Sexual Offences and Abortion — MCQs

Sexual Offences and Abortion Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 41: Which of the following tests is performed on vaginal cells collected for the investigation of rape?

A. Lugol's iodine test (Correct Answer)
B. Benzidine test
C. Takayama test
D. Florence test

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Lugol’s iodine test**. This test is used in forensic investigations to confirm the presence of vaginal epithelial cells in a sample. **1. Why Lugol’s Iodine Test is Correct:** Vaginal epithelial cells (specifically the intermediate and superficial layers) are rich in **glycogen** under the influence of estrogen. When Lugol’s iodine is applied to a smear, the glycogen-rich cells stain **dark brown/mahogany**. This helps distinguish vaginal cells from other epithelial cells (like skin or oral mucosa) which contain significantly less glycogen. It is a crucial test for verifying the site of biological material in rape cases. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Benzidine Test:** A preliminary (presumptive) chemical test for the presence of **blood**. It detects the peroxidase-like activity of hemoglobin, producing a blue color. * **Takayama Test:** Also known as the hemochromogen crystal test. It is a **confirmatory test for blood**, where the addition of Takayama reagent to a bloodstain produces characteristic salmon-pink, feathery crystals. * **Florence Test:** A presumptive test for **semen**. It detects **choline** (a constituent of seminal fluid). When the reagent (iodine in potassium iodide) is added, it forms dark brown, rhombic, or needle-shaped crystals of periodide of choline. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Acid Phosphatase Test:** The most important preliminary test for semen (secreted by the prostate). * **Barberio’s Test:** Detects **spermine** in semen, producing yellow needle-shaped crystals (picrate of spermine). * **Confirmatory test for semen:** Microscopic identification of **spermatozoa** or the presence of **p30 (Prostate-Specific Antigen)**. * **Vaginal pH:** In cases of recent intercourse, the normally acidic vaginal pH (4–4.5) becomes more alkaline (towards 7 or 8) due to the presence of semen.

Question 42: Lesbianism is also known as:

A. Masochism
B. Tribadism (Correct Answer)
C. Nymphomania
D. Transsexualism

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Tribadism** (Option B) is the correct term for lesbianism in forensic psychiatry. It refers to sexual attraction and activity between females. In forensic medicine, it is classified under sexual perversions (paraphilias), though modern psychiatry views it as a sexual orientation. The term is derived from the Greek word *tribein*, meaning "to rub," referring to the physical act associated with the practice. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Masochism (Option A):** A paraphilia where an individual derives sexual pleasure from being subjected to pain, humiliation, or bondage. The opposite is Sadism. * **Nymphomania (Option C):** An obsolete term referring to excessive or uncontrollable sexual desire in females. The male equivalent is known as **Satyriasis**. * **Transsexualism (Option D):** A component of Gender Identity Disorder where an individual identifies as a member of the opposite sex and often desires medical intervention (hormones or surgery) to transition. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Bestiality:** Sexual intercourse with animals (also called Zooerasty). * **Frottage:** Achieving sexual gratification by rubbing against a non-consenting person in a crowded place. * **Voyeurism:** Deriving pleasure from watching others undress or engage in sexual acts (also called "Peeping Tom"). * **Necrophilia:** Sexual intercourse with a dead body. * **Legal Note:** In India, following the landmark Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India (2018) judgment, consensual homosexual acts (including lesbianism) between adults are **decriminalized**, striking down parts of Section 377 IPC.

Question 43: Which of the following is true regarding superfecundation?

A. Fertilization of a second ovum in a woman who is already pregnant within the same menstrual cycle
B. Occurs only in a bicornuate uterus
C. Both ova do not always develop to maturity (Correct Answer)
D. The second fetus is born significantly later than the first

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Superfecundation** is the fertilization of two different ova released during the **same menstrual cycle** by two separate acts of coitus. If the acts of coitus involve two different male partners, it is termed *superfecundation ab-extra*. 1. **Why Option C is Correct:** In superfecundation, while two ova are fertilized, they do not always develop to maturity. One fetus may undergo intrauterine death, be absorbed, or become a **fetus papyraceous** (a flattened, mummified fetus), while the other continues to develop normally. 2. **Why Option A is Incorrect:** This describes **Superfetation**, which is the fertilization of a second ovum when the woman is **already pregnant** from a previous menstrual cycle. In superfecundation, both ova are from the *same* cycle. 3. **Why Option B is Incorrect:** Superfecundation can occur in a normal uterus. While a bicornuate uterus is a classic prerequisite for *superfetation* (to allow a second pregnancy to implant despite the first), it is not a requirement for superfecundation. 4. **Why Option D is Incorrect:** Since both ova are fertilized within the same cycle, the fetuses are of the same gestational age and are typically delivered at the same time (as twins). Significant delay in birth is a theoretical characteristic of superfetation, not superfecundation. **High-Yield Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Superfecundation:** Same cycle, different acts of coitus. Proven by different blood groups or DNA profiles of twins. * **Superfetation:** Different cycles, different gestational ages. Extremely rare in humans as the decidua capsularis fuses with the decidua vera by the 12th week, obliterating the uterine cavity. * **Fetus Papyraceous:** Most commonly associated with twin pregnancies where one fetus dies and is compressed by the growing twin.

