Hematology — MCQs

Hematology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1021: A patient with acute blood loss requires a transfusion. Which blood product is the most appropriate for treating this patient?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma
B. Platelet Concentrate
C. Packed Red Blood Cells (Correct Answer)
D. Cryoprecipitate

Explanation: ### Packed Red Blood Cells - **Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)** are the most appropriate blood product for treating acute blood loss because their primary function is to increase the **oxygen-carrying capacity** of the blood [1]. - Acute blood loss leads to a reduction in red blood cell count, directly impairing oxygen delivery to tissues, which PRBCs effectively restore [1]. *Fresh Frozen Plasma* - **Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)** is rich in **coagulation factors** and is used to correct coagulopathies or reverse the effects of anticoagulants, not primarily for acute blood loss. - While significant blood loss may eventually lead to coagulopathy due to dilution of factors, the immediate need in acute blood loss is to restore oxygen delivery. *Platelet Concentrate* - **Platelet concentrate** is used to treat **thrombocytopenia** or platelet dysfunction, typically when the platelet count is critically low (e.g., <10,000-20,000/µL) or there is active bleeding with qualitative platelet defects. - Although platelets contribute to hemostasis, the primary concern in acute blood loss is the loss of red blood cells and oxygen-carrying capacity, not primarily a lack of platelets. *Cryoprecipitate* - **Cryoprecipitate** contains specific clotting factors such as **Factor VIII**, **von Willebrand factor**, **Factor XIII**, and **fibrinogen**. - Its main indications are **hypofibrinogenemia** or treatment of specific factor deficiencies (e.g., hemophilia A, von Willebrand disease), which are not the primary issue in acute blood loss.

Question 1022: A 25-year-old woman presents with episodic hemolysis and hemoglobinuria, particularly at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (Correct Answer)
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. Sickle cell disease

Explanation: Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria - This condition is characterized by episodic hemolysis and hemoglobinuria, often worse at night due to increased blood acidity during sleep. - It is caused by a deficiency in GPI-anchored proteins (like CD55 and CD59) on red blood cells, making them susceptible to complement-mediated lysis. G6PD deficiency - While it causes hemolysis, it is typically triggered by oxidative stress from certain foods (e.g., fava beans) or drugs, not specifically worse at night [1]. - Laboratory findings would show Heinz bodies and bite cells following an oxidative challenge, which are not characteristic of the nocturnal pattern described [3]. Hereditary spherocytosis - This is a chronic hemolytic anemia characterized by spherocytes on a peripheral smear and increased osmotic fragility of red blood cells [2]. - Hemolysis is generally continuous, not episodic or specifically nocturnal, and is due to structural defects in the red cell membrane [4]. Sickle cell disease - This condition involves sickle-shaped red blood cells under hypoxic conditions, leading to vaso-occlusive crises and chronic hemolysis. - While it causes episodic symptoms, these are typically painful crises and organ damage, not primarily characterized by nocturnal hemoglobinuria.

Question 1023: A 65-year-old man presents with cyanosis, confusion, and a pulse oximetry reading of 85% despite receiving supplemental oxygen. What is the most likely cause of his hypoxia?

A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Methemoglobinemia (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Methemoglobinemia*** - **Cyanosis** and **confusion** in the presence of hypoxia refractory to **supplemental oxygen** suggest **methemoglobinemia** [1]. - In this condition, iron in heme is oxidized to the ferric state, impairing **oxygen binding** and causing a left shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. *Pulmonary embolism* - While pulmonary embolism can cause acute shortness of breath and hypoxia, it typically responds to supplemental oxygen, especially if the ventilation-perfusion mismatch is not severe [2]. - Cyanosis and decreased mental status are usually seen in massive pulmonary embolism, but the **refractoriness to oxygen** is less characteristic than in methemoglobinemia [2]. *Congestive heart failure* - Worsening heart failure can cause hypoxemia due to **pulmonary edema** and impaired gas exchange, often presenting with dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles. - However, the hypoxia is usually responsive to oxygen supplementation, and severe cyanosis and confusion refractory to oxygen are less typical presentations compared to methemoglobinemia [2]. *Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease* - Patients with severe COPD can have baseline hypoxia and hypercapnia, but the acute development of severe cyanosis and confusion with **hypoxia refractory to oxygen** is more concerning for an alternative cause. - While exacerbations can cause worsened oxygenation, the described clinical picture, particularly the persistence of hypoxia despite oxygen, points away from uncomplicated COPD exacerbation [2].

Question 1024: A 40-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents with acute onset of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. A chest CT shows multiple bilateral pulmonary emboli. What is the most likely underlying cause?

