Hematology — MCQs
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Most significant complication of polycythemia rubra vera is:
Which of the following conditions can present with mildly elevated bilirubin and normal liver enzymes?
Bone marrow transplantation as a treatment modality can be advised in all of the following cases of newly diagnosed conditions, except:
Which antibody is commonly elevated in Waldenström macroglobulinemia?
In primary immune deficiency, the following plasma protein fraction can be reduced:
Before the advent of tyrosine kinase inhibitors, the most effective treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia was:
Which of the following is the MOST SIGNIFICANT modifiable predisposing factor for arterial thrombosis?
Type I cryoglobulinemia is associated with all of the following, except:
A testicular tumor in a man aged 60 years is most likely to be:
The most classic dietary trigger for acute hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency is which of the following?
Hematology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1141: Most significant complication of polycythemia rubra vera is:
- A. Transformation into leukemia
- B. Secondary bone marrow failure
- C. Hypersplenism
- D. Thrombosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Thrombosis*** - **Thrombosis** is the most significant and frequent complication, leading to **morbidity and mortality** in patients with polycythemia vera. - The elevated red blood cell mass and increased blood viscosity significantly raise the risk of both **arterial and venous clots**. *Transformation into leukemia* - While polycythemia vera can transform into **acute myeloid leukemia**, this is a less common complication compared to thrombosis. - Leukemic transformation is often associated with prior exposure to **myelosuppressive therapies**. *Secondary bone marrow failure* - **Bone marrow failure** can occur in the late stages of myeloproliferative neoplasms, but it is less common than thrombotic events during the active phase of the disease. [1] - This typically manifests as **myelofibrosis and pancytopenia**. [1] *Hypersplenism* - **Splenomegaly** is common in polycythemia vera, and **hypersplenism** can occur causing cytopenias. - However, while hypersplenism can cause complications like anemia or thrombocytopenia, it is generally less life-threatening than acute thrombotic events.
Question 1142: Which of the following conditions can present with mildly elevated bilirubin and normal liver enzymes?
- A. All of the options
- B. Malaria
- C. Thalassemia
- D. G-6 PD deficiency (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***G-6 PD deficiency*** - **G-6 PD deficiency** can cause **hemolysis** [2], leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin, but it does not directly affect liver enzyme production or hepatocyte function. [3] - The liver's excretory capacity is intact, hence liver enzymes remain normal while bilirubin is mildly elevated due to increased pigment load from **red blood cell destruction**. [1] *Malaria* - While malaria can cause **hemolysis** and elevated bilirubin [3], severe cases can also lead to **hepatic dysfunction** and abnormal liver enzymes due to parasitic infection and inflammation. - Complicated malaria, particularly **cerebral malaria**, is associated with features like **hepatic steatosis** and changes to liver cells, which could impact enzyme levels. *Thalassemia* - **Thalassemia** is a chronic hemolytic anemia, causing elevated unconjugated bilirubin. However, long-term iron overload from frequent transfusions (in severe cases) can lead to **hemochromatosis** and eventual **liver damage**, affecting liver enzymes. - In thalassemia patients, chronic hemolysis itself might also indirectly contribute to some liver stress over time, though acute elevations in liver enzymes are not typical unless complications arise. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because while all three conditions can cause **elevated bilirubin** due to hemolysis, malaria and severe thalassemia can also involve **liver enzyme abnormalities** secondary to disease complications or chronic effects, unlike the typical presentation of G-6 PD deficiency which isolates the bilirubin elevation to hemolysis.
Question 1143: Bone marrow transplantation as a treatment modality can be advised in all of the following cases of newly diagnosed conditions, except:
- A. Aplastic anemia
- B. CML (Correct Answer)
- C. Combined immunodeficiency
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***CML*** - For **newly diagnosed chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)**, the primary treatment is typically **tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)**, such as imatinib, which have significantly improved prognosis. - **Bone marrow transplantation (BMT)** is generally reserved for CML patients who are **resistant to TKI therapy** or are in an accelerated or blast phase, making it less likely to be advised as a first-line treatment for a *newly diagnosed* case. *Combined immunodeficiency* - **Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)** is a life-threatening condition where the immune system is severely compromised, and **bone marrow transplantation (BMT)** is a curative treatment option as it replaces the defective hematopoietic stem cells [2]. - BMT can restore immune function by providing healthy donor cells that differentiate into various immune cell types, making it a viable and often necessary intervention for newly diagnosed cases [2]. *Aplastic anemia* - For cases of **severe aplastic anemia**, especially in younger patients with an **HLA-matched sibling donor**, **allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)** is a highly effective and often curative treatment option [1]. - HSCT aims to replace the damaged bone marrow with healthy donor stem cells to restore normal hematopoiesis. *All of the options* - As **CML** is typically managed first with tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) and bone marrow transplantation is reserved for refractory or advanced cases, it is not appropriate to select "All of the options" as the answer. - The other conditions listed (combined immunodeficiency and aplastic anemia) are indeed strong indications for bone marrow transplantation in newly diagnosed cases [2].