Question 44: If tattoo marks are destroyed, their presence can be inferred from the presence of pigment in which of the following?

A. Deep dermis
B. Subcutaneous tissue
C. Regional lymph node (Correct Answer)
D. Skin of adjoining region

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: C. Regional lymph node** Tattooing involves the mechanical introduction of exogenous pigments into the dermis. Once deposited, these pigment particles are recognized as foreign bodies by dermal macrophages. These macrophages phagocytose the pigment and transport it via the lymphatic system to the **regional lymph nodes**. Even if the skin surface is destroyed (by burning, decomposition, or surgical removal), the pigment remains permanently trapped within the reticuloendothelial cells of the regional lymph nodes. In a forensic autopsy, examining the draining lymph nodes (e.g., axillary nodes for arm tattoos) can provide vital evidence of a pre-existing tattoo, aiding in the identification of the deceased. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Deep dermis:** While pigments are initially deposited here, if the tattoo is "destroyed" (e.g., through deep burns or skin grafting), the dermal layer itself is lost or altered, making it an unreliable site for inference. * **B. Subcutaneous tissue:** Tattoo needles typically target the dermis. While some pigment may leak into the subcutaneous fat, it is not consistently retained there in a diagnostic pattern compared to lymph nodes. * **D. Skin of adjoining region:** Tattoo pigment is localized to the site of insertion and does not migrate laterally to the adjacent skin surface. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Identification:** Tattoos are considered "secondary" or "class" characteristics of identification but can become highly specific if the design is unique. * **Methods of Removal:** Common methods include laser (Q-switched), dermabrasion, and surgical excision. * **Forensic Significance:** In decomposed bodies, tattoos may become more visible after the superficial epidermis peels off (skin slippage), as the pigment is located in the more stable underlying dermis. * **Microscopy:** On histopathology, tattoo pigment appears as extracellular or intrahistiocytic granules that do not polarize (unlike some minerals).

Question 45: Getting sexual gratification by hearing sounds of sexual intercourse is?

A. Myxoscopia
B. Scatologia
C. Sexual oralism
D. Ecoutage (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation The correct answer is **D. Ecoutage**. **1. Why Ecoutage is Correct:** Ecoutage (also known as **Auditory Voyeurism**) is a psychosexual disorder or paraphilia where an individual derives sexual arousal and gratification specifically by **listening** to others engaged in sexual activity or conversations about sex. In forensic psychiatry, this is classified under disorders of sexual preference. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Myxoscopia (Voyeurism):** This is the act of obtaining sexual pleasure by **watching** others undress or engage in sexual acts. While Ecoutage is auditory, Myxoscopia is purely visual. * **B. Scatologia (Telephone Scatologia):** This involves making **obscene phone calls** to an unsuspecting victim to achieve sexual arousal through the victim's reaction (shock or fear). It is a form of exhibitionism via telecommunication. * **C. Sexual Oralism (Fellatio/Cunnilingus):** This refers to the use of the mouth or tongue to stimulate the genitalia of a partner. It is a sexual practice rather than a paraphilic disorder centered on hearing sounds. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Voyeurism (Peeping Tom):** The most common paraphilia; gratification through secret observation. * **Frotteurism:** Rubbing one's genitalia against a non-consenting person in a crowded place. * **Necrophilia:** Sexual attraction to or intercourse with a corpse (Section 377 IPC context). * **Bestiality:** Sexual intercourse with animals. * **Sadism vs. Masochism:** Sadism is inflicting pain for pleasure; Masochism is receiving pain for pleasure (Algolagnia). **Key Distinction:** Remember the sensory organ involved—**Eyes** = Myxoscopia/Voyeurism; **Ears** = Ecoutage.

