Endocrinology Practice Questions

Q: Reduction in the flow of saliva is not generally seen in which of the following conditions?

Patients suffering from parkinsonism. In Parkinsonism, patients frequently present with **sialorrhea** (excessive drooling). It is a common misconception that this is due to increased saliva production; in reality, it is caused by **impaired swallowing (dysphagia)** and infrequent spontaneous swallowing due to muscular rigidity and bradykinesia. Therefore, the flow of saliva is not reduced; rather, it pools and escapes the mouth. **Explanation of Options:** * **Elderly Diabetics:** Chronic hyperglycemia leads to autonomic neuropathy affecting the salivary glands and osmotic diuresis, which causes dehydration and subsequent **xerostomia** (dry mouth). * **Radiation Therapy:** Radiation to the head and neck causes direct inflammatory and fibrotic damage to the acinar cells of the salivary glands (especially the parotids), leading to a significant and often permanent reduction in salivary flow. * **Phenothiazine Drugs:** These are typical antipsychotics with significant **anticholinergic properties**. They block muscarinic receptors on salivary glands, leading to decreased secretions and dry mouth. * **Parkinsonism (Correct):** As noted, salivary flow is normal or even slightly decreased physiologically, but the clinical presentation is always one of "apparent" excess due to poor clearance. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Sialorrhea in Parkinson’s:** Managed with anticholinergics (e.g., Glycopyrrolate) or Botulinum toxin injections into the salivary glands. * **Drug-induced Xerostomia:** Common culprits include Atropine, Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs), Antihistamines, and Diuretics. * **Sjögren’s Syndrome:** An autoimmune condition characterized by the triad of xerostomia, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, and often RA. It is a classic cause of reduced salivary flow.

Q: What is the dose adjustment required for insulin in a patient who is diagnosed with stage IV chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Decreased insulin dose. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **B. Decreased insulin dose**. **1. Why the correct answer is right:** The kidneys play a dual role in insulin metabolism: they are responsible for approximately 30-40% of the metabolic clearance of exogenous insulin and contribute to glucose homeostasis through gluconeogenesis. In Stage IV Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD), the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is significantly reduced (15-29 mL/min). This leads to: * **Reduced Insulin Clearance:** Insulin circulates for a longer duration, increasing the risk of prolonged hypoglycemia [1]. * **Decreased Renal Gluconeogenesis:** The failing kidney produces less glucose, further lowering the body's overall glucose output. Consequently, to prevent severe hypoglycemia, the total daily dose of insulin must be reduced (typically by 25-50% when GFR <15-30 mL/min). **2. Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Option A:** Increasing the dose would exacerbate the risk of life-threatening hypoglycemia due to the impaired clearance mentioned above. * **Option C:** "No change" is dangerous in CKD. As renal function declines, the "Burnt-out Diabetes" phenomenon can occur, where previously required insulin doses become excessive. * **Option D:** While some DPP-4 inhibitors (like Linagliptin) can be used in CKD without adjustment, adding another hypoglycemic agent does not address the primary need to adjust the existing insulin regimen to account for reduced clearance. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Rule of Thumb for Insulin in CKD:** * GFR >50 mL/min: No adjustment. * GFR 10-50 mL/min: Reduce dose by 25%. * GFR <10 mL/min: Reduce dose by 50%. * **Drug of Choice:** Insulin remains the preferred glycemic control agent in advanced CKD, but with cautious downward titration. * **Metformin Contraindication:** Traditionally contraindicated if CrCl <30 mL/min due to the risk of Lactic Acidosis.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of Metabolic Syndrome (Syndrome X)?

