Ethical Issues in Mass Casualty Events — MCQs
Which of the following phases are directly involved in the recovery phase of the disaster cycle?
What is triage for?
You are working in a primary health center (PHC) situated in a high seismic zone. Which of the following actions should you take as part of preparedness for an emergency?
Steps in review of patient's history during secondary survey of trauma care can be summarised as
What is the most common primary neoplasm of the heart in adults?
A 24-year-old female patient presents with a few weeks of amenorrhea, a left adnexal mass on ultrasound, and a beta-hCG level of $2500 \mathrm{mIU} / \mathrm{mL}$. No fetal heart rate is detected on the ultrasound. What is the most appropriate management?
All of the following statements about pseudopancreatic cysts are true except:
A 5-year-old child presented with a history of blood in the stools. On examination, there was a polypoid mass in the rectum, a biopsy of which showed as below. The most probable diagnosis is?
Increased BMR is associated with -
Chimney sweeper's cancer is also known as
Ethical Issues in Mass Casualty Events Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following phases are directly involved in the recovery phase of the disaster cycle?
- A. Response and Rehabilitation
- B. Mitigation and Rehabilitation
- C. Response and Preparedness
- D. Rehabilitation and Reconstruction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rehabilitation and Reconstruction*** - **Rehabilitation** is the short-term recovery phase focusing on restoring essential services, providing temporary shelter, medical care, and supporting affected populations to resume normal activities. - **Reconstruction** is the long-term recovery phase involving rebuilding damaged infrastructure, permanent housing, economic restoration, and development improvements. - These two phases together constitute the **recovery phase** of the disaster cycle according to standard disaster management frameworks (WHO, NDMA). *Mitigation and Rehabilitation* - While **rehabilitation** is correctly part of recovery, **mitigation** is traditionally considered a separate continuous phase or part of preparedness, focused on reducing future disaster risks. - **Mitigation** measures are implemented throughout the disaster cycle, not specifically as a direct component of the recovery phase. *Response and Rehabilitation* - **Response** refers to immediate life-saving actions during and immediately after a disaster (search and rescue, emergency medical care, evacuation). - **Response** precedes the recovery phase and is distinct from it, though **rehabilitation** is indeed part of recovery. *Response and Preparedness* - **Preparedness** involves planning, training, and resource allocation before a disaster occurs. - **Response** is the immediate action during/after the disaster. - Neither constitutes the recovery phase, which follows after the immediate response is complete.
Question 2: What is triage for?
- A. To rehabilitate following a disaster
- B. To prepare for a disaster
- C. To classify the priority of treatment (Correct Answer)
- D. To assess the impact of a disaster
Explanation: ***To classify the priority of treatment*** - **Triage** is the process of sorting patients to determine the **priority** of their treatment based on the **severity** of their condition and the likelihood of recovery, especially when resources are limited. - This system ensures that those who need immediate care most urgently receive it first, maximizing the number of lives saved. *To rehabilitate following a disaster* - **Rehabilitation** focuses on restoring health and functional abilities after an injury or illness, which occurs **post-treatment**, not as the initial classification of need. - This phase of care happens *after* triage has been completed and immediate medical needs have been addressed. *To prepare for a disaster* - **Disaster preparedness** involves planning and training *before* a disaster strikes to mitigate its effects and ensure an effective response. - Triage is a **response mechanism** utilized *during* or *immediately after* a disaster, not a preparatory measure. *To assess the impact of a disaster* - **Impact assessment** involves evaluating the damage, casualties, and overall consequences of a disaster. - While disaster impact assessment helps guide overall response, triage is specifically about **individual patient assessment** and prioritization for medical care.
Question 3: You are working in a primary health center (PHC) situated in a high seismic zone. Which of the following actions should you take as part of preparedness for an emergency?
- A. Ensure all financial and other resources are available for disaster preparedness.
- B. Increase public awareness through campaigns and loudspeakers.
- C. Follow instructions given over the phone or radio by higher officials.
- D. Conduct a simulation for the disaster and assess the response. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Conduct a simulation for the disaster and assess the response.*** - **Simulation exercises** are crucial for testing the effectiveness of a disaster preparedness plan and identifying weaknesses in the response system. - This allows for refinement of protocols, training of personnel, and ensuring that all team members understand their roles during an actual emergency. *Ensure all financial and other resources are available for disaster preparedness.* - While important for effective disaster management, simply "ensuring" resources are available is not an action of preparedness, but rather an **enabling condition**. - This statement focuses on the availability of resources rather than a proactive step to prepare the PHC for an emergency. *Increase public awareness through campaigns and loudspeakers.* - **Public awareness campaigns** are vital for community preparedness, but this action is primarily for the general population and not a specific preparedness action for the PHC itself in terms of its operational readiness. - While a PHC might be involved in public awareness, its core preparedness involves internal actions to ensure its functionality during a disaster. *Follow instructions given over the phone or radio by higher officials.* - This describes a reaction during or immediately before a disaster, rather than a proactive **preparedness measure**. - Relying solely on real-time instructions from higher officials during an emergency without prior planning can lead to delays and inefficiencies.