Question 46: Consent from a guardian or husband for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is required if the female is:

A. Below 28 years of age
B. Below 23 years of age
C. Below 17 years of age (Correct Answer)
D. All of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971** (and its subsequent amendments) clearly defines the legal requirements for consent. According to the Act, the consent of the pregnant woman herself is sufficient if she is an adult. However, written consent from a **guardian** is mandatory in only two specific scenarios: 1. If the female is a **minor** (below 18 years of age). 2. If the female is **mentally ill** (regardless of age). **Why Option C is Correct:** While the legal age of majority is 18, Option C (Below 17 years) is the only choice that falls within the "minor" category. Since a 17-year-old is legally a minor, she cannot provide independent consent for an MTP; the consent of a guardian is required. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Options A (28 years) and B (23 years):** These represent adult women. Under the MTP Act, an adult woman of sound mind has the absolute right to decide on an abortion. No consent is required from her husband, parents, or in-laws. * **Husband’s Consent:** It is a high-yield point that the **husband’s consent is NOT required** for an MTP if the woman is an adult and of sound mind. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Age of Consent:** For MTP, the cutoff is **18 years**. For general medical examination/treatment (Section 90 IPC), it is 12 years. * **MTP Limit:** The gestation limit for MTP has been increased to **24 weeks** for specific categories of women (survivors of sexual assault, minors, change in marital status, etc.) and has no upper limit in cases of substantial fetal abnormalities (decided by a Medical Board). * **Confidentiality:** The name and particulars of the woman must not be revealed except to a person authorized by law. Violation is punishable by up to 1 year of imprisonment.

Question 47: Which of the following drugs does NOT increase uterine contractions and is sometimes used for criminal abortion?

A. Arsenic (Correct Answer)
B. Nux vomica
C. Ergotamine
D. Quinine

Explanation: **Explanation:** In the context of criminal abortion, abortifacient agents are broadly classified into **Local Irritants** and **Systemic Poisons**. **1. Why Arsenic is the Correct Answer:** Arsenic is a **systemic poison** (specifically a general protoplasmic poison). Unlike oxytocics, it does **not** have a direct physiological effect on uterine smooth muscle to cause contractions. Instead, it acts as an abortifacient indirectly by causing severe systemic maternal toxicity, multi-organ failure, and metabolic collapse. The fetus dies due to the toxic maternal environment or placental damage, leading to a secondary expulsion of the uterine contents. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Ergotamine (Option C):** This is a classic **Ecbolic/Oxytocic** agent. It acts directly on the myometrium to increase the force and frequency of uterine contractions. * **Quinine (Option D):** Traditionally used as an antimalarial, in high doses it acts as an **Ecbolic**. It sensitizes the uterus to oxytocin, leading to contractions. * **Nux vomica (Option B):** Containing Strychnine, it acts as a **Spinal Poison**. It causes violent tetanic spasms of all voluntary muscles, which secondarily increases intra-abdominal pressure and can trigger uterine contractions, leading to abortion. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classification of Abortifacients:** * **Ecbolics (Direct contraction):** Ergot, Quinine, Oxytocin, Prostaglandins (PGE2, PGF2α). * **Emmenagogues (Increase menstrual flow):** Savin, Borax, Apiol. * **Systemic Poisons:** Arsenic, Mercury, Lead (Plumbum), Cantharides. * **Lead (Diachylon):** Historically the most common systemic poison used for abortion; it causes punctate basophilia and blue lines on gums (Burtonian lines). * **Legal Aspect:** Criminal abortion is dealt with under **Sections 312-316 of the IPC**. Consent of the woman is immaterial if the act is not done in good faith to save her life.

Question 48: What term describes a passive participant in a sexual relationship involving a male and a younger boy?

A. Catamite (Correct Answer)
B. Dyke
C. Pederast
D. Sodomite

Explanation: **Explanation:** The question pertains to the terminology used in forensic psychiatry and sexual jurisprudence regarding **Pederasty**, which is a form of sodomy involving a man and a young boy. * **Catamite (Correct Answer):** This term specifically refers to the **passive partner** (the boy) in a pederastic relationship. In forensic medicine, identifying the roles in unnatural sexual offences is crucial for legal documentation and physical examination (looking for signs of anal dilatation or sphincter laxity). * **Pederast:** This refers to the **active partner** (the adult male) who performs the sexual act on the boy. While related, it describes the perpetrator rather than the passive participant. * **Sodomite:** A general term used for an individual who practices sodomy (anal intercourse). It is a broad category and does not specify the age of the partner or the specific role (active vs. passive) in a pederastic relationship. * **Dyke:** A slang, often derogatory term for a lesbian (female homosexual). It is irrelevant to male-to-male sexual offences. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Section 377 IPC:** Historically dealt with "unnatural offences." While the Supreme Court of India (Navtej Singh Johar case) decriminalized consensual same-sex acts between adults, it remains applicable to non-consensual acts and bestiality. * **Examination Findings:** In chronic passive agents (Catamites), look for the **"Funnel-shaped anus,"** loss of mucosal folds (rugae), and the **"Reflex Anal Dilatation"** (Geoghegan's sign). * **Pederasty vs. Paedophilia:** Pederasty is a specific act involving a boy; Paedophilia is a psychiatric paraphilia involving a sexual preference for prepubescent children of either sex.

