Postoperative Complications — MCQs

10 questions

What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Post-operative pulmonary thromboembolism is seen in all, except:

A patient with ITP on steroids underwent splenectomy. Patient got fever on 3rd post-operative day. Next investigation is likely to reveal?

Which of the following surgical incisions is associated with the highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications ?

Which complication would you expect during internal podalic version in case of transverse lie?

A 45-year-old female patient underwent a hysterectomy. On the 7th postoperative day, she complains of continuous involuntary dribbling of urine and fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Internal podalic version was done for transverse lie, which of these is a possible complication?

Which of the following are the common complications associated with enteral nutrition in postoperative patients ? 1. Tube malposition, displacement 2. Diarrhoea, constipation 3. Predisposition to systemic sepsis 4. Electrolytic imbalance Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A 32 year old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy which was difficult. On her second post operative day, she develops jaundice. Her LFT parameters show serum bilirubin 6.8 mg/dL; direct bilirubin 5.6 and indirect bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL; and serum alkaline phosphatase 1226 IU/L. She is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice due to:

Q10

Which one of the following conditions is a complication of bacterial pharyngitis involving extension of infection into the internal jugular veins leading to thrombosis and metastatic dispersal of the organism?

Postoperative Complications Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

A. Hypercapnic respiratory failure
B. Mixed respiratory failure
C. Perioperative respiratory failure
D. Hypoxemic respiratory failure (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hypoxemic respiratory failure*** - **Hypoxemic respiratory failure** (Type I) is characterized by a **PaO2 less than 60 mmHg** with a normal or low PaCO2, often due to **V/Q mismatch** and **shunt**. - Post-operative patients frequently develop **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, or **pulmonary edema**, leading to impaired gas exchange and reduced oxygenation. - This is the **most commonly observed type** in the immediate post-operative period. *Hypercapnic respiratory failure* - **Hypercapnic respiratory failure** (Type II) is primarily due to **alveolar hypoventilation**, resulting in a **PaCO2 greater than 50 mmHg**. - While it can occur post-operatively, it is less common than hypoxemic failure and is typically seen with significant **sedation**, **neuromuscular blockade**, or severe **obstructive lung disease**. *Mixed respiratory failure* - **Mixed respiratory failure** involves both **hypoxemia** and **hypercapnia**, indicating severe impairment in both oxygenation and ventilation. - Although it can occur in severe post-operative complications, it is not the *most commonly observed initial presentation* compared to isolated hypoxemia. *Perioperative respiratory failure* - **Perioperative respiratory failure** (Type III) occurs specifically in the surgical setting and involves atelectasis from changes in chest wall mechanics. - While this occurs in the post-operative context, the term is less commonly used, and the **underlying mechanism is primarily hypoxemic** in nature.

Question 2: Post-operative pulmonary thromboembolism is seen in all, except:

A. Obese male
B. Pregnant female
C. Estrogen therapy
D. Tall and thin man (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Tall and thin man*** - A **tall and thin man** is generally at a lower risk for developing post-operative pulmonary thromboembolism compared to the other options. - While prolonged immobility post-surgery can increase risk for anyone, factors like **obesity**, **pregnancy**, and **estrogen therapy** significantly elevate the risk. *Obese male* - **Obesity** is a major risk factor for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to factors like increased venous stasis and chronic inflammation. - Adipose tissue also produces prothrombotic factors, further increasing the risk of **pulmonary embolism (PE)**. *Pregnant female* - **Pregnancy** induces a hypercoagulable state to prevent excessive bleeding during childbirth, increasing the risk of VTE. - This risk is further elevated in the post-partum period and with surgical procedures like a **Cesarean section**. *Estrogen therapy* - **Estrogen therapy**, such as in oral contraceptives or hormone replacement therapy, can increase the synthesis of clotting factors and decrease natural anticoagulant proteins. - This prothrombotic effect significantly raises the risk of **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** and subsequent **PE**.

Question 3: A patient with ITP on steroids underwent splenectomy. Patient got fever on 3rd post-operative day. Next investigation is likely to reveal?