Question 1144: Which antibody is commonly elevated in Waldenström macroglobulinemia?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM (Correct Answer)
- D. IgD
Explanation: ***IgM*** - Waldenström macroglobulinemia is characterized by elevated levels of **IgM**, which is produced by malignant plasma cells [1]. - This condition is associated with **hyperviscosity syndrome** due to the high concentration of IgM in the serum [1]. *IgD* - Typically, **IgD** levels are not significantly altered in Waldenström macroglobulinemia and do not correlate with the disease. - It plays a minor role in the immune response and is not a marker for this condition. *IgG* - Although IgG can be elevated in various disorders, it is not the primary antibody of concern in Waldenström macroglobulinemia. - Patients exhibit increased **IgM** levels rather than IgG involvement, making this option incorrect. *IgA* - Elevated **IgA** levels are more commonly associated with different conditions like chronic infections or autoimmune diseases, not specifically with Waldenström macroglobulinemia. - The hallmark of this disease is the high level of **IgM**, differentiating it from other immunoglobulin disorders [2].
Question 1145: In primary immune deficiency, the following plasma protein fraction can be reduced:
- A. Alpha2 globulin
- B. Gamma globulin (Correct Answer)
- C. Alpha1 globulin
- D. Beta globulin
Explanation: ***Gamma globulin*** - In primary immune deficiency, there is a significant reduction in **gamma globulin**, resulting from impaired antibody production [1]. - This protein fraction primarily contains **immunoglobulins**, which are crucial for the immune response [1][2]. *Alpha1 globulin* - Typically associated with **protease inhibitors** and **transport proteins**, its levels are not directly impacted in primary immune deficiency. - This fraction does not primarily play a role in the **immune response** like gamma globulins do. *Alpha2 globulin* - Contains **haptoglobin** and **ceruloplasmin**, which often remain stable in immunodeficiencies. - Its reduction is not characteristic of primary immune deficiency, as it does not directly relate to **antibody function**. *Beta globulin* - Includes fractions such as **transferrin** and **complement proteins**, generally unaffected by primary immune deficiencies. - While important, these proteins do not primarily comprise **antibodies** and do not show a decrease in these conditions.
Question 1146: Before the advent of tyrosine kinase inhibitors, the most effective treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia was:
- A. Chemotherapy
- B. Hydroxyurea and interferon
- C. Haploidentical bone marrow transplant
- D. Allogeneic bone marrow transplant (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Allogeneic bone marrow transplant*** - Before the advent of TKIs, **allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)** was the only curative treatment for CML [1]. - It involved replacing the patient's diseased bone marrow with healthy stem cells from a genetically matched donor, thereby eradicating the **Philadelphia chromosome-positive clone** [1]. *Haploidentical bone marrow transplant* - While a form of HSCT, **haploidentical transplants** were typically used as a backup option when a fully matched donor was unavailable due to higher risks of **graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)** and rejection. - It was not considered the most effective or preferred treatment before TKIs, being reserved for specific challenging cases. *Chemotherapy* - **Conventional chemotherapy** for CML, such as busulfan or hydroxyurea, primarily aimed at reducing the white blood cell count and controlling symptoms. - It was **palliative** and did not offer a cure or significantly prolong survival in the long term, unlike allogeneic HSCT [1]. *Hydroxyurea and interferon* - **Hydroxyurea** is a cytoreductive agent, and **interferon-alpha** was used to induce hematologic and cytogenetic responses in CML patients. - Although they provided some benefit in controlling the disease and improving survival compared to no treatment, they rarely achieved a cure and were associated with significant side effects, making them less effective than allogeneic HSCT [1].
Question 1147: Which of the following is the MOST SIGNIFICANT modifiable predisposing factor for arterial thrombosis?
- A. Antiphospholipid syndrome
- B. Hyperlipidemia
- C. Cigarette smoking (Correct Answer)
- D. Homocystinuria
Explanation: ***Cigarette smoking*** - **Cigarette smoking** is a major modifiable risk factor for **atherosclerosis** and arterial thrombosis, primarily by promoting endothelial dysfunction, inflammation, and hypercoagulability. [1] - It damages the **endothelium**, leading to plaque formation and increasing the risk of **thrombotic events** such as myocardial infarction and stroke. [1] *Antiphospholipid syndrome* - This is an **autoimmune disorder** causing recurrent arterial and venous thromboses, but it is not a modifiable lifestyle factor. - While it dramatically increases thrombosis risk, therapeutic management focuses on anticoagulation rather than lifestyle modification. *Hyperlipidemia* - **Hyperlipidemia**, particularly elevated LDL cholesterol, is a significant risk factor for **atherosclerosis**, which can lead to thrombosis. [1] - However, while modifiable through diet and medication, its immediate thrombotic impact is often mediated through chronic plaque formation, whereas smoking has more direct prothrombotic effects on endothelium and platelet function. *Homocystinuria* - This is a rare, inherited **metabolic disorder** causing elevated homocysteine levels, leading to severe premature atherosclerosis and **thrombotic disease**. - It is a genetic condition and therefore not a modifiable risk factor in the same way as lifestyle choices.