A. Antiphospholipid syndrome (Correct Answer)
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Congestive heart failure

Explanation: Detailed assessment of a patient with SLE presenting with acute dyspnea and pleuritic pain involves ruling out common complications. ***Antiphospholipid syndrome*** - Patients with **SLE** have a high prevalence of **antiphospholipid antibodies**, which significantly increase the risk of both arterial and venous **thrombosis**, including **pulmonary emboli** [1]. - The combination of a history of SLE and acute thrombotic events like **pulmonary embolism** makes antiphospholipid syndrome the most likely underlying cause. *Infective endocarditis* - While infective endocarditis can cause septic emboli, typically from vegetations, it usually presents with fever, new heart murmurs, and signs of infection, which are not mentioned in this patient's presentation. - The emboli in infective endocarditis are usually sterile or septic microemboli, rather than large **pulmonary emboli** typically seen in thrombotic disorders. *Pulmonary hypertension* - Pulmonary hypertension can cause dyspnea and chest pain, but it is a consequence of structural or functional changes in the pulmonary vasculature, not a direct cause of acute **pulmonary emboli**. - While chronic recurrent pulmonary emboli can lead to **chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH)**, the acute presentation described points to the emboli themselves as the primary event. *Congestive heart failure* - Congestive heart failure causes dyspnea and can be associated with chest pain, but the primary pathology involves impaired cardiac function leading to fluid overload and pulmonary congestion, not multiple **pulmonary emboli**. - A CT scan showing **pulmonary emboli** specifically points away from congestive heart failure as the primary cause of the acute symptoms in this context.

Question 1025: A patient with pernicious anemia will likely show a deficiency in which vitamin?

A. Vitamin B12 (Correct Answer)
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin A

Explanation: ***Vitamin B12*** - **Pernicious anemia** is an autoimmune disease where the body cannot make enough **intrinsic factor**, which is essential for the absorption of **vitamin B12** (cobalamin) in the small intestine [1, 5]. - The deficiency in **vitamin B12** leads to impaired DNA synthesis, affecting rapidly dividing cells like red blood cell precursors, resulting in **macrocytic anemia** [3]. *Vitamin D* - **Vitamin D** deficiency is commonly associated with **rickets** in children and **osteomalacia** in adults, affecting bone health. - Its absorption and metabolism are not directly linked to the pathogenesis of pernicious anemia. *Vitamin C* - **Vitamin C** deficiency causes **scurvy**, characterized by weakened connective tissue, bleeding gums, and poor wound healing. - It plays no direct role in the absorption or metabolism of **vitamin B12** or the development of pernicious anemia. *Vitamin A* - **Vitamin A** deficiency primarily leads to **vision problems**, particularly night blindness, and impaired immune function [2]. - It is not implicated in the mechanism of pernicious anemia or the absorption of other vitamins critical to hematopoiesis [2].

Question 1026: What is a common early sign of vitamin B12 deficiency?

A. Jaundice
B. Pallor
C. Glossitis (Correct Answer)
D. Peripheral neuropathy

Explanation: ***Glossitis*** - **Glossitis**, or inflammation of the tongue, characterized by a **smooth, beefy-red appearance**, is a common early manifestation of vitamin B12 deficiency due to rapid cell turnover in the oral mucosa [1]. - Reduced **erythrocyte production** resulting from B12 deficiency leads to impaired oxygen delivery to tissues, contributing to tongue changes and discomfort. *Jaundice* - **Jaundice** typically occurs in conditions involving increased **bilirubin** levels, such as liver disease or hemolytic anemia, which are not direct or early features of vitamin B12 deficiency. - While **cobalamin deficiency** can cause **hemolysis** leading to inefficient erythropoiesis, overt jaundice is less frequent as an initial sign. *Pallor* - **Pallor**, a pale complexion, is a general sign of **anemia**, which can result from vitamin B12 deficiency [1]. However, it is a less specific early sign than glossitis, as it can occur in many types of anemia. - The anemia associated with B12 deficiency is typically **macrocytic**, characterized by abnormally large red blood cells, which contributes to pallor [2] but may develop gradually. *Peripheral neuropathy* - **Peripheral neuropathy**, involving symptoms like numbness, tingling, or weakness, is a significant neurological manifestation of chronic vitamin B12 deficiency but usually develops later [2]. - Early stages of B12 deficiency often present with more subtle hematological or gastrointestinal signs before neurological damage becomes apparent.

Question 1027: A patient with anemia has a reticulocyte count of 6% and a hematocrit of 30%. What is the clinical significance of the corrected reticulocyte count?

A. 2%, indicating an inadequate response to anemia.
B. 6%, suggesting ineffective erythropoiesis.
C. 3%, consistent with iron deficiency anemia.
D. 4%, indicating an appropriate response to anemia. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: 4%, indicating an appropriate bone marrow response - A corrected reticulocyte count of 4% shows that the bone marrow is responding adequately to the anemia, especially in the presence of an increased reticulocyte percentage relative to hematocrit. - This suggests that there is effective erythropoiesis, often seen in conditions like hemolytic anemia or recovery from blood loss. 6%, suggesting ineffective erythropoiesis - A reticulocyte count of 6% alone does not indicate ineffective erythropoiesis; rather, it points towards a reactive process by the bone marrow. - If ineffective, we would typically expect a lower reticulocyte count due to poor response despite anemia. 2%, indicating an inadequate bone marrow response - A 2% reticulocyte count suggests that the bone marrow is not responding effectively to the anemia, which contradicts the given high count of 6%. - This would be more indicative of conditions like aplasia or renal failure rather than the scenario presented. 3%, consistent with iron deficiency anemia - A count of 3% does not appropriately represent the reticulocyte response in iron deficiency anemia, which usually would show a lower reticulocyte count in severe cases. [1] - Iron deficiency typically leads to microcytic anemia with low reticulocyte production due to inadequate iron for hemoglobin synthesis. [1]

