Hematology — MCQs

Hematology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1121: Which of the following is the most critical feature of acute hemolytic reactions?

A. Multi organ failure
B. Complement-mediated hemolysis
C. Fever, chills, and rigors
D. Intravascular hemolysis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Associated with fever, chills and rigors*** - In acute hemolytic reactions, fever, chills, and rigors are common clinical manifestations but may not always be present as described; therefore, the statement is false. [1] - These symptoms are more classically associated with **febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions**, not specifically acute hemolytic reactions. *Intravascular haemolysis* - Intravascular hemolysis is a hallmark of acute hemolytic reactions, occurring when transfusions are mismatched [2]. - It leads to the rapid destruction of RBCs, often resulting in decreased haptoglobin and increased free hemoglobin. *Complement mediated* - Acute hemolytic reactions are primarily mediated by the **complement system**, leading to lysis of RBCs [2]. - The activation of complement components plays a crucial role in the destruction of transfused red blood cells. *Multi organ failure* - Multi-organ failure can occur due to severe hemolysis but is not a direct characteristic of all acute hemolytic reactions. - It usually results from extensive hemolysis leading to **shock** or disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in severe cases.

Question 1122: What is the most likely diagnosis for a 60-year-old man presenting with multiple punched-out lesions on imaging?

A. Eosinophilic granuloma
B. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Acromegaly

Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma*** - The presence of **multiple punched-out lesions** on imaging is a classic radiographic finding in multiple myeloma, caused by osteolytic bone destruction [1]. - Affects primarily older individuals, making a 60-year-old man a typical demographic [1]. *Eosinophilic granuloma* - More commonly presents as a **solitary bone lesion** and is typically seen in **children or young adults**. - While it can cause lytic lesions, the **multiplicity** described in an older patient makes it less likely than multiple myeloma. *Hyperparathyroidism* - Can cause bone resorption leading to **osteopenia** or **subperiosteal bone erosions**, especially in areas like the phalanges, but not typically "punched-out" lytic lesions. - Bone lesions in hyperparathyroidism are often referred to as **brown tumors**, which are distinct from the sharp, lytic lesions of multiple myeloma. *Acromegaly* - Characterized by **excess growth hormone**, leading to increased bone density and periosteal new bone formation. - It does not cause **punched-out lytic lesions**; rather, bone changes are typically proliferative.

Question 1123: Which of the following is the most important diagnostic investigation for multiple myeloma?

A. Lytic bone lesions
B. Bence jones proteins
C. Alkaline Phosphatase
D. Serum electrophoresis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Serum electrophoresis - **Serum protein electrophoresis** (SPEP) is crucial for detecting and quantifying the **monoclonal paraprotein (M-protein)** in the blood, which is characteristic of multiple myeloma [1]. - The presence of a **gamma globulin spike** or **M-spike** on SPEP is a hallmark of the disease [1]. *Lytic bone lesions* - While **lytic bone lesions** are a common and important feature of multiple myeloma, they are a consequence of the disease process rather than the primary diagnostic investigation itself [1]. - Imaging studies like X-rays or MRI are used to detect these lesions, but their presence alone is not sufficient for diagnosis without identification of the M-protein [1]. *Bence jones proteins* - **Bence Jones proteins** are **monoclonal light chains** found in the urine, indicating their presence in the blood. - While important for diagnosis and prognosis, SPEP is generally considered more central as it directly identifies the **monoclonal gammopathy** (M-protein) derived from plasma cells in the serum [1]. *Alkaline Phosphatase* - **Alkaline phosphatase** levels are typically **normal** in multiple myeloma, even in the presence of extensive bone disease. - This is because the lytic lesions in multiple myeloma result from osteoclast activation rather than osteoblastic activity, which would otherwise elevate alkaline phosphatase.

Question 1124: What is the appropriate treatment for megaloblastic anemia with neurological symptoms?

A. Iron supplementation
B. Folic acid with Hydroxycobalamin (Correct Answer)
C. Vitamin B1 supplementation
D. Folic Acid only

Explanation: Folic acid with Hydroxycobalamin - Neurological symptoms in megaloblastic anemia strongly suggest vitamin B12 deficiency, as folic acid alone can mask this deficiency and worsen neurological sequelae [3]. - Hydroxycobalamin is the preferred treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency, while folic acid addresses the megaloblastic hematopoiesis. Iron supplementation - This is used to treat iron deficiency anemia, which presents with microcytic or normocytic red blood cells, not megaloblastic changes [1]. - Iron supplementation would not address the neurological symptoms or the underlying B12 or folate deficiency. Vitamin B1 supplementation - Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency is associated with conditions like beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, characterized by neurological symptoms, but not megaloblastic anemia [4]. - Supplementation would not correct the underlying hematological abnormality or the specific neurological symptoms of B12 deficiency [4]. Folic Acid only - While folic acid is essential for DNA synthesis and would improve the hematological parameters of megaloblastic anemia, it does not treat vitamin B12 deficiency [2]. - Giving folic acid alone in the presence of B12 deficiency can lead to a worsening of neurological symptoms as it can correct the anemia but allow the neurological damage to progress [3].

