Sexual Offences and Abortion — MCQs

Sexual Offences and Abortion Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 91: What is tribadism?

A. Man having anal sex with another man
B. Woman having sexual contact with another woman (Correct Answer)
C. Man having anal sex with a woman
D. Woman having sexual contact with an animal

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Tribadism** (also known as Lesbianism or Sapphism) is a form of female homosexuality where a woman derives sexual gratification from another woman. The term specifically refers to the act of rubbing the vulva or clitoris against the body or genitalia of a partner. In Forensic Medicine, it is classified under sexual perversions/deviations. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option B (Correct):** Tribadism is defined as sexual contact between females. It is not a legal offense under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), as Section 377 (which previously criminalized "unnatural offences") was decriminalized by the Supreme Court regarding consensual acts between adults. * **Option A & C (Incorrect):** Anal sex (intercourse *per anum*) is medically termed **Sodomy**. When performed by a man on another man, it is male homosexuality; when performed on a woman, it is a form of sodomy but not tribadism. * **Option D (Incorrect):** Sexual contact between a human and an animal is termed **Bestiality** (or Zooerasty). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Legal Status:** Following the *Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India* (2018) judgment, consensual homosexual acts (including tribadism and sodomy) are no longer criminalized in India. 2. **Medical Examination:** In cases of alleged tribadism, physical signs are often absent. However, chronic practitioners may show an elongated/hypertrophied clitoris or relaxed labia. 3. **Terminology:** * **Pederasty:** Anal intercourse by a man with a young boy. * **Buggery:** A general term often used interchangeably with sodomy or bestiality. * **Cunnilingus:** Oral stimulation of the female genitalia.

Question 92: What is covered under IPC Sections 312-316?

A. Criminal abortion (Correct Answer)
B. Offences against children
C. Offences causing bodily injuries
D. Restraint

Explanation: **Explanation:** **IPC Sections 312-316** specifically deal with the legalities and punishments surrounding **Criminal Abortion** (causing miscarriage). In Indian law, any miscarriage caused voluntarily, other than in good faith to save the life of the mother, is considered a criminal offense. * **Section 312:** Punishment for causing miscarriage (with or without the woman's consent). * **Section 313:** Causing miscarriage without the woman’s consent (carries a life sentence). * **Section 314:** Death caused by an act done with intent to cause miscarriage. * **Section 315:** Act done with intent to prevent a child being born alive or to cause it to die after birth. * **Section 316:** Causing the death of a quick unborn child by an act amounting to culpable homicide. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Offences against children:** These are primarily covered under the **POCSO Act** and IPC Sections 363A, 317, and 318. * **Offences causing bodily injuries:** These fall under **Hurt (Section 323)** and **Grievous Hurt (Section 325)**. * **Restraint:** This refers to **Wrongful Restraint**, covered under **IPC Section 341**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **MTP Act (1971/2021):** This is the legal exception to IPC 312. If an abortion is performed under the provisions of the MTP Act, it is not a criminal offense. * **Quickening:** Mentioned in Section 316, it refers to the first perception of fetal movement by the mother (usually 18-20 weeks in primigravida). * **Rule of Haase:** Used to determine the age of the fetus in months (Length in cm = Month² for first 5 months; Month × 5 for later months). * **Commonest cause of death in criminal abortion:** Septicemia (delayed) or Air Embolism/Hemorrhage (immediate).

Question 93: Which of the following is NOT an indication for medical termination of pregnancy?

A. Pregnancy resulting from rape
B. Substantial risk of delivering a seriously handicapped baby
C. Very poor socioeconomic status of the family (Correct Answer)
D. Significant risk to the physical and mental health of the pregnant woman