Hypoinsulinemia. **Explanation:** Metabolic Syndrome (also known as Syndrome X or Insulin Resistance Syndrome) is a cluster of metabolic abnormalities that significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus [4]. **Why Hypoinsulinemia is the correct answer:** The core pathophysiology of Metabolic Syndrome is **Insulin Resistance** [2]. In this state, peripheral tissues (muscle, liver, adipose) do not respond effectively to insulin. To compensate, the pancreas secretes *more* insulin to maintain glucose homeostasis, leading to **Hyperinsulinemia**, not hypoinsulinemia. Hypoinsulinemia is typically seen in Type 1 Diabetes or late-stage Type 2 Diabetes due to beta-cell exhaustion [1][2]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Hyperglycemia:** Insulin resistance leads to impaired fasting glucose or overt Type 2 Diabetes, making hyperglycemia a defining component [1]. * **Abdominal Obesity:** Central (android) obesity is a key driver of the syndrome [4]. Adipose tissue in the visceral compartment is metabolically active and releases pro-inflammatory cytokines and free fatty acids that worsen insulin resistance [4]. * **Hypertriglyceridemia:** Dyslipidemia in Metabolic Syndrome is characterized by high triglycerides and low HDL levels (the "atherogenic lipid triad"). **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **NCEP ATP III Criteria:** Diagnosis requires $\geq$ 3 of the following: 1. **Waist Circumference:** $>102$ cm (M) or $>88$ cm (F). *Note: For South Asians, the cutoff is lower ($>90$ cm M, $>80$ cm F).* 2. **Triglycerides:** $\geq 150$ mg/dL. 3. **HDL Cholesterol:** $<40$ mg/dL (M) or $<50$ mg/dL (F). 4. **Blood Pressure:** $\geq 130/85$ mmHg. 5. **Fasting Glucose:** $\geq 100$ mg/dL. * **Acanthosis Nigricans:** A common clinical sign of underlying insulin resistance. * **First-line Management:** Therapeutic lifestyle changes (weight loss and exercise) [3].

Q: A 30-year-old male with NIDDM has a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg and persistent albuminuria on urine examination. What is the most appropriate line of treatment?

Administer lisinopril and restrict sodium intake. ### Explanation The patient presents with **Diabetic Nephropathy**, characterized by persistent albuminuria and hypertension (150/90 mmHg). In patients with diabetes and albuminuria, the primary goal is to slow the progression to End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD). **Why Option C is Correct:** * **ACE Inhibitors (e.g., Lisinopril):** These are the drugs of choice for diabetic patients with albuminuria. They provide a **renoprotective effect** beyond blood pressure control by causing preferential vasodilation of the **efferent arteriole**. This reduces intraglomerular capillary pressure and decreases the leakage of albumin [1]. * **Sodium Restriction:** Reducing salt intake is essential as it enhances the antiproteinuric and antihypertensive effects of ACE inhibitors. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A & B:** These represent a "wait and watch" approach. Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive condition; failing to intervene pharmacologically when albuminuria and hypertension are present leads to rapid decline in GFR [1]. * **Option D:** While sodium restriction is beneficial, it is insufficient as a monotherapy. It does not address the hemodynamic changes in the glomerulus that ACE inhibitors specifically target. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **First Sign:** The earliest clinical sign of diabetic nephropathy is **Microalbuminuria** (30–300 mg/day) [4]. 2. **Drug of Choice:** ACE Inhibitors or ARBs are preferred even if the patient is normotensive but has albuminuria [1]. 3. **Pathology:** The hallmark histological finding is **Kimmelstiel-Wilson (KW) nodules** (nodular glomerulosclerosis) [2]. 4. **Target BP:** According to most guidelines (ADA/KDIGO), the target BP for diabetic patients with chronic kidney disease is **<130/80 mmHg** [3].

Q: HNF-1b gene defect is seen in which type of MODY?