Question 1125: The Schilling test is primarily used to assess which of the following?

A. Vitamin B12 absorption due to intrinsic factor deficiency (Correct Answer)
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency due to dietary insufficiency
C. Absorption issues related to pancreatic function
D. Malabsorption of vitamin B12 due to intestinal issues

Explanation: The Schilling test is primarily used to assess which of the following? ***Presence of intrinsic factor*** - The Schilling test specifically assesses the **absorption of vitamin B12** and evaluates the **presence of intrinsic factor**, which is critical for vitamin B12 absorption in the intestines [1]. - A low absorption level associated with a deficiency of intrinsic factor indicates **pernicious anemia** [2]. *Deficiency of riboflavin* - Riboflavin deficiency is diagnosed through clinical symptoms or assays of **riboflavin levels**, not with the Schilling test. - Clinical features may include **angular stomatitis** and **cheilosis**, which are unrelated to vitamin B12 absorption. *Excretion of folic acid* - The Schilling test does not evaluate **folic acid metabolism** or its excretion; it is focused solely on **vitamin B12 absorption** [1]. - Folate deficiency affects different pathways and can be assessed through serum **folate levels** instead [3]. *Capillary fragility* - Capillary fragility relates to vascular abnormalities and does not pertain to **vitamin B12 absorption** or intrinsic factors. - Conditions like **scurvy** or **vitamin C** deficiency cause capillary fragility, which are not assessed by the Schilling test.

Question 1126: Relative polycythemia can be caused by all of the following conditions, except:

A. Gaisbock syndrome
B. Dengue haemorrhagic fever
C. Dehydration
D. High altitude (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***High altitude*** - High altitude results in **hypoxia**, which stimulates **erythropoietin** production and increases the **absolute number of red blood cells**, leading to **absolute polycythemia**, not relative polycythemia [1]. - In absolute polycythemia, the **red cell mass** is genuinely increased, whereas in relative polycythemia, it is the **plasma volume** that decreases, making the red cell count appear high [1]. *Dehydration* - Dehydration causes a **decrease in plasma volume**, concentrating the remaining blood components. - This effectively increases the **hematocrit** and **red blood cell count** relative to the reduced plasma, leading to **relative polycythemia**. *Gaisbock syndrome* - **Gaisbock syndrome**, also known as **stress erythrocytosis** or **pseudo-polycythemia**, is characterized by a **normal red cell mass** but a **reduced plasma volume**. - This reduction in plasma volume leads to an elevated **hematocrit**, falling under the definition of **relative polycythemia**. *Dengue haemorrhagic fever* - In severe dengue haemorrhagic fever, there is significant **plasma leakage**, which leads to a decrease in **intravascular plasma volume**. - This plasma leakage results in **hemoconcentration**, causing an apparent increase in red blood cell count and hematocrit, thus representing **relative polycythemia**.

Question 1127: Hemophilia B is a deficiency of which factor?

A. IX (Correct Answer)
B. XII
C. VIII
D. X

Explanation: ***IX*** - Hemophilia B, also known as **Christmas disease**, is caused by a deficiency in **Factor IX** [1]. - This condition is an **X-linked recessive disorder** that impairs the blood's ability to form clots, leading to prolonged bleeding [1]. *XII* - Deficiency in **Factor XII** (Hageman factor) is usually **asymptomatic** and does not lead to a bleeding disorder. - Individuals with Factor XII deficiency often have a **prolonged aPTT** but no clinical bleeding. *VIII* - A deficiency in **Factor VIII** causes **Hemophilia A**, which is the more common form of hemophilia [1]. - Hemophilia A also presents with bleeding symptoms, but it is distinct from Hemophilia B due to the specific factor involved [1]. *X* - Deficiency in **Factor X** (Stuart-Prower factor) is a rare **autosomal recessive** bleeding disorder. - Factor X deficiency affects both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways, leading to prolongation of both **PT and aPTT**.

