic inflammatory processes that lead to ACD. *Vitamin deficiency* - This patient's laboratory values, particularly the **elevated ferritin** and **low TIBC**, do not align with common vitamin deficiencies causing anemia, such as **folate or B12 deficiency** (which typically cause macrocytic anemia) or **vitamin C deficiency** (which can cause microcytic but with normal or low ferritin). - While vitamin deficiencies can contribute to fatigue, they are not the primary explanation for the specific pattern of iron studies observed here. *Mineral deficiency* - Although the patient has low serum iron, the **elevated ferritin** makes primary iron deficiency unlikely as the sole cause of his anemia; typical **iron deficiency anemia** would show **low ferritin** and often **high TIBC** [1]. - Other mineral deficiencies like copper can affect iron metabolism, but the overall pattern strongly points to inflammation rather than a simple deficiency. *Occult bleeding* - **Occult bleeding** typically causes **iron deficiency anemia**, characterized by **low ferritin** and often **high TIBC**, which contrasts with this patient's **elevated ferritin** [1]. - While a colonoscopy is recommended for his age, the current lab results do not support active, chronic blood loss as the primary cause of his anemia. *Mineral excess* - While some conditions involving **mineral excess** (e.g., hemochromatosis causing iron overload) can affect iron labs, they typically do not present with overall low hemoglobin and iron, nor do they often cause the specific constellation of low TIBC and microcytic tendencies seen here. - The elevated ferritin in this context is inflammatory, not indicative of primary iron overload.

Question 895: Which type of anemia is seen in patients of rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Normocytic and normochromic anemia (Correct Answer)
B. Normocytic and hypochromic anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Macrocytic anemia

Explanation: The anemia seen in **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)** is typically **anemia of chronic disease**, characterized by **normal-sized red blood cells (normocytic)** and **normal hemoglobin content (normochromic)**. This type of anemia is caused by **chronic inflammation** leading to impaired iron utilization and reduced erythropoiesis [1], [2]. This type of anemia is associated with inflammation-mediated upregulation of hepcidin [1]. Although iron deficiency can coexist in RA patients, the primary anemia of chronic disease mechanism generally results in normochromic cells [2].

Question 896: Which type of anaemia is seen in vitamin B12 deficiency?

A. Dimorphic anemia
B. Microcytic anemia
C. Macrocytic anemia (Correct Answer)
D. Normocytic anemia

Explanation: ***Macrocytic anemia*** - Vitamin B12 is essential for **DNA synthesis**, and its deficiency leads to impaired nuclear maturation and delayed cell division in erythroid precursors, resulting in abnormally large red blood cells called **megaloblasts**. - This impaired maturation process leads to the production of **macrocytic red blood cells** (high MCV) which are also often prematurely destroyed, contributing to the anemia. *Dimorphic anemia* - This term describes the presence of **two distinct red cell populations**, typically microcytic and macrocytic, which can occur with combined deficiencies such as iron and vitamin B12. - While vitamin B12 deficiency primarily causes macrocytic anemia, dimorphic anemia is not its standalone feature unless accompanied by another deficiency. *Microcytic anemia* - Characterized by **abnormally small red blood cells** (low MCV), typically seen in conditions like **iron deficiency anemia** or thalassemia. - Vitamin B12 deficiency causes large red blood cells, thus ruling out microcytic anemia. *Normocytic anemia* - Red blood cells are of **normal size** (normal MCV) but are reduced in number, often seen in conditions like **anemia of chronic disease** or acute blood loss. - Since vitamin B12 deficiency directly impacts red blood cell size by causing megaloblastic changes, normocytic anemia is not the primary presentation.

Question 897: Which of the following is a feature of Vit B12 deficiency anemia?

A. Macro-ovalocytes
B. All of the options (Correct Answer)
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Hypersegmented neutrophils

Explanation: **All of the options** - **Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia** is a type of **megaloblastic anemia** characterized by impaired DNA synthesis, leading to large, immature red blood cells and neutrophils [1]. - The presence of **macro-ovalocytes** and **hypersegmented neutrophils** are classic hematological features seen on a peripheral blood smear [1]. *Macro-ovalocytes* - **Macro-ovalocytes** are abnormally large, oval-shaped red blood cells, which result from arrested maturation due to the deficiency. - While a hallmark of B12 deficiency, it is not the sole identifying feature, as other megaloblastic anemias can also present with them [2]. *Megaloblastic anemia* - **Megaloblastic anemia** is a broad category of anemia characterized by large, immature, and dysfunctional red blood cells, which is the primary classification for B12 deficiency [2]. - While accurate, it doesn't encompass the specific morphological findings seen in the blood smear of B12 deficiency, unlike the other options. *Hypersegmented neutrophils* - **Hypersegmented neutrophils** are neutrophils with five or more nuclear lobes, a characteristic sign of impaired DNA synthesis affecting granulopoiesis [1]. - This feature is highly specific to **megaloblastic anemias**, distinguishing them from other causes of macrocytosis.

