Hematology — MCQs

Hematology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 511: Which X-linked recessive disease presents with a clotting defect in males?

A. Hemophilia A (Correct Answer)
B. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)
C. Von-Willebrand disease
D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation: 1. Why Hemophilia A is Correct: Hemophilia A is a classic X-linked recessive bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of Clotting Factor VIII [1]. Because the gene is located on the X chromosome, the disease primarily affects males (XY), while females (XX) are typically asymptomatic carriers. The deficiency impairs the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to a "clotting defect" characterized by a prolonged Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT). 2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect: * Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP): This is an acquired autoimmune condition where antibodies (IgG) are directed against platelet glycoproteins (like GpIIb/IIIa). It is not a genetic clotting factor deficiency and does not follow an X-linked inheritance pattern. * Von-Willebrand Disease (vWD): This is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, but it is typically inherited in an Autosomal Dominant fashion (Type 1 and 2) [1]. While it involves a defect in platelet adhesion and Factor VIII stabilization, its inheritance pattern distinguishes it from Hemophilia. 3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls: * Inheritance: Hemophilia A (Factor VIII) and Hemophilia B (Factor IX/Christmas Disease) are both X-linked recessive. * Clinical Presentation: Characterized by hemarthrosis (bleeding into joints, most commonly the knee) and muscle hematomas [1]. * Lab Findings: Prolonged aPTT, Normal Bleeding Time, and Normal Prothrombin Time (PT). * Treatment: Factor VIII concentrate replacement [1]; Desmopressin (dDAVP) can be used in mild cases to release stored Factor VIII from Weibel-Palade bodies.

Question 512: Which of the following is NOT true about hemochromatosis?

A. Hypogonadism
B. Arthropathy
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Desferrioxamine is the treatment of choice (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Hereditary Hemochromatosis (HH) is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by excessive intestinal iron absorption leading to multiorgan deposition [1], [2]. **Why Option D is the correct answer (The "NOT true" statement):** The treatment of choice for Hereditary Hemochromatosis is **Therapeutic Phlebotomy**, not Desferrioxamine [1]. Phlebotomy is more effective, less expensive, and safer for removing large iron stores (each unit of blood removes ~250 mg of iron) [1]. **Desferrioxamine** (an iron chelator) is reserved for patients with iron overload secondary to chronic anemias (like Thalassemia) where phlebotomy is contraindicated due to low hemoglobin levels. **Analysis of Incorrect Options (True statements about HH):** * **A. Hypogonadism:** Iron deposition in the anterior pituitary (gonadotroph cells) leads to secondary hypogonadism, resulting in decreased libido and impotence [2]. * **B. Arthropathy:** This occurs in 40-50% of patients. It typically involves the 2nd and 3rd metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints and is characterized by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate (pseudogout). * **C. Diabetes mellitus:** Often called **"Bronze Diabetes,"** it occurs due to direct iron toxicity to pancreatic islet cells combined with insulin resistance from hepatic iron deposition [2], [3]. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Gene Mutation:** Most commonly the **HFE gene** (C282Y mutation on Chromosome 6) [1], [2]. * **Classic Triad:** Cirrhosis, Diabetes, and Skin Hyperpigmentation (Bronze skin) [2]. * **Screening:** Transferrin saturation >45% is the most sensitive initial test; Ferritin levels correlate with total body iron stores [1]. * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** MRI (T2*) is now preferred over liver biopsy for quantifying iron [1]. * **Malignancy Risk:** Patients have a 20-200 fold increased risk of **Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)** [2].

Question 513: Which is the most common clinical sign of multiple myeloma?

A. Bone pain
B. Anemia (Correct Answer)
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Bleeding

Explanation: In Multiple Myeloma (MM), the most common clinical sign (objective finding) is Anemia, occurring in approximately 73–80% of patients at the time of diagnosis [1]. It is typically a normocytic, normochromic anemia caused primarily by the replacement of normal bone marrow by malignant plasma cells (marrow infiltration) and the inhibitory effects of cytokines (like IL-6) on erythropoiesis. **Analysis of Options:** * **B. Anemia (Correct):** As a clinical sign, it is the most frequent laboratory abnormality [1]. Patients often present with pallor and fatigue. * **A. Bone Pain:** This is the most common symptom (subjective complaint), reported by about 60–70% of patients, usually involving the back or ribs [2]. While highly characteristic, it is statistically less frequent than anemia at presentation. * **C. Hypercalcemia:** While a classic component of the "CRAB" criteria, it is present in only about 25–30% of patients at diagnosis [1]. It results from increased osteoclast activity mediated by RANKL. * **D. Bleeding:** This is relatively uncommon and usually occurs in advanced stages due to thrombocytopenia or interference with clotting factors by monoclonal (M) proteins. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **CRAB Criteria:** Calcium elevation, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lesions [1]. * **Most common cause of death:** Infection (due to hypogammaglobulinemia), followed by Renal Failure. * **Peripheral Smear:** Characterized by Rouleaux formation (due to high ESR/globulins) [1]. * **Diagnosis:** Bone marrow biopsy showing >10% clonal plasma cells is a major diagnostic criterion [1]. * **Radiology:** "Punched-out" lytic lesions; Skull X-ray is a classic board image [1]. Note: Bone scans are often negative as they detect osteoblastic activity, whereas MM is osteolytic.