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act** (originally 1971, amended in 2021) governs the legal framework for abortion in India. The Act specifies legal grounds for termination to prevent "backstreet abortions" and ensure maternal safety. **Why Option C is correct:** "Very poor socioeconomic status" is **not** a legal indication for MTP under the Act. While the law considers the "actual or reasonably foreseeable environment" of the woman, poverty alone does not qualify as a standalone legal ground. The Act focuses on health risks and humanitarian grounds rather than purely financial constraints. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A (Rape):** Termination is permitted on humanitarian grounds. The law presumes that pregnancy resulting from rape causes "grave injury to the mental health" of the woman. * **Option B (Fetal Abnormalities):** MTP is legal if there is a substantial risk that the child, if born, would suffer from serious physical or mental abnormalities (e.g., severe genetic disorders). * **Option D (Health of the Mother):** This is the primary therapeutic indication. MTP is allowed if the continuation of pregnancy poses a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or causes grave injury to her physical or mental health. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Contraceptive Failure:** MTP is legal if pregnancy occurs due to the failure of a device or method used by a **married woman or her partner** (and now extended to unmarried women under the 2021 amendment) to limit the number of children. * **Consent:** Only the consent of the **pregnant woman** is required (if >18 years and of sound mind). Husband’s consent is NOT mandatory. * **Gestational Age Limits:** * Up to **20 weeks**: Requires opinion of **one** Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP). * **20–24 weeks**: Requires opinion of **two** RMPs (for specific categories like rape survivors, minors, etc.). * **Beyond 24 weeks**: Permitted only for substantial fetal abnormalities if approved by a state-level **Medical Board**.

Question 94: All the following will come as grounds for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) except:

A. Failure of contraceptives
B. Rape
C. Unmarried mother (Correct Answer)
D. Risk to mother's physical or mental health

Explanation: The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971** (amended in 2021) outlines specific legal grounds for terminating a pregnancy. The correct answer is **C (Unmarried mother)** because marital status alone is not a legal ground for abortion; rather, the *circumstances* leading to the pregnancy or the *consequences* of it must meet the criteria defined by the Act. ### Why "Unmarried Mother" is the Correct Answer: While the 2021 Amendment expanded the "failure of contraceptive" clause to include unmarried women, the status of being "unmarried" is not a standalone medical or legal indication. A woman must still cite one of the approved grounds (e.g., contraceptive failure, mental health risk, or fetal anomaly) to undergo the procedure. ### Explanation of Incorrect Options: * **A. Failure of Contraceptives:** Under the 2021 Amendment, this is a valid ground for **all women** (married or unmarried) up to 20 weeks. * **B. Rape:** Pregnancy resulting from sexual assault is considered a grave injury to the mental health of the woman and is a valid ground for MTP up to 24 weeks. * **D. Risk to Mother’s Health:** If the continuation of pregnancy poses a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or causes grave injury to her **physical or mental health**, MTP is legally permitted. ### High-Yield Facts for NEET-PG: * **Gestational Limits:** Up to **20 weeks** (requires 1 RMP's opinion); **20–24 weeks** for special categories like rape survivors or disabled women (requires 2 RMPs' opinion). * **No Limit:** MTP can be performed at any time during pregnancy if there are **substantial fetal abnormalities** (diagnosed by a state-level Medical Board) or to save the life of the mother. * **Consent:** Only the consent of the **pregnant woman** is required (if >18 years and of sound mind). Husband’s consent is NOT required. * **Confidentiality:** The name and particulars of the woman must not be revealed, punishable by up to 1 year in prison.

Question 95: A pregnant woman undergoes abortion performed by a doctor at the request of her husband and in-laws, without her consent. This act is punishable under which section of the Indian Penal Code?

A. Section 315 IPC
B. Section 314 IPC
C. Section 313 IPC (Correct Answer)
D. Section 312 IPC

Explanation: ### Explanation The core issue in this scenario is the **absence of the woman's consent**. Under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), causing a miscarriage is a criminal offense unless performed in good faith to save the woman's life (as per the MTP Act exceptions). **Why Section 313 IPC is Correct:** Section 313 IPC specifically deals with causing miscarriage **without the woman's consent**. It is a non-bailable, cognizable offense punishable by life imprisonment or imprisonment up to 10 years, plus a fine. Even if the husband or in-laws consent, the law recognizes the woman's bodily autonomy as paramount. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Section 312 IPC:** Deals with causing miscarriage **with the woman's consent**. If the woman is "quick with child" (fetal movements felt), the punishment is more severe. * **Section 314 IPC:** Pertains to **death caused by an act done with intent to cause miscarriage**. It covers scenarios where the woman dies during the procedure, whether or not she consented to the abortion. * **Section 315 IPC:** Deals with an act done with the intent to **prevent a child being born alive** or to cause it to die after birth (feticide/infanticide). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **MTP Act vs. IPC:** The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act provides legal immunity to doctors if they follow specific guidelines (gestational age, place, and opinion of RMPs). If these are not met, the IPC sections apply. * **Consent:** For a major woman (above 18) or a minor/mentally ill person (with guardian consent), only the woman’s consent is legally required for an MTP. **Husband’s consent is NOT mandatory.** * **Quickening:** Usually occurs at 18–20 weeks in primigravida and 16–18 weeks in multigravida. It is a legal milestone in Section 312 IPC.