Question 898: Which type of gout is seen in a patient who is on treatment of CML?

A. Pseudogout
B. Acute gout
C. Primary gout
D. Secondary gout (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Secondary gout*** - **Secondary gout** occurs when a high uric acid level is a consequence of another medical condition or its treatment, such as **chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)** [1]. - The increased cell turnover in CML, especially during treatment, leads to a significant release of **purines**, which are then metabolized into **uric acid**, causing hyperuricemia and gout [1]. *Pseudogout* - **Pseudogout** is caused by the deposition of **calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD)** crystals, not uric acid crystals, in the joints [2]. - While it can mimic gout attacks, it has a different underlying pathophysiology and is not directly linked to CML or its treatment. *Acute gout* - **Acute gout** describes the sudden onset of severe pain, swelling, and redness in a joint, which is a common presentation of any type of gout, whether primary or secondary. - This term refers to a **gout flare** rather than the underlying cause of the hyperuricemia. *Primary gout* - **Primary gout** occurs due to an intrinsic metabolic defect in purine metabolism or renal excretion of uric acid, without an identifiable underlying disease [1]. - In this scenario, the gout is secondary to CML and its treatment, making **primary gout** an incorrect classification [1].

Question 899: What is the most likely diagnosis in an individual with normal serum alkaline phosphatase, normal PTH, normal Vitamin D3, and elevated serum calcium?

A. Nutritional rickets
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)
D. Vitamin D intoxication

Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma*** [4] - This condition is often associated with **osteolytic lesions** that lead to the release of calcium into the blood, causing **hypercalcemia**. - **PTH**, **alkaline phosphatase**, and **Vitamin D3** levels are typically normal in this scenario because their regulatory pathways are not primarily affected [1]. *Nutritional rickets* [2] - Characterized by **low calcium** and **phosphate levels**, usually with **elevated alkaline phosphatase** and **PTH** due to inadequate vitamin D or calcium intake [3]. - This patient exhibits **elevated serum calcium**, ruling out rickets. *Hyperparathyroidism* - Both **primary** and **secondary hyperparathyroidism** would present with **elevated PTH** levels, which is stated as normal in the case description [1]. - **Hypercalcemia** in hyperparathyroidism is caused by bone resorption and increased renal reabsorption of calcium, driven by high PTH [5]. *Vitamin D intoxication* - Would lead to **hypercalcemia** and **elevated Vitamin D3** levels, alongside **suppressed PTH** levels, which contradicts the described normal PTH and normal Vitamin D3 [1]. - The excessive vitamin D would increase calcium absorption from the gut and bone resorption not seen here.

Question 900: Blood is stored at what temperature:

A. -20degC
B. 4degC (Correct Answer)
C. -70degC
D. Room temperature

Explanation: *4degC* - Whole blood and red blood cell units are typically stored at **1-6°C** (commonly cited as 4°C) to maintain the viability and function of the red blood cells [1]. - This temperature range helps to slow down the metabolic activity of the cells and prevent bacterial growth, thereby extending their storage life to about 42 days [1]. * -20degC* - While some blood components, like **fresh frozen plasma**, are stored at even colder temperatures (e.g., -18°C or colder), -20°C is too cold for the routine storage of whole blood or red blood cells as it would cause cell damage due to freezing. - Freezing whole blood at this temperature would lead to **hemolysis** upon thawing, making it unsuitable for transfusion. * -70degC* - This extremely low temperature is used for storing very specific blood components, such as **cryopreserved red cells** (for rare blood types) or certain stem cell products, often requiring specialized freezers and cryoprotectants. - It is not the standard temperature for routine storage of whole blood or red blood cells due to the complexity and cost involved, as well as the need for cryoprotectants. * Room temperature* - Storing blood at room temperature (e.g., 20-24°C) would significantly reduce the storage time and increase the risk of **bacterial proliferation** and metabolic changes in the red blood cells. - Blood transfused after being at room temperature for extended periods carries a high risk of **bacterial contamination** and reduced red cell viability.

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Anemia Evaluation and Management

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Hemoglobinopathies

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Thalassemias

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Platelet Disorders

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Coagulation Disorders

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Thrombotic Disorders

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Leukemias

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Lymphomas

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Multiple Myeloma and Plasma Cell Disorders

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Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

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Transfusion Medicine

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Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation

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Hematology — MCQs

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