Question 514: Pel-Ebstein fever is seen in which of the following conditions?

A. Hodgkin's lymphoma (Correct Answer)
B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
C. Lymphogranuloma venereum
D. Infectious mononucleosis

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Pel-Ebstein fever** is a classic clinical sign characterized by a cyclic pattern of high fever that persists for several days (usually 1–2 weeks), followed by an afebrile period of similar duration, which then repeats. 1. **Why Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (HL) is correct:** While Pel-Ebstein fever is seen in only a minority of patients (approx. 10–15%), it is considered pathognomonic for **Hodgkin’s Lymphoma**. It is a type of "B-symptom" (systemic symptom) caused by the periodic release of cytokines (like IL-1 and IL-6) from Reed-Sternberg cells and the surrounding inflammatory infiltrate [1]. 2. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL):** While NHL can present with fever, it is typically irregular or continuous rather than the specific cyclic pattern of Pel-Ebstein [1]. * **Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV):** Caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*, it presents with painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes) and the "groove sign," but not cyclic fever. * **Infectious Mononucleosis:** Caused by EBV, it presents with a triad of fever, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy. The fever is usually acute and resolves within 1–2 weeks without the cyclic recurrence. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **B-Symptoms of HL:** Fever (>38°C), drenching night sweats, and unexplained weight loss (>10% in 6 months) [1]. Their presence indicates a worse prognosis and higher stage. * **Alcohol-induced pain:** Pain in the lymph nodes after drinking alcohol is another rare but highly specific sign of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma. * **Most common subtype:** Nodular Sclerosis is the most common subtype of HL, often seen in young females. * **Reed-Sternberg Cells:** The hallmark "Owl’s eye" appearance cells (CD15+, CD30+) [1].

Question 515: Hereditary spherocytosis is characterized by:

A. Anemia
B. Splenomegaly
C. Jaundice
D. All of the above (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation **Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS)** is the most common inherited red cell membrane disorder, typically inherited in an **autosomal dominant** pattern. It is caused by defects in membrane proteins (most commonly **Ankyrin**, followed by Spectrin or Band 3), which lead to a loss of membrane surface area [2]. This results in the formation of spherical, rigid red blood cells (spherocytes) that are prematurely trapped and destroyed in the splenic cords [1]. The clinical presentation is defined by the **classic triad** represented in the options: 1. **Anemia (Option A):** Chronic extravascular hemolysis leads to varying degrees of anemia [3]. While often well-compensated, patients may experience "aplastic crises" (often triggered by Parvovirus B19) or "hemolytic crises." 2. **Splenomegaly (Option B):** Because the spleen is the primary site of destruction for the non-deformable spherocytes, it undergoes work hypertrophy, leading to palpable enlargement in most patients [1]. 3. **Jaundice (Option C):** Rapid breakdown of hemoglobin increases unconjugated bilirubin levels, leading to acholuric jaundice and a high risk of **pigment (calcium bilirubinate) gallstones**. Since all three features constitute the hallmark clinical presentation of the disease, **Option D (All of the above)** is the correct answer. --- ### High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Eosin-5-maleimide (EMA) binding test (Flow cytometry). * **Screening Test:** Osmotic Fragility Test (increased fragility). * **Peripheral Smear:** Spherocytes (small, dark cells lacking central pallor) and increased reticulocytes. * **Lab Marker:** Increased **MCHC** (>36 g/dL) is a highly specific finding [1]. * **Treatment of Choice:** Splenectomy (indicated in moderate to severe cases, ideally deferred until after age 6 to reduce sepsis risk) [2].

Question 516: Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to what factor?