Question 96: Which of the following is used in rape victims to determine rupture of the hymen and whether the rupture is recent or old?

A. Glaister Keene Rods (Correct Answer)
B. Gaba Rod
C. Gram Rod
D. Cylinder Rod

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Glaister Keene Rods**. In forensic examinations of alleged rape victims, assessing the integrity of the hymen is crucial. Glaister Keene rods are specialized glass or plastic rods with bulbous ends of varying diameters. They are gently inserted into the vaginal orifice to stretch the hymen. This procedure allows the examiner to: 1. **Identify Ruptures:** It makes small or healed tears visible. 2. **Differentiate Age of Injury:** A **recent tear** will show raw, bleeding edges with inflammation, whereas an **old tear** will have smooth, cicatrized (scarred) edges that have reached the base of the hymen. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B, C, and D (Gaba, Gram, Cylinder Rods):** These are distractor terms and do not exist as standardized instruments in forensic medicine or clinical gynecology for the assessment of hymenal integrity. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Hymenal Tags (Carunculae Myrtiformes):** These are the small, rounded elevations of tissue remaining after the hymen has been ruptured and healed, typically following childbirth. * **Medical Legal Importance:** The presence or absence of a hymen is **not** a definitive sign of virginity or intercourse, as it can be ruptured by physical activity (sports, cycling) or may be naturally absent/fimbriated. * **Examination Position:** The preferred position for examining a victim is the **Lithotomy position** or the **Sims’ (lateral) position**. * **Consent:** In India, per Section 53A of the CrPC, medical examination of a rape accused/victim must be done with informed consent, and the "Two-Finger Test" is strictly prohibited and unconstitutional.

Question 97: An adult male accused of rape is brought for medical examination within 12 hours. Which of the following findings would NOT indicate rape?

A. Presence of non-retractile prepuce
B. Presence of smegma on glans penis (Correct Answer)
C. Absence of injury marks on the private parts
D. All of the above

Explanation: In forensic medicine, the examination of an accused individual focuses on evidence of recent sexual activity and the physical capacity to perform the act. **Explanation of the Correct Answer:** **Option B (Presence of smegma on glans penis)** is the correct answer because smegma is a sebaceous secretion that accumulates under the prepuce. It is easily wiped away during the friction of sexual intercourse. If a thick, undisturbed layer of smegma is present on the glans, it strongly suggests that penetration has **not** occurred recently. Therefore, its presence is a negative finding for rape. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Non-retractile prepuce):** This condition (Phimosis) may make penetration painful or difficult, but it does not physically prevent the act of rape. An accused can still commit the offence despite this condition. * **Option C (Absence of injury marks):** The absence of injuries on the penis (such as frenular tears or abrasions) does not rule out rape. If the victim was unconscious, incapacitated, or if there was sufficient lubrication, penetration can occur without leaving physical marks on the accused. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Smegma:** Its presence is a "negative sign." It usually takes about 24 hours to re-accumulate significantly after intercourse. * **Potency vs. Sterility:** In rape cases, the court is concerned with *Potentia Coeundi* (ability to perform intercourse), not *Potentia Generandi* (ability to procreate/fertility). * **Locard’s Principle:** The most vital evidence on the accused is the presence of the victim's biological material (vaginal epithelial cells, pubic hair, or blood) on the penis or clothing.

Question 98: What does the term 'Quod Hanc' mean?

A. Passive partner in sexual intercourse
B. Woman having high sexual desire
C. Sexual partner in pedophilia
D. Male impotent towards a particular woman (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Quod Hanc** is a Latin legal term used in forensic medicine to describe a specific type of **psychogenic impotence**. It refers to a condition where a male is physically capable of performing sexual intercourse generally, but is **impotent towards a particular woman** (usually his wife). This is often due to psychological factors such as lack of attraction, emotional trauma, or specific inhibitions related to that individual. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option D (Correct):** As defined, it refers to selective impotence. In legal medicine, if a woman sues for divorce on grounds of nullity of marriage due to the husband's impotence, the husband may be proven "impotent *quod hanc*" even if he has fathered children elsewhere. * **Option A:** A passive partner in anal intercourse is termed a **Catamite** (if a boy) or simply the passive agent in sodomy. * **Option B:** A woman with abnormally high sexual desire is referred to as a **Nymphomaniac**. (The male equivalent is Satyriasis). * **Option C:** There is no specific Latin term like 'Quod Hanc' for a partner in pedophilia; the perpetrator is simply a pedophile. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Potency vs. Fertility:** Potency is the ability to perform coitus; Fertility is the ability to procreate. A man can be potent but sterile (e.g., Azoospermia), or impotent but fertile (e.g., via Assisted Reproduction). * **Phimosis:** The most common local organic cause of impotence in males. * **Legal Significance:** Under Section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, impotence at the time of marriage is a ground for declaring a marriage void (nullity). * **Admiralty Test:** A historical (now largely obsolete) test used to check for nocturnal penile tumescence to differentiate between organic and psychogenic impotence.