MODY 5. **Explanation:** Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY) is a group of monogenic disorders characterized by non-insulin-dependent diabetes occurring typically before age 25, inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern [1]. **Correct Option: D (MODY 5)** MODY 5 is caused by a mutation in the **HNF-1β (Hepatocyte Nuclear Factor-1 beta)** gene. This subtype is unique because it is often referred to as the **"Renal Cysts and Diabetes (RCAD) syndrome."** Unlike other forms of MODY, it involves multi-organ developmental anomalies, most notably renal cysts, urogenital tract abnormalities (like bicornuate uterus), and pancreatic atrophy. **Incorrect Options:** * **MODY 2 (Option A):** Caused by a defect in the **Glucokinase (GCK)** gene. It typically presents as mild, stable fasting hyperglycemia that rarely requires treatment and is not associated with complications. * **MODY 3 (Option B):** Caused by a defect in the **HNF-1α** gene. This is the **most common** form of MODY worldwide. It is characterized by a low renal threshold for glucose (glycosuria) and extreme sensitivity to Sulfonylureas. * **MODY 4 (Option C):** Caused by a defect in the **IPF-1 (Insulin Promoter Factor-1)** gene, also known as PDX1. It is a rare form involving impaired beta-cell development. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common MODY:** MODY 3 (HNF-1α). * **Most Common in Pregnancy:** MODY 2 (GCK). * **Drug of Choice:** Sulfonylureas are the first-line treatment for MODY 1 and MODY 3. * **Key Diagnostic Clue for MODY 5:** Presence of renal anomalies (cysts) or genitourinary malformations alongside diabetes.

Q: A 12-year-old girl presents with mood and emotional liability and a golden brown discoloration in Descemet's membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Wilson's disease. ### Explanation **Correct Answer: B. Wilson’s Disease** The clinical presentation of **mood/emotional lability** (psychiatric symptoms) combined with a **golden-brown discoloration in Descemet’s membrane** is pathognomonic for Wilson’s disease [1]. This ocular finding is known as the **Kayser-Fleischer (KF) ring**, caused by the deposition of copper in the cornea. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal recessive disorder involving a mutation in the **ATP7B gene** on chromosome 13. This leads to impaired biliary copper excretion and deficient incorporation of copper into ceruloplasmin. The resulting copper overload primarily affects the **liver** (cirrhosis), the **brain** (basal ganglia degeneration leading to movement disorders or psychiatric issues), and the **eyes** [1]. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Fabry’s disease:** An X-linked lysosomal storage disorder characterized by angiokeratomas, peripheral neuropathy, and renal failure. The classic ocular finding is **cornea verticillata** (vortex keratopathy), not KF rings. * **C. Glycogen storage disease:** These typically present with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and growth retardation. They do not cause copper deposition in the cornea. * **D. Acute rheumatic fever:** Presents with carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, and erythema marginatum. It does not involve corneal pigment changes. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Best Initial Test:** Serum Ceruloplasmin (decreased; 250 µg/g dry weight). * **Most Sensitive Screening:** 24-hour urinary copper excretion (>100 µg/day). * **MRI Brain Finding:** "Face of the Giant Panda" sign in the midbrain. * **Treatment:** Chelating agents like **D-Penicillamine** (first-line) or Trientine; Zinc is used for maintenance.

Q: What is this sign called?

Trousseau's sign. ***Trousseau's sign*** - Elicited by inflating a **blood pressure cuff** above systolic pressure for **3 minutes**, causing **carpal spasm** (main d'accoucheur position). - Classic sign of **hypocalcemia** and **latent tetany**, indicating increased neuromuscular excitability due to low calcium levels. *Chvostek sign* - Elicited by tapping the **facial nerve** anterior to the ear, causing **facial muscle twitching**. - Also indicates **hypocalcemia** but involves facial muscles rather than hand/wrist spasm. *Troisier's sign* - Refers to an enlarged **left supraclavicular lymph node** (Virchow's node) associated with **gastric cancer**. - Completely unrelated to calcium levels or neuromuscular excitability testing. *Lhermitte's sign* - Electric shock-like sensation down the spine when **flexing the neck**, associated with **multiple sclerosis** or cervical spine lesions. - Related to **demyelination** of the spinal cord, not calcium metabolism or tetany.

Q: In which of the following is medullary thyroid cancer considered the most aggressive form?