A. Inadequate dietary intake (Correct Answer)
B. Defective intestinal absorption
C. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum
D. Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine

Explanation: **Explanation:** Megaloblastic anemia results from impaired DNA synthesis, most commonly due to deficiencies in Vitamin B12 or Folic acid. **1. Why "Inadequate dietary intake" is correct:** Unlike Vitamin B12, which has vast hepatic stores lasting 3–5 years [1], body stores of folate are small and deficiency can occur in a matter of weeks, with clinical stores typically lasting only **3–4 months** [2]. Folate is found in green leafy vegetables and citrus fruits but is heat-labile and easily destroyed by overcooking. Therefore, a diet lacking fresh vegetables is the most common cause of folate deficiency worldwide [2]. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Defective intestinal absorption:** While conditions like Celiac disease or tropical sprue can cause malabsorption, they are statistically less common causes than simple dietary deficiency. * **Absence of folic acid binding protein:** This is not a recognized clinical cause of megaloblastic anemia. Folate is primarily transported in the plasma as 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (5-methyl THF) in a free or loosely bound state [2]. * **Absence of glutamic acid:** Folates in food exist as polyglutamates. They are converted to monoglutamates by the enzyme *conjugase* in the jejunum for absorption [2]. The absence of glutamic acid itself is not a mechanism for deficiency. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Site of absorption:** Folate is absorbed in the **jejunum**, whereas B12 is absorbed in the **terminal ileum**. * **Alcoholism:** Alcoholics are at high risk due to "dual hits"—poor diet and alcohol’s interference with folate metabolism (enterohepatic circulation) [2]. * **Pregnancy:** Requirement increases significantly; deficiency leads to **Neural Tube Defects (NTDs)** [2]. * **Drug-induced:** Phenytoin, Methotrexate, and Trimethoprim are common causes of folate-related megaloblastic changes. * **Diagnostic hallmark:** Hypersegmented neutrophils (≥5 lobes) on peripheral smear.

Question 517: Which of the following conditions is associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia?

A. Sickle cell Anemia
B. Thalassemia (Correct Answer)
C. Fanconi's anemia
D. Hereditary spherocytosis

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Thalassemia** is the correct answer because it is a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis (alpha or beta). This leads to a reduction in hemoglobin production within each red blood cell, resulting in **microcytic** (small size, low MCV) and **hypochromic** (pale color, low MCHC) indices [1]. It is a classic differential for microcytic anemia alongside Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA), Anemia of Chronic Disease [2], and Sideroblastic Anemia. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Sickle Cell Anemia:** This is a qualitative defect (hemoglobinopathy) where abnormal HbS is formed [1]. It typically presents as a **normocytic normochromic** hemolytic anemia. * **Fanconi’s Anemia:** This is an inherited bone marrow failure syndrome. It is characterized by pancytopenia and typically presents as a **macrocytic** anemia (high MCV). * **Hereditary Spherocytosis:** This is a red cell membrane defect. While the cells appear small on a peripheral smear, they are spherical rather than pale. It is a **normocytic** anemia, often characterized by an **elevated MCHC** (hyperchromic appearance). **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Mentzer Index:** Used to differentiate IDA from Thalassemia. **MCV/RBC count < 13** suggests Thalassemia, while **> 13** suggests IDA. * In Thalassemia trait, the **RBC count is often elevated** despite low hemoglobin, whereas in IDA, the RBC count is usually low. * **Target cells** (codocytes) are a hallmark finding on the peripheral smear for Thalassemia. * **Confirmatory Test:** Hb Electrophoresis (showing increased HbA2 in Beta-Thalassemia trait).

Question 518: A young female has the following lab values: MCV-70, Hb 10 gm%, serum iron 60, serum ferritin 100. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Thalassemia trait
B. Chronic iron deficiency anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Anemia of chronic infection (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation The patient presents with **microcytic anemia** (MCV 70, Hb 10) and a biochemical profile characteristic of **Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD)**, also known as anemia of chronic inflammation/infection [1]. **1. Why Anemia of Chronic Infection is Correct:** In ACD, the primary mediator is **Hepcidin**, an acute-phase reactant. Hepcidin degrades ferroportin, leading to: * **Sequestration of iron** within macrophages (reticuloendothelial system) [2]. * **Normal to High Serum Ferritin:** Since ferritin reflects stored iron, it remains normal or elevated (as seen here: 100 ng/mL) [2]. * **Low to Normal Serum Iron:** Despite adequate stores, iron cannot be released into the plasma for erythropoiesis [1]. The MCV is usually normocytic but can be microcytic in long-standing cases [1]. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Thalassemia Trait:** While it presents with significant microcytosis (very low MCV), the serum iron and ferritin levels are typically **normal to high** because there is no iron deficiency or sequestration. * **Chronic Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA):** This is the most common cause of microcytic anemia, but it is characterized by **low serum ferritin** (typically <15–30 ng/mL) [3]. A ferritin of 100 effectively rules out IDA. * **Megaloblastic Anemia:** This is a **macrocytic** anemia (MCV >100 fL), usually due to Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency. It is inconsistent with the MCV of 70. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Ferritin** is the most sensitive and specific lab test to differentiate IDA (Low) from ACD (Normal/High) [2], [3]. * **Mentzer Index (MCV/RBC count):** <13 suggests Thalassemia; >13 suggests IDA. * **Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC):** Increased in IDA; Decreased in ACD [3]. * **Soluble Transferrin Receptor (sTfR):** Elevated in IDA; Normal in ACD (useful when ferritin is borderline) [3].