Question 1128: Kostmann's syndrome treatment is

A. Immunosuppressive therapy
B. Combination therapy with immunosuppressants and growth factors
C. Myeloid growth factor therapy
D. Neutrophil-specific growth factor therapy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Neutrophil-specific growth factor therapy*** - Kostmann's syndrome, also known as **severe congenital neutropenia**, is characterized by a severe lack of **neutrophils**. - **Neutrophil-specific growth factor therapy**, primarily using **granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)**, is the cornerstone of treatment to increase neutrophil production and prevent life-threatening infections. *Immunosuppressive therapy* - This therapy is typically used for conditions involving an **overactive immune system** or **autoimmune diseases**, which is not the primary issue in Kostmann's syndrome. - While some immune dysregulation can occur, the core problem is a failure of **myelopoiesis** leading to neutropenia, not excessive immune activity. *Combination therapy with immunosuppressants and growth factors* - While G-CSF is crucial, adding **immunosuppressants** is generally not indicated as a primary treatment for Kostmann's syndrome, as it could further compromise immune function. - This combination might be considered in specific complex cases, but it's not the standard and most effective primary approach for the underlying neutropenia. *Myeloid growth factor therapy* - While Kostmann's syndrome involves a defect in **myeloid maturation**, the term "myeloid growth factor therapy" is too broad. - The specific factor needed is one that targets **neutrophil lineage**, which is G-CSF. While G-CSF is a myeloid growth factor, mentioning Taas "neutrophil-specific" is more precise.

Question 1129: What is the cause of the bleeding disorder in patients with Hemophilia A?

A. Lack of platelet aggregation
B. Neutralization of antithrombin III
C. Release of Thromboxane A2
D. Deficiency of factor VIII in the coagulation cascade (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Lack of reaction accelerator during activation of factor X in coagulation cascade*** - Hemophilia A is primarily due to a **deficiency of Factor VIII**, which acts as a cofactor for Factor X activation in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade [2]. - This lack of Factor VIII leads to **impaired fibrin clot formation**, resulting in prolonged bleeding [1]. *Neutralization of antithrombin III* - Antithrombin III is involved in the **inhibition of thrombin** and other serine proteases, not directly related to hemophilia A. - Neutralization of antithrombin III could lead to **increased clotting** rather than bleeding. *Release of Thromboxane A2* - Thromboxane A2 is primarily involved in **platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction**, which does not directly relate to the bleeding disorder of hemophilia A. - Its release is more relevant in conditions leading to **thrombotic events**, rather than bleeding disorders caused by factor deficiencies. *Lack of platelet aggregation* - Hemophilia A is specifically due to a deficiency in coagulation factors, not platelet dysfunction. - While platelet aggregation can affect hemostasis, it is not the underlying issue in hemophilia A, which causes prolonged bleeding times due to coagulation factor deficiencies.

Question 1130: Serious infections can occur when the absolute neutrophil count decreases to what level?

A. Less than 500/mL (Correct Answer)
B. Less than 1000/mL
C. Less than 1500/mL
D. Less than 800/mL

Explanation: **Less than 500/mL** - An **absolute neutrophil count (ANC)** below **500 cells/mm³** (or 0.5 x 10⁹/L) is defined as **severe neutropenia**. - At this level, the body's primary defense against **bacterial and fungal infections** is severely compromised, leading to a significantly increased risk of **serious and life-threatening infections**. *Less than 1000/mL* - An ANC between **500 and 1000 cells/mm³** is considered **moderate neutropenia**. - While reflecting a reduced immune response, the risk of serious infection is **lower** than with severe neutropenia, though still elevated compared to normal. *Less than 1500/mL* - An ANC below **1500 cells/mm³** (or 1.5 x 10⁹/L) is often considered the general threshold for **neutropenia**. - This level indicates a decreased number of neutrophils, but it generally does not carry the immediate and severe risk of infection seen with counts below 500/mL. *Less than 800/mL* - An ANC below **800 cells/mm³** falls within the range of **moderate neutropenia**. - While this level indicates some degree of immune compromise, it is not the critical threshold that defines the highest risk for severe, life-threatening infections, which is typically 500/mL.

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Anemia Evaluation and Management

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Hemoglobinopathies

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Thalassemias

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Platelet Disorders

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Coagulation Disorders

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Thrombotic Disorders

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Leukemias

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Lymphomas

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Multiple Myeloma and Plasma Cell Disorders

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Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

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Transfusion Medicine

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Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation

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Hematology — MCQs

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