Question 49: What is the term for sexual intercourse between closely related individuals?

A. Incest (Correct Answer)
B. Adultery
C. Bestiality
D. Tribadism

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Correct Answer: A. Incest** Incest is defined as sexual intercourse between individuals who are closely related by blood (consanguinity) or marriage (affinity), such that their marriage would be legally prohibited. In forensic medicine, this is significant due to the legal implications and the increased risk of autosomal recessive genetic disorders in offspring. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Adultery:** This refers to voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and someone who is not their legal spouse. (Note: In India, the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of the IPC, decriminalizing adultery, though it remains a ground for divorce). * **C. Bestiality (Zooerasty):** This is a form of paraphilia involving sexual contact between a human and an animal. It was previously categorized under Section 377 of the IPC (Unnatural Offences). * **D. Tribadism:** Also known as "lesbianism," it refers to sexual gratification between two females through friction of their external genitalia. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Medical Importance of Incest:** It often involves "Grooming" and is a common background in cases of Child Sexual Abuse (CSA). * **Section 377 IPC:** While the Supreme Court (Navtej Singh Johar case) decriminalized consensual homosexual acts, Section 377 still applies to **non-consensual** acts and **bestiality**. * **Cunnilingus & Fellatio:** These are forms of oral sex. If performed non-consensually, they are categorized as "Aggravated Penetrative Sexual Assault" under the **POCSO Act**. * **Frotteurism:** A paraphilic disorder where a person derives sexual pleasure from rubbing against a non-consenting person in a crowded place.

Question 50: Which of the following tests detects spermine in semen during the examination of seminal fluid in a case of sexual assault?

A. Barberio test (Correct Answer)
B. Florence test
C. ELISA
D. Gettler's test

Explanation: **Explanation:** The identification of seminal fluid is a crucial aspect of forensic investigation in sexual assault cases. The correct answer is **Barberio test**, which is a microchemical test used to detect the presence of **spermine**, a polyamine found in high concentrations in human semen. 1. **Barberio Test (Correct):** When a drop of saturated aqueous or alcoholic solution of **picric acid** is added to a suspected semen stain, it reacts with spermine to form yellow, needle-shaped, or rhombic crystals of **spermine picrate**. This test is highly specific for human semen. 2. **Florence Test (Incorrect):** This test detects **choline** (not spermine). It uses Florence’s reagent (potassium iodide and iodine), which reacts with choline to produce dark brown, rhombic, or needle-shaped crystals of periodide of choline. 3. **ELISA (Incorrect):** While Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay is used in forensics, it is typically employed to detect **Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA/p30)**, a highly specific protein marker for semen, especially in oligospermic or aspermic samples. 4. **Gettler’s Test (Incorrect):** This is a biochemical test used in cases of **drowning** to compare chloride content between the right and left chambers of the heart. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Acid Phosphatase Test:** The best screening (presumptive) test for semen. High levels (>25-50 units) suggest semen presence. * **PSA (p30):** The most specific marker for semen, even in the absence of spermatozoa. * **Christmas Tree Stain:** Used for the microscopic visualization of spermatozoa (heads stain red, tails stain green). * **Spermatozoa Persistence:** They can remain motile in the vagina for about 24 hours and can be detected (non-motile) for up to 3–5 days.

Practice by Chapter

Sexual Assault Examination

Practice Questions

Rape Investigation

Practice Questions

Child Sexual Abuse

Practice Questions

Collection of Biological Evidence

Practice Questions

DNA Testing in Sexual Offences

Practice Questions

False Allegations

Practice Questions

Medical Termination of Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Criminal Abortion

Practice Questions

Complications of Abortion

Practice Questions

Sexual Perversions

Practice Questions

Legal Aspects of Sexual Offences

Practice Questions

Victim Support and Rehabilitation

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free