Otology — MCQs

Otology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 261: What is the commonest complication of Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM)?

A. Subperiosteal abscess
B. Mastoiditis (Correct Answer)
C. Brain abscess
D. Meningitis

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Why Mastoiditis is the correct answer:** Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM) involves a permanent abnormality of the pars tensa or pars flaccida. The middle ear cleft is continuous with the mastoid air cell system via the aditus ad antrum. In almost all cases of CSOM, there is some degree of inflammation or infection involving the mastoid bone. Therefore, **Mastoiditis** (specifically chronic mastoiditis) is considered the most common complication. It is often the precursor to more severe extracranial and intracranial spread. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Subperiosteal abscess:** This is a common *extracranial* complication (e.g., Post-auricular abscess), but it occurs secondary to mastoiditis when the infection breaches the mastoid cortex. * **C. Brain abscess:** This is the most common **intracranial** complication of CSOM, but it is far less frequent than mastoiditis. The most common site is the temporal lobe, followed by the cerebellum. * **D. Meningitis:** This is the most common intracranial complication of **Acute** Otitis Media (AOM), but it ranks behind brain abscesses in the context of chronic disease. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common complication overall:** Mastoiditis. * **Most common intracranial complication:** Brain Abscess (Temporal lobe > Cerebellum). * **Most common extracranial complication:** Subperiosteal (Post-auricular) abscess. * **Most common cause of facial nerve palsy in ENT:** Bell’s Palsy; however, CSOM is a significant surgical cause. * **Pathways of spread:** Infection spreads via preformed pathways, anatomical dehiscence, or retrograde thrombophlebitis.

Question 262: Which one of the following is characteristic of tuberculous otitis media?

A. Marginal perforation of tympanic membrane
B. Multiple perforations of pars tensa (Correct Answer)
C. Large central perforation of tympanic membrane
D. Attic perforation

Explanation: **Explanation:** Tuberculous Otitis Media (TOM) is a chronic granulomatous infection of the middle ear, typically secondary to pulmonary tuberculosis. **Why Option B is Correct:** The hallmark of TOM is the formation of multiple tubercles in the submucosa of the pars tensa. These tubercles eventually caseate and break down, leading to **multiple small perforations** in the tympanic membrane. Over time, these small perforations may coalesce into a single, large, irregular perforation. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (Marginal perforation):** These are typically associated with **cholesteatoma** (Attico-antral type of Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media - CSOM). They involve the annulus of the tympanic membrane. * **Option C (Large central perforation):** While a large perforation can occur in the late stages of TOM, it is more characteristic of **Tubotympanic CSOM** (Safe type). The "multiple" nature is the specific diagnostic clue for TB. * **Option D (Attic perforation):** These occur in the pars flaccida and are highly suggestive of **cholesteatoma** or primary attic retraction pockets. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Triad of TOM:** 1. Painless otorrhoea (scanty and foul-smelling), 2. Multiple perforations, 3. Profound hearing loss (disproportionate to the clinical findings). * **Facial Nerve Palsy:** TOM is a known cause of early-onset facial nerve paralysis due to the osteomyelitic nature of the infection. * **Appearance:** The middle ear mucosa often appears pale and "apple-jelly" like due to exuberant granulations. * **Diagnosis:** Confirmed by identifying *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* on Ziehl-Neelsen stain or culture of the ear discharge/granulation tissue.

Question 263: A patient with chronic suppurative otitis media presents with diplopia on looking towards the left side. What is the most probable cause?

A. Right lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
B. Right petrositis
C. Left petrositis (Correct Answer)
D. Left lateral sinus thrombophlebitis

Explanation: ### Explanation **1. Why Left Petrositis is Correct:** The patient presents with **diplopia on looking towards the left side**, which indicates a **left-sided Abducens nerve (CN VI) palsy**. The lateral rectus muscle, supplied by CN VI, is responsible for abduction of the eye. In the context of Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM), infection can spread to the apex of the petrous temporal bone, a condition known as **Petrositis**. The petrous apex is anatomically related to two vital structures located in **Dorello’s Canal** (under the petrosphenoidal ligament): * **Abducens Nerve (CN VI):** Compression leads to lateral rectus palsy and horizontal diplopia. * **Trigeminal Ganglion (CN V):** Irritation leads to retro-orbital pain. When these symptoms occur alongside ear discharge, it is known as **Gradenigo’s Triad**: 1. Persistent ear discharge (Otorrhea) 2. Retro-orbital pain (Trigeminal neuralgia) 3. Diplopia/Abducens palsy (CN VI palsy) **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Right Petrositis:** This would cause diplopia when looking towards the *right* side (Right CN VI palsy). * **Lateral Sinus Thrombophlebitis (Right or Left):** This typically presents with "picket-fence" fever, headache, and signs of raised intracranial pressure (Griesinger's sign). While it can cause generalized CN VI palsy due to increased ICP (false localizing sign), it does not typically present as an isolated focal palsy related to the side of the ear infection in the same specific manner as Gradenigo’s Triad. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gradenigo’s Triad:** Otorrhea + CN V pain + CN VI palsy. * **Dorello’s Canal:** The specific anatomical site where CN VI is compressed in petrositis. * **Investigation of Choice:** HRCT Temporal Bone (shows clouding/erosion of petrous apex) or MRI (Gadolinium enhancement). * **Treatment:** Intensive IV antibiotics and cortical/radical mastoidectomy with drainage of the apex.