Question 99: Sexual intercourse with a person below the age of consent is considered rape, irrespective of their agreement. Below which age is this legally defined as rape?

A. 18 years
B. 16 years (Correct Answer)
C. 25 years
D. 17 years

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: B (16 years)** In the context of the **Indian Penal Code (IPC) Section 375**, sexual intercourse with a woman below the age of **16 years** is defined as rape, regardless of whether she provided consent. Legally, a person below this age is considered incapable of giving valid consent for sexual acts. It is important to note that while the **POCSO Act (2012)** defines a child as anyone under 18 for protection against sexual offenses, the specific threshold for the definition of rape under IPC Section 375 (Exception 2) remains 16 years (though recent judicial trends and the POCSO Act often overlap, 16 is the standard answer for IPC-based forensic questions). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A (18 years):** This is the age of majority and the age of consent under the POCSO Act. However, for the specific definition of "statutory rape" under IPC 375, the threshold is 16. * **C (25 years):** This age has no legal standing regarding the definition of consent or rape in Indian law. * **D (17 years):** While above the 16-year threshold, a 17-year-old is still a minor under POCSO, but the IPC specifically demarcates 16 as the cutoff for "consent being immaterial." **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **IPC Section 375:** Defines Rape. * **IPC Section 376:** Prescribes punishment for Rape. * **Age of Consent for Medical Examination:** Under Section 164A CrPC, the victim’s consent is required if they are 12 years or older; if below 12, parental/guardian consent is mandatory. * **Two-Finger Test:** Strictly prohibited and considered a violation of the victim's right to privacy. * **Medical Evidence:** The presence of spermatozoa is the most conclusive evidence of recent intercourse, but its absence does not rule out rape.

Question 100: The Florence test detects which of the following substances?

A. Inositol
B. Choline (Correct Answer)
C. Spermine
D. Citric acid

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Florence test** is a preliminary (presumptive) chemical test used in forensic medicine to identify the presence of seminal fluid. 1. **Why Choline is correct:** Seminal fluid contains high concentrations of **phosphorylcholine**, which is broken down by the enzyme acid phosphatase into free **choline**. In the Florence test, the reagent (potassium iodide and iodine) reacts with choline to form dark brown, rhombic, or needle-shaped crystals of **periodide of choline**. These crystals are visible under a microscope and resemble haemin crystals. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Inositol:** While present in semen, it is not the target of the Florence test. * **Spermine:** This is the target of the **Barberio test**. In that test, picric acid reacts with spermine to form yellow, needle-shaped crystals of spermine picrate. * **Citric acid:** Though a major constituent of prostatic fluid, it is not used as a diagnostic marker in these specific micro-crystal tests. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Florence Test:** Detects Choline (Brown rhombic crystals). It is a **non-specific** test because choline can also be found in other body fluids like vaginal secretions or perspiration. * **Barberio Test:** Detects Spermine (Yellow needle-shaped crystals). * **Acid Phosphatase Test:** The most important screening test for semen; levels >50 U/mL are considered presumptive evidence. * **Confirmatory Test:** The only absolute proof of semen is the microscopic identification of **spermatozoa** (using Christmas Tree stain) or the detection of **p30 (Prostate-Specific Antigen)**.

Practice by Chapter

Sexual Assault Examination

Practice Questions

Rape Investigation

Practice Questions

Child Sexual Abuse

Practice Questions

Collection of Biological Evidence

Practice Questions

DNA Testing in Sexual Offences

Practice Questions

False Allegations

Practice Questions

Medical Termination of Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Criminal Abortion

Practice Questions

Complications of Abortion

Practice Questions

Sexual Perversions

Practice Questions

Legal Aspects of Sexual Offences

Practice Questions

Victim Support and Rehabilitation

Practice Questions

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