A. Focal Intra-abdominal collection
B. UTI
C. Post-operative site infection
D. Pulmonary consolidation (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Pulmonary consolidation*** - Post-splenectomy patients are at increased risk of **pulmonary complications**, including atelectasis and pneumonia, due to reduced diaphragmatic excursion and pain. Fever on day 3 suggests a developing infection or inflammatory process in the lungs. - **Splenectomy** affects the immune response, making patients more susceptible to infections and exaggerating inflammatory responses to surgical trauma, which can manifest as pulmonary issues. *Focal Intra-abdominal collection* - While intra-abdominal collections can cause fever post-operatively, they typically present later (around day 5-7), and symptoms are often localized with abdominal pain or distension. - This patient had ITP and underwent splenectomy, making **pulmonary complications** more prominent earlier on. *UTI* - Urinary tract infections can cause fever post-operatively, but are usually associated with **urinary symptoms** like dysuria, frequency, or urgency, which are not mentioned. - While prolonged catheterization increases risk, it is less common to be the primary cause of fever on day 3 after splenectomy compared to pulmonary issues. *Po site infection* - Surgical site infections more commonly manifest with localized signs of inflammation such as **redness, warmth, swelling, or purulent discharge**, which are not described. - While possible, a prominent fever on day 3 following a splenectomy, especially in a patient on steroids (which can mask some inflammatory signs), places **pulmonary issues** higher on the differential.

Question 4: Which of the following surgical incisions is associated with the highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications ?

A. Median sternotomy
B. Horizontal laparotomy
C. Vertical laparotomy
D. Lateral thoracotomy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Lateral thoracotomy*** - **Lateral thoracotomy** is associated with the **highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications** among common surgical incisions, with complication rates ranging from **15-70%** depending on the procedure. - This incision **directly violates the chest wall** with rib resection or spreading, causing severe postoperative pain that significantly impairs respiratory mechanics. - The procedure disrupts **intercostal muscles**, damages **intercostal nerves**, and violates the **pleura**, leading to immediate risks like **pneumothorax**, **hemothorax**, and **pleural effusion**. - Severe pain leads to **splinting**, **shallow breathing**, **impaired cough**, and **reduced lung expansion**, markedly increasing the risk of **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, and **respiratory failure**. - The **ipsilateral lung** is particularly affected with reduced functional residual capacity and impaired secretion clearance. *Vertical laparotomy* - **Upper abdominal vertical incisions** are indeed associated with high pulmonary complication rates (**30-50%**), second only to thoracotomy. - Pain leads to **diaphragmatic splinting** and impaired respiratory mechanics, increasing risk of **atelectasis** and **pneumonia**. - However, the chest wall itself remains intact, making complications generally less severe than with thoracotomy. *Median sternotomy* - While a major thoracic procedure, **median sternotomy** has relatively **lower pulmonary complication rates** compared to lateral thoracotomy. - The sternal split preserves **intercostal muscles** and **nerve integrity**, resulting in less severe pain and better preserved respiratory mechanics. - Postoperative pain management is generally more effective than with lateral thoracotomy. *Horizontal laparotomy* - **Transverse abdominal incisions** (e.g., Pfannenstiel, transverse supraumbilical) cause significantly less pain than vertical incisions. - These incisions follow **natural tissue planes**, cause less muscle disruption, and allow better respiratory mechanics. - Lower pain levels facilitate **effective coughing**, **deep breathing**, and **early mobilization**, reducing pulmonary complication risk.

Question 5: Which complication would you expect during internal podalic version in case of transverse lie?

A. Cervical laceration
B. Vaginal laceration
C. Uterine atony
D. Uterine rupture (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Uterine rupture*** - Internal podalic version in a transverse lie, especially if the uterus is stressed or poorly contracted, carries a significant risk of **uterine rupture** due to excessive manipulation and stretching of the lower uterine segment. - This is a rare but life-threatening complication for both mother and fetus, often requiring immediate surgical intervention. *Cervical laceration* - While possible during any vaginal delivery, a **cervical laceration** is not the *most expected major complication* specifically linked to the forceful internal manipulation of podalic version in a transverse lie. - Cervical lacerations are more commonly associated with rapid or instrumentation-assisted deliveries. *Vaginal laceration* - Similar to cervical lacerations, **vaginal lacerations** can occur during vaginal birth but are not the primary, most severe complication uniquely associated with the risks of internal podalic version for a transverse lie. - These are typically related to the passage of the fetal head or instrumentation. *Uterine atony* - **Uterine atony** is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is not a direct complication *during* internal podalic version itself. - It usually occurs *after* delivery due to the uterus failing to contract, not from the manipulative procedure.