Question 1028: A 55-year-old man presents with fatigue and shortness of breath. Laboratory results reveal normocytic anemia and increased reticulocytes. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hemolytic anemia*** - The presence of **normocytic anemia** along with **increased reticulocytes** indicates the bone marrow is compensating for red blood cell destruction, typical of hemolytic anemia. - Symptoms like **fatigue and shortness of breath** are common due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity from the anemia. *Pernicious anemia* - This condition typically presents with **macrocytic anemia** and may have neurological symptoms due to vitamin B12 deficiency, differing from normocytic findings. - It is not associated with elevated reticulocyte counts, as red blood cell production is impaired rather than compensatory. *Iron deficiency anemia* [1] - Iron deficiency anemia usually results in **microcytic anemia** and low reticulocyte counts, contrasting with the findings in this patient [1]. - Symptoms may include **fatigue and pallor**, but the laboratory changes do not align with normocytic anemia or increased reticulocytes. *Aplastic anemia* - Aplastic anemia leads to a **pancytopenia** (low blood cell counts across the board) rather than just anemia, with reticulocytes often being **low or absent**. - Symptoms involve severe fatigue and increased susceptibility to infections and bleeding, which differ from isolated anemia symptoms.

Question 1029: A 65-year-old woman presents with progressive fatigue and abdominal discomfort. Imaging reveals massive splenomegaly. A bone marrow aspirate shows myeloid cells with the Philadelphia chromosome. What is the first-line treatment for this condition?

A. All-trans retinoic acid
B. Imatinib (Correct Answer)
C. Hydroxyurea
D. Rituximab

Explanation: ***Imatinib*** - The presence of the **Philadelphia chromosome** (BCR-ABL fusion gene) in a patient with progressive fatigue, abdominal discomfort, and massive splenomegaly is characteristic of **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)**. - **Imatinib** is a **tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI)** that specifically targets the BCR-ABL protein, making it the highly effective and universally accepted first-line treatment for CML [1]. *All-trans retinoic acid* - **All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)** is a retinoid derivative used to treat **Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)**. - It works by inducing differentiation of leukemic promyelocytes but is ineffective for CML. *Hydroxyurea* - **Hydroxyurea** is a myelosuppressive agent used to reduce high white blood cell counts in **CML**, especially in the **blastic phase** or to manage severe symptoms [1]. - While it can control cell counts, it does not target the underlying genetic abnormality (Philadelphia chromosome) and is not considered first-line curative therapy [1]. *Rituximab* - **Rituximab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that targets the **CD20 protein** on B lymphocytes, used in the treatment of **B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma** and some autoimmune diseases. - It has no role in the direct treatment of CML, which is a myeloid malignancy [2].

Question 1030: In a patient with hemolytic anemia, which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be elevated?

A. Haptoglobin
B. Indirect Bilirubin
C. Reticulocyte count (Correct Answer)
D. Serum Ferritin

Explanation: ***Reticulocyte count*** - In **hemolytic anemia**, there's increased destruction of red blood cells, prompting the bone marrow to produce more, leading to an **elevated reticulocyte count** as it tries to compensate. - A high reticulocyte count indicates that the **bone marrow is actively responding** to the anemia. *Haptoglobin* - **Haptoglobin** binds to free hemoglobin released during red blood cell destruction. - In **hemolytic anemia**, haptoglobin levels are typically **decreased** or undetectable rather than elevated, as it is consumed in binding the excess free hemoglobin. *Indirect Bilirubin* - **Indirect bilirubin** is indeed typically elevated in hemolytic anemia due to the increased breakdown of hemoglobin and subsequent heme metabolism [1]. - However, the question asks for the *most likely* to be elevated; an **elevated reticulocyte count** is a more direct and specific indicator of increased red cell turnover due to hemolysis. *Serum Ferritin* - **Serum ferritin** reflects the body's iron stores. While chronic hemolysis can eventually lead to **iron overload** (and thus elevated ferritin) in some cases, it is not an immediate or universal finding for diagnosing acute hemolysis. - In many cases of hemolytic anemia, especially acute presentations, **ferritin levels may be normal** or even slightly low if there's concurrent iron deficiency.

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Anemia Evaluation and Management

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Hemoglobinopathies

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Thalassemias

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Platelet Disorders

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Coagulation Disorders

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Thrombotic Disorders

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Leukemias

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Lymphomas

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Multiple Myeloma and Plasma Cell Disorders

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Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

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Transfusion Medicine

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Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation

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Hematology — MCQs

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