Question 519: All of the following are seen in multiple myeloma except?

A. Visual disturbance
B. Proteinuria
C. Bleeding tendency
D. Dystrophic calcification (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Multiple Myeloma (MM) is a plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by the neoplastic proliferation of a single clone of plasma cells producing monoclonal (M) proteins. **Why Dystrophic Calcification is the correct answer (Except):** In Multiple Myeloma, hypercalcemia occurs due to increased osteoclast activity (mediated by RANKL and IL-6), leading to bone resorption [1]. This result in **Metastatic Calcification** (calcium deposition in normal tissues due to high serum calcium levels). **Dystrophic calcification**, conversely, occurs in dead or degenerated tissues despite *normal* serum calcium levels, which is not the mechanism in MM. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Visual Disturbance:** This occurs due to **Hyperviscosity Syndrome**, caused by high levels of circulating monoclonal immunoglobulins (especially IgA or IgG). This leads to retinal hemorrhages and "sausage-link" segmentation of retinal veins. * **Proteinuria:** Patients exhibit **Bence-Jones proteinuria** (monoclonal light chains). Additionally, MM can lead to AL-amyloidosis or light chain deposition disease, both causing significant protein loss in the urine. * **Bleeding Tendency:** This is multifactorial in MM: (1) M-proteins interfere with clotting factors and platelet aggregation, (2) Thrombocytopenia due to marrow infiltration, and (3) Amyloid deposits weakening vessel walls. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **CRAB Criteria:** **C**alcium (elevated), **R**enal insufficiency, **A**nemia, **B**one lesions (punched-out lytic lesions). * **Diagnosis:** Bone marrow plasma cells ≥10% or biopsy-proven plasmacytoma PLUS one or more myeloma-defining events. * **Blood Film:** **Rouleaux formation** (due to decreased zeta potential of RBCs by M-proteins). * **Urine:** Bence-Jones proteins are **not** detected by standard dipsticks (which detect albumin); they require sulfosalicylic acid test or electrophoresis.

Question 520: Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by all of the following except?

A. Phenytoin
B. Methotrexate
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Amoxicillin (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Megaloblastic anemia is primarily caused by an impairment in DNA synthesis, most commonly due to deficiencies in Vitamin B12 or Folic acid [2], [3]. Several drugs interfere with folate metabolism, leading to drug-induced megaloblastic changes. **Why Amoxicillin is the correct answer:** Amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic that acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis (specifically peptidoglycan cross-linking). It does not interfere with human DNA synthesis, folate metabolism, or Vitamin B12 absorption. Therefore, it does not cause megaloblastic anemia. **Analysis of incorrect options:** * **Phenytoin:** This antiepileptic drug causes megaloblastic anemia by interfering with the intestinal absorption of dietary folates and increasing folate catabolism. * **Methotrexate:** A potent dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) inhibitor [1]. It prevents the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate (the active form), directly halting DNA synthesis [1]. * **Pyrimethamine:** Similar to methotrexate, this antiparasitic agent inhibits DHFR [1]. While it has a higher affinity for protozoal enzymes, high doses can inhibit human DHFR, leading to megaloblastic changes. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **DHFR Inhibitors:** Remember the mnemonic **"M-P-T"** (Methotrexate, Pyrimethamine, Trimethoprim) [1]. * **Other Drug Causes:** Zidovudine (AZT), Hydroxyurea, 5-Fluorouracil, and 6-Mercaptopurine. * **Diagnostic Hallmark:** Look for **hypersegmented neutrophils** (>5 lobes) on a peripheral smear and an increased Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV >100 fL). * **Nitrous Oxide:** Can cause acute megaloblastic anemia by oxidizing the cobalt atom of Vitamin B12, rendering it inactive.

Practice by Chapter

Anemia Evaluation and Management

Practice Questions

Hemoglobinopathies

Practice Questions

Thalassemias

Practice Questions

Platelet Disorders

Practice Questions

Coagulation Disorders

Practice Questions

Thrombotic Disorders

Practice Questions

Leukemias

Practice Questions

Lymphomas

Practice Questions

Multiple Myeloma and Plasma Cell Disorders

Practice Questions

Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

Practice Questions

Transfusion Medicine

Practice Questions

Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free

Hematology — MCQs

Hematology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?