Question 4: Steps in review of patient's history during secondary survey of trauma care can be summarised as
- A. TRIAGE
- B. ABCDE
- C. AMPLE (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***AMPLE*** - The **AMPLE history** is a mnemonic used during the **secondary survey** in trauma care to gather crucial patient information - It stands for **Allergies, Medications, Past medical history/Pregnancy, Last meal, and Events** surrounding the injury. *TRIAGE* - **Triage** is the process of prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition and the likelihood of benefit from immediate treatment. - It is an initial assessment done to determine the urgency of care, not a detailed historical review for a single patient. *ABCDE* - The **ABCDE approach** (**Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure**) is part of the **primary survey** in trauma care. - It focuses on identifying and managing immediate life-threatening conditions. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **AMPLE** specifically describes the historical review process during the secondary survey.
Question 5: What is the most common primary neoplasm of the heart in adults?
- A. Lipoma
- B. Myxoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Papillary fibroelastoma
- D. Rhabdomyoma
Explanation: ***Myxoma*** - It is the most common **primary cardiac neoplasm** in adults [1][2], typically located in the **left atrium** [1][2]. - Myxomas can cause **obstruction** and **systemic embolization** [1][2], presenting with symptoms like dyspnea and syncope. *Papillary fibroelastoma* - This tumor is less common and usually occurs on the heart's **valves**, often causing **embolic events** but not classified as the most common. - It is generally **asymptomatic** unless it causes significant obstruction or embolism. *Lipoma* - While lipomas are common **benign tumors** [2], they make up a smaller percentage of cardiac tumors and usually do not present with **distinct symptoms** as myxomas do. - These tumors are typically **asymptomatic** and found incidentally during imaging. *Rhabdomyoma* - This is more often seen in **children** [2], particularly associated with **tuberous sclerosis**, making it uncommon in adults. - Rhabdomyomas are also **benign**, but its incidence is notably lower compared to myxomas in the adult population. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, pp. 583-584. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Cardiovascular Disease, pp. 304-306.
Question 6: A 24-year-old female patient presents with a few weeks of amenorrhea, a left adnexal mass on ultrasound, and a beta-hCG level of $2500 \mathrm{mIU} / \mathrm{mL}$. No fetal heart rate is detected on the ultrasound. What is the most appropriate management?
- A. Expectant management
- B. Salpingectomy
- C. Milking of tube
- D. Single dose methotrexate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Single dose methotrexate** - A **beta-hCG level of 2500 mIU/mL** in conjunction with an adnexal mass and no fetal heart rate visible on ultrasound is consistent with an **unruptured ectopic pregnancy** in a hemodynamically stable patient. - **Methotrexate** is a systemic treatment that inhibits trophoblastic cell growth, leading to the resolution of the ectopic pregnancy without surgery. *Expectant management* - This approach is typically reserved for patients with very **low and declining beta-hCG levels** who are completely asymptomatic and have no evidence of rupture. - With a beta-hCG of 2500 mIU/mL and a definite adnexal mass, the risk of rupture is significant, making expectant management inappropriate. *Salpingectomy* - **Salpingectomy** (surgical removal of the fallopian tube) is usually indicated for **ruptured ectopic pregnancies**, hemodynamically unstable patients, or when medical management fails. - While it's an effective treatment, the patient's current presentation (unruptured, stable beta-hCG) allows for a less invasive medical approach first. *Milking of tube* - **"Milking" or "expressing" the tube** is an outdated and potentially harmful maneuver that involves squeezing the fallopian tube to push the ectopic pregnancy out. - This method is associated with **high rates of recurrence** and potential for tubal damage, and is not a recommended treatment for ectopic pregnancy.
Question 7: All of the following statements about pseudopancreatic cysts are true except:
- A. Serum amylase levels are increased (Correct Answer)
- B. Presents as an epigastric mass
- C. Cystojejunostomy is treatment of choice
- D. May require percutaneous aspiration for diagnosis
Explanation: ***Serum amylase levels are increased*** - This is the **false statement**. While **acute pancreatitis** causes elevated serum amylase, a **pseudopancreatic cyst** is a late complication (typically developing 4+ weeks after acute pancreatitis), and by this time serum amylase levels have usually **normalized**. - The mature pseudocyst itself does not actively produce or leak amylase into the bloodstream, distinguishing it from acute pancreatic inflammation. *Presents as an epigastric mass* - **True statement**. Pancreatic pseudocysts frequently present as a **palpable epigastric mass** due to their location in the lesser sac and potential to grow quite large (often >5-6 cm). - Patients may report a sensation of fullness or visible abdominal swelling. *May require percutaneous aspiration for diagnosis* - **True statement**. Percutaneous aspiration can be used for **diagnostic purposes** to differentiate pseudocysts from cystic neoplasms by analyzing fluid amylase levels and cytology. - It may also provide temporary symptomatic relief, though it has high recurrence rates as definitive treatment. *Cystojejunostomy is treatment of choice* - **True statement** in the context of **surgical management**. When internal surgical drainage is indicated for large, symptomatic, or complicated pseudocysts, **cystojejunostomy** (or cystogastrostomy/cystoduodenostomy) is preferred. - Current practice favors endoscopic drainage first, but surgical internal drainage remains gold standard when endoscopy is not feasible or fails.