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIb (MEN IIb). **Explanation:** Medullary Thyroid Cancer (MTC) arises from the parafollicular C-cells and is a hallmark of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) type 2 syndromes. The aggressiveness of MTC is directly linked to the specific germline mutation of the **RET proto-oncogene**. **Why MEN IIb is the correct answer:** MEN IIb is characterized by the **M918T mutation** in exon 16 of the RET gene. This specific mutation leads to the most aggressive biological behavior of MTC. In MEN IIb, MTC presents at a very young age (often in infancy), has a 100% penetrance, and metastasizes much earlier than in other forms. Due to this extreme virulence, prophylactic thyroidectomy is recommended within the **first year of life**. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **MEN I (Wermer Syndrome):** This syndrome involves the "3 Ps" (Pituitary, Parathyroid, and Pancreas). It is **not** associated with Medullary Thyroid Cancer. * **MEN IIa (Sipple Syndrome):** While MTC is the most common feature of MEN IIa, it typically presents in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life and is less aggressive than the IIb variant. Prophylactic thyroidectomy is usually recommended by age 5. * **Sporadic Cases:** About 75% of MTC cases are sporadic. These generally present later in life (4th–6th decade) and are typically less aggressive than the syndromic MEN IIb variety. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Tumor Marker:** Serum **Calcitonin** is used for diagnosis and monitoring recurrence; **CEA** is a secondary marker. * **MEN IIb Phenotype:** Look for "Marfanoid habitus," mucosal neuromas (tongue/lips), and ganglioneuromatosis of the GI tract. * **Rule of Priority:** In any MEN 2 case, always exclude or treat **Pheochromocytoma** before performing thyroid surgery to prevent a hypertensive crisis. * **Staining:** MTC shows **Apple-green birefringence** under polarized light with Congo red stain due to amyloid deposition.

Question 1

Reduction in the flow of saliva is not generally seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Patients suffering from parkinsonism

Answer

Elderly diabetics

Answer

Patients undergoing radiation therapy

Answer

Patients on phenothiazine drugs

Question 2

What is the dose adjustment required for insulin in a patient who is diagnosed with stage IV chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Accepted Answer

Decreased insulin dose

Answer

Increased insulin dose

Answer

No change in insulin dose

Answer

Add DPP-4 inhibitor

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of Metabolic Syndrome (Syndrome X)?

Accepted Answer

Hypoinsulinemia

Answer

Hyperglycemia

Answer

Abdominal obesity

Answer

Hypertriglyceridemia

Question 4

A 30-year-old male with NIDDM has a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg and persistent albuminuria on urine examination. What is the most appropriate line of treatment?

Accepted Answer

Administer lisinopril and restrict sodium intake

Answer

No treatment

Answer

Regular urine examination and blood sugar monitoring

Answer

Restrict sodium intake only

Question 5

HNF-1b gene defect is seen in which type of MODY?

Accepted Answer

MODY 5

Answer

MODY 2

Answer

MODY 3

Answer

MODY 4

Question 6

What is the differentiating feature between ectopic ACTH secretion and Cushing syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Hypokalemic alkalosis

Answer

Clinical features of Cushing syndrome

Answer

Hyperpigmentation

Answer

Hypertension

Question 7

Hypoglycemia is seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Hypopituitarism

Answer

Acromegaly

Answer

Cushing syndrome

Answer

Hypothyroidism

Question 8

A 12-year-old girl presents with mood and emotional liability and a golden brown discoloration in Descemet's membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Wilson's disease

Answer

Fabry's disease

Answer

Glycogen storage disease

Answer

Acute rheumatic fever

Question 9

What is this sign called?

Accepted Answer

Trousseau's sign

Answer

Chvostek sign

Answer

Troisier's sign

Answer

Lhermitte's sign

Question 10

In which of the following is medullary thyroid cancer considered the most aggressive form?

Accepted Answer

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIb (MEN IIb)

Answer

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type I (MEN I)

Answer

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIa (MEN IIa)

Answer

Sporadic cases

Endocrinology — MCQs

Endocrinology — MCQs

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