Question 1148: Type I cryoglobulinemia is associated with all of the following, except:
- A. IgM monoclonal paraprotein
- B. Hyperviscosity
- C. Normal complement levels
- D. Strongly Positive Rheumatoid factor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Type I cryoglobulinemia is associated with all of the following, except: ***Strongly Positive Rheumatoid factor*** - **Type I cryoglobulinemia** involves a **monoclonal immunoglobulin** (usually IgG or IgM) that self-aggregates in the cold. It does not typically involve the autoantibody activity of rheumatoid factor. - While other types of cryoglobulinemia (Type II and III) can be associated with rheumatoid factor activity, it is not a characteristic feature of Type I. *IgM monoclonal paraprotein* - **Type I cryoglobulinemia** involves a single **monoclonal immunoglobulin**, which can be an IgM paraprotein [1]. - This monoclonal protein precipitates at cold temperatures, contributing to the clinical manifestations. *Hyperviscosity* - The presence of large amounts of **monoclonal immunoglobulins** in **Type I cryoglobulinemia** can significantly increase blood viscosity [1]. - This can lead to symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and neurological deficits [1]. *Normal complement levels* - **Type I cryoglobulinemia** typically involves the precipitation of a monoclonal immunoglobulin without significant immune complex formation or complement activation. - Therefore, **complement levels** (C3, C4) usually remain normal, unlike in Type II and III cryoglobulinemias where complement is often consumed.
Question 1149: A testicular tumor in a man aged 60 years is most likely to be:
- A. Germ cell tumor
- B. Teratocarcinoma
- C. Lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Sertoli cell tumor
Explanation: ***Lymphoma*** - **Testicular lymphoma** is the most common testicular tumor in men over **60 years of age**, originating from lymphoid tissue. - It often presents as a rapidly enlarging, painless testicular mass and can be bilateral [1]. *Germ cell tumor* - **Germ cell tumors** are the most common testicular tumors overall but predominantly affect younger men, typically between **15 and 40 years of age**. - While they can occur at any age, they are much rarer in men over **60**. *Sertoli cell tumor* - **Sertoli cell tumors** are rare tumors that can occur at any age, but they do not show a predisposition for men over **60** specifically. - They tend to be benign and may be associated with **hormonal imbalances** in some cases. *Teratocarcinoma* - **Teratocarcinoma** is a mixed germ cell tumor composing elements of both **teratoma** and **embryonal carcinoma**. - Like other germ cell tumors, it typically affects younger men and is less common in the elderly population.
Question 1150: The most classic dietary trigger for acute hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency is which of the following?
- A. Viral upper respiratory infections only
- B. Vitamin C supplements
- C. Fava beans (Correct Answer)
- D. Folic acid deficiency
Explanation: **Fava beans** - **Fava beans** contain high concentrations of **vicine and convicine**, which are converted into **divicine and isouramil**. These compounds produce **reactive oxygen species** that overwhelm the erythrocyte's antioxidant defense mechanisms, especially in individuals with **G6PD deficiency** [2]. - In individuals with **G6PD deficiency**, the inability to produce sufficient **NADPH** results in inadequate levels of **reduced glutathione**, making red blood cells vulnerable to **oxidative stress** induced by these fava bean metabolites, leading to **hemolysis** [1, 3]. *Viral upper respiratory infections only* - While **infections (bacterial or viral)** can trigger **hemolytic crises** in G6PD deficient individuals by causing **oxidative stress** and inflammation, they are not a dietary trigger [3, 4]. - The question specifically asks for a **dietary trigger**, which excludes infections as the primary cause. *Vitamin C supplements* - While **large doses of vitamin C (ascorbic acid)** can act as a **pro-oxidant** and potentially induce some oxidative stress, it is generally not considered a classic or strong trigger for acute hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency at typical supplement doses. - **Fava beans** are far more potent and well-documented as a dietary trigger for this condition [2]. *Folic acid deficiency* - **Folic acid deficiency** does not directly cause acute hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency; it typically leads to **megaloblastic anemia** due to impaired DNA synthesis [4]. - While folic acid supplementation is often given to G6PD deficient patients with chronic hemolysis to support increased red blood cell production, its deficiency does not induce oxidative hemolysis.
Practice by Chapter
Anemia Evaluation and Management
Practice Questions
Hemoglobinopathies
Practice Questions
Thalassemias
Practice Questions
Platelet Disorders
Practice Questions
Coagulation Disorders
Practice Questions
Thrombotic Disorders
Practice Questions
Leukemias
Practice Questions
Lymphomas
Practice Questions
Multiple Myeloma and Plasma Cell Disorders
Practice Questions
Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
Practice Questions
Transfusion Medicine
Practice Questions
Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation
Practice Questions
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