Question 8: A 5-year-old child presented with a history of blood in the stools. On examination, there was a polypoid mass in the rectum, a biopsy of which showed as below. The most probable diagnosis is?
- A. Villous adenoma
- B. Juvenile polyp (Correct Answer)
- C. Vascular malformation
- D. Serrated adenoma
Explanation: ***Juvenile polyp*** - The image shows **dilated, cystically appearing glands** within an inflamed lamina propria, which is characteristic of a juvenile polyp. - Juvenile polyps are the most common cause of **rectal bleeding** in children under 10 years of age and are typically benign. *Villous adenoma* - Villous adenomas are **neoplastic polyps** with a **villous (finger-like) architecture** and are more commonly seen in older adults [1]. - They typically show **dysplastic changes** and are considered premalignant [1]. *Vascular malformation* - Vascular malformations consist of **abnormally formed blood vessels** (e.g., arteriovenous malformations, hemangiomas) and would appear as dilated or aberrant vessels on histology. - While they can cause bleeding, the image does not show a predominance of vascular structures. *Serrated adenoma* - Serrated adenomas are characterized by **sawtooth-like glandular infoldings** and show varying degrees of dysplasia. - They are typically found in adults and are considered premalignant, not benign growths usually found in children. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 371-372.
Question 9: Increased BMR is associated with -
- A. Increased body fat store
- B. Increased glycolysis (Correct Answer)
- C. Increased lipogenesis
- D. Increased gluconeogenesis
Explanation: ***Increased glycolysis*** - An increased **basal metabolic rate (BMR)** signifies higher energy expenditure at rest, which reflects increased cellular metabolic activity and ATP consumption. - Among the given options, **increased glycolysis** is most consistent with increased BMR, as glycolysis is the primary pathway for ATP generation from glucose, and cells with higher metabolic rates require increased energy production. - Conditions that increase BMR (such as hyperthyroidism, fever, and increased muscle mass) are typically accompanied by **increased glycolytic activity** to meet higher energy demands. *Incorrect: Increased body fat store* - **Increased body fat** is generally associated with a *lower* BMR per unit of body weight, as adipose tissue is metabolically less active than lean tissue (especially muscle). - Higher body fat percentage reflects **energy storage**, not increased energy expenditure, and does not contribute to elevated BMR. *Incorrect: Increased lipogenesis* - **Lipogenesis** (synthesis of fatty acids and triglycerides) is an anabolic process that occurs during states of **energy surplus** for fat storage. - This process represents energy **storage** rather than energy **expenditure**, and is inversely related to BMR - it increases when energy intake exceeds expenditure. *Incorrect: Increased gluconeogenesis* - **Gluconeogenesis** (synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) is primarily active during **fasting, starvation, or prolonged exercise** when glucose availability is low. - While gluconeogenesis is energy-consuming, it is characteristic of catabolic states with low energy availability, not the increased metabolic activity associated with elevated BMR. - In conditions that increase BMR (like hyperthyroidism), glucose is typically utilized via glycolysis rather than synthesized via gluconeogenesis.
Question 10: Chimney sweeper's cancer is also known as
- A. Carcinoma colon
- B. Carcinoma penis
- C. Carcinoma scrotum (Correct Answer)
- D. Carcinoma lung
Explanation: ***Carcinoma scrotum*** - **Chimney Sweeper's cancer** is a historical term for **squamous cell carcinoma** of the scrotum, first described by Percivall Pott in 1775. - It was highly prevalent among chimney sweepers due to prolonged occupational exposure to **soot** (coal tar), which contains **polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs)**. *Carcinoma colon* - This cancer affects the **large intestine** and is linked to polyps, genetic factors, and lifestyle, not specifically soot exposure to external skin. - While PAHs can be ingested and metabolized, the direct association with "Chimney Sweeper's cancer" is specific to external skin carcinogenicity [1]. *Carcinoma penis* - This is a rare cancer associated with **HPV infection**, poor hygiene, and phimosis, primarily affecting the penile shaft or glans [2]. - It is not historically linked to occupational soot exposure in the way scrotal cancer is. *Carcinoma lung* - **Lung cancer** is strongly associated with **smoking** and exposure to airborne carcinogens like asbestos and radon, or general air pollution [1]. - While chimney sweepers might inhale soot, the term "Chimney Sweeper's cancer" specifically refers to the external **scrotal carcinoma** due to direct skin contact. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 217-218. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 975-976.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free