Question 6: A 45-year-old female patient underwent a hysterectomy. On the 7th postoperative day, she complains of continuous involuntary dribbling of urine and fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ureterovaginal fistula
B. Urethrovaginal fistula
C. Vesicovaginal fistula (Correct Answer)
D. Vesicouterine fistula

Explanation: ***Vesicovaginal fistula*** - **Continuous dribbling of urine** after hysterectomy signifies a direct communication between the bladder and the vagina, as urine bypasses the bladder neck. - The absence of voluntary micturition in conjunction with urinary leakage into the vagina is characteristic of a **vesicovaginal fistula**. *Ureterovaginal fistula* - This type involves urine leakage from the ureter into the vagina, often causing continuous leakage, but the patient might still pass some urine voluntarily from the bladder. - Would likely present with normal voiding but persistent leakage from the vagina, while a **vesicovaginal fistula** leads to complete loss of bladder control. *Vesicouterine fistula* - Involves a connection between the bladder and the uterus, which is largely irrelevant after a **hysterectomy** where the uterus has been removed. - This fistula type primarily causes urine leakage into the uterine cavity and cyclical hematuria, which is not consistent with the presented symptoms following a hysterectomy. *Urethrovaginal fistula* - This involves a connection between the urethra and the vagina, typically resulting in urinary incontinence rather than continuous, involuntary dribbling bypassing the bladder. - While it causes leakage, the urine would still pass through the bladder, and the primary symptom is often stress incontinence or leakage during voiding, unlike the complete loss of control described.

Question 7: Internal podalic version was done for transverse lie, which of these is a possible complication?

A. Uterine rupture (Correct Answer)
B. Cervical laceration
C. Vaginal laceration
D. Uterine inertia

Explanation: ***Uterine rupture*** - **Internal podalic version** involves manually inserting a hand into the uterus to grasp the fetal feet and turn the fetus from transverse to longitudinal lie, requiring significant uterine manipulation and stretching. - This is the **most serious and classically described complication**, particularly in multiparous women, those with previous uterine scars, or overdistended uterus. - The forceful manipulation and traction can cause **tearing of the uterine wall**, making this a life-threatening emergency. - Due to this high risk, internal podalic version has been largely **replaced by cesarean section** in modern obstetrics. *Cervical laceration* - While cervical lacerations can occur during internal version (especially if performed through an incompletely dilated cervix), this is **not the primary or most characteristic complication** of the procedure. - More commonly associated with rapid fetal descent or instrumental delivery in the second stage. *Vaginal laceration* - Vaginal tears are possible but are **less directly related** to the internal version itself and more associated with the subsequent vaginal delivery. - Not the most significant or characteristic complication of internal podalic version. *Uterine inertia* - **Uterine inertia** (inadequate uterine contractions) is not a direct mechanical complication of internal podalic version. - This refers to labor dysfunction rather than a procedural complication of the manipulation itself.

Question 8: Which of the following are the common complications associated with enteral nutrition in postoperative patients ? 1. Tube malposition, displacement 2. Diarrhoea, constipation 3. Predisposition to systemic sepsis 4. Electrolytic imbalance Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Tube malposition/displacement** is a common mechanical complication (10-15% incidence), which can lead to ineffective feeding or aspiration into the respiratory tract. - **Diarrhoea and constipation** are frequent gastrointestinal complications (10-20% incidence), occurring due to formula intolerance, rapid infusion rates, or altered gut motility in postoperative patients. - **Predisposition to systemic sepsis**: While enteral nutrition itself has lower infection risk than parenteral nutrition, complications like **aspiration pneumonia** (from tube malposition), **contaminated formula**, and **prolonged ileus** can predispose to severe infections and sepsis in postoperative patients. This is particularly relevant when enteral feeding is improperly managed. *1, 2 and 4* - This combination includes **electrolyte imbalances** (hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia), which are indeed common metabolic complications requiring monitoring. - However, in the context of postoperative patients, the infection risk (sepsis) from aspiration and feeding-related complications is considered a more significant acute complication than electrolyte disturbances, which are generally manageable with proper monitoring and formula adjustment. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly excludes **diarrhoea and constipation**, which are among the **most common complications** of enteral nutrition, occurring in 10-20% of patients. - GI complications are a primary reason for enteral feeding intolerance and cannot be omitted. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly omits **tube malposition/displacement**, which is the most important **mechanical complication** directly related to the enteral feeding method. - Without proper tube placement verification, feeding cannot be safely administered, making this a critical complication to recognize.

Question 9: A 32 year old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy which was difficult. On her second post operative day, she develops jaundice. Her LFT parameters show serum bilirubin 6.8 mg/dL; direct bilirubin 5.6 and indirect bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL; and serum alkaline phosphatase 1226 IU/L. She is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice due to:

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Carcinoma gallbladder
C. Carcinoma head of pancreas
D. Bile duct injury (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Bile duct injury*** - The patient developed jaundice two days after a "difficult" laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which is a common context for **iatrogenic bile duct injury**. - The lab results show **predominantly direct (conjugated) hyperbilirubinemia** and a significantly **elevated alkaline phosphatase**, highly indicative of extrahepatic **obstructive jaundice**. *Hepatocellular carcinoma* - This is unlikely given the **acute onset of jaundice** two days post-surgery; hepatocellular carcinoma typically presents with a more ** insidious onset** and features of chronic liver disease. - While it can cause obstructive jaundice, it is usually due to large masses compressing bile ducts or tumor thrombus in the portal vein, which doesn't fit the immediate postoperative timing. *Carcinoma gallbladder* - Gallbladder carcinoma can cause obstructive jaundice by invading or compressing the bile ducts, but it usually presents with more **chronic symptoms** and is rare in a 32-year-old. - The acute onset immediately following surgery makes an **iatrogenic cause** much more probable than a newly diagnosed cancer. *Carcinoma head of pancreas* - Pancreatic head carcinoma causes **obstructive jaundice** by compressing the common bile duct, but similar to other cancers, it presents more chronically with **weight loss**, **abdominal pain**, and potentially **pancreatitis**. - An acute presentation **post-cholecystectomy** in a young patient is not typical for this diagnosis.

Question 10: Which one of the following conditions is a complication of bacterial pharyngitis involving extension of infection into the internal jugular veins leading to thrombosis and metastatic dispersal of the organism?

A. Wegener's granulomatosis
B. Lemierre syndrome (Correct Answer)
C. Chronic Pulmonary Aspergillosis
D. Cystic Fibrosis

Explanation: ***Lemierre syndrome*** - This syndrome is characterized by **bacterial pharyngitis** that extends to the **internal jugular vein**, leading to **thrombosis** and subsequent septic emboli [3]. - The most common causative organism is ***Fusobacterium necrophorum***, and it can result in metastatic infections in organs like the lungs. *Wegener's granulomatosis* - This is an **autoimmune vasculitis** affecting small to medium-sized vessels, primarily in the respiratory tract and kidneys [2]. - It is distinct from infection-related venous thrombosis and is characterized by **granulomatous inflammation** and **ANCA positivity**. *Chronic Pulmonary Aspergillosis* - This is a fungal infection of the lungs, typically occurring in individuals with pre-existing lung conditions or immunosuppression [1]. - It does not involve the initial presentation of bacterial pharyngitis followed by internal jugular vein thrombosis. *Cystic Fibrosis* - This is an **autosomal recessive genetic disorder** affecting exocrine glands, leading to thick, sticky mucus, primarily impacting the lungs and digestive system. - While it causes chronic respiratory infections, it is not initiated by bacterial pharyngitis leading to septic thrombophlebitis of the jugular vein.

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free