Question 264: Otic barotrauma results due to -

A. Ascent in air
B. Descent in air (Correct Answer)
C. Linear acceleration
D. Sudden acceleration

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Otic Barotrauma** (Aerotitis Media) occurs due to a failure of the Eustachian tube to equalize pressure between the middle ear and the external environment. **1. Why "Descent in Air" is correct:** During descent (e.g., an airplane landing or deep-sea diving), the atmospheric pressure increases rapidly. This creates a **relative negative pressure** in the middle ear compared to the outside environment. This negative pressure causes the tympanic membrane to be sucked inward and leads to the collapse of the cartilaginous portion of the Eustachian tube (the "locking" phenomenon). If the pressure differential exceeds 90 mmHg, the Eustachian tube cannot be opened by the tensor veli palatini muscle, leading to mucosal edema, hemotympanum, or even tympanic membrane rupture. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Ascent in air:** During ascent, atmospheric pressure decreases. The middle ear pressure becomes relatively positive, which naturally forces the Eustachian tube open to vent air into the nasopharynx. This is a passive and much easier process than opening during descent. * **Linear/Sudden acceleration:** These are physiological stimuli for the **otolith organs** (utricle and saccule) and the **semicircular canals**, respectively. They relate to vestibular function and balance, not middle ear pressure regulation. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Locking" Effect:** Occurs when the pressure difference is >90 mmHg; at this point, Valsalva or swallowing cannot open the tube. * **Prevention:** Frequent swallowing, chewing gum, or performing the **Valsalva maneuver** during descent helps maintain patency. * **Teed’s Classification:** Used to grade the severity of middle ear barotrauma based on otoscopic findings (ranging from Grade 0: symptoms but no findings, to Grade 5: free blood in the middle ear). * **Contraindication:** Patients with active Upper Respiratory Tract Infections (URTI) should avoid flying as mucosal edema prevents pressure equalization.

Question 265: Which of the following statements is not true about otosclerosis?

A. Hearing is better in louder conditions (paracusis of Willis)
B. The Eustachian tube is always abnormal (Correct Answer)
C. The tympanic membrane is typically normal
D. Bilateral progressive conductive deafness

Explanation: **Explanation:** Otosclerosis is a primary metabolic bone disease of the otic capsule characterized by the replacement of normal bone with vascular spongy bone, most commonly involving the footplate of the stapes. **Why Option B is the correct answer (False statement):** Otosclerosis is a disease of the **middle ear ossicles and the otic capsule**, not the middle ear cleft or the nasopharynx. The **Eustachian tube function remains perfectly normal** in patients with otosclerosis. Abnormal Eustachian tube function is typically associated with conditions like Otitis Media with Effusion (OME) or Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM). **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A (Paracusis Willisii):** This is a classic clinical feature where patients hear better in noisy surroundings. This occurs because background noise causes normal-hearing people to speak louder, and the patient’s conductive loss filters out the low-frequency background noise. * **Option C (Normal Tympanic Membrane):** In most cases, the TM is normal and mobile. Occasionally, a reddish hue (**Schwartze sign**) may be seen over the promontory, indicating active congestion (otospongiosis). * **Option D (Bilateral Progressive Conductive Deafness):** Otosclerosis typically presents as a painless, progressive conductive hearing loss. It is bilateral in about 70-80% of cases. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Carhart’s Notch:** A characteristic dip in the bone conduction threshold at **2000 Hz**. * **Gelle’s Test:** Negative (indicates stapes fixation). * **Tympanometry:** Typically shows an **As type** curve (reduced compliance due to stiffness). * **Treatment of choice:** Stapedotomy (most common) or Stapedectomy. * **Medical management:** Sodium fluoride (used to mature active foci).

Question 266: What is the treatment of choice in central perforation?

A. Modified mastoidectomy
B. Tympanoplasty
C. Myringoplasty
D. Conservative management (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The treatment of choice for a central perforation depends on its etiology and clinical status. In the context of a **dry, central perforation** (often traumatic or a quiescent stage of CSOM), the initial management is always **conservative**. 1. **Why Conservative Management is correct:** Most traumatic central perforations heal spontaneously within 3–6 months if kept dry and free of infection. In cases of Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM) - Mucosal type, the first step is to achieve a "dry ear" through aural toilet and topical antibiotics. Surgery is only contemplated once the ear has been dry for a minimum of 6–12 weeks. 2. **Myringoplasty vs. Tympanoplasty:** While these are surgical treatments for central perforation, they are not the *initial* treatment of choice. **Myringoplasty** (Option C) is the surgical repair of the tympanic membrane alone, while **Tympanoplasty** (Option B) involves repair of the membrane plus ossicular reconstruction. These are indicated only if the perforation fails to heal spontaneously or if there is a persistent conductive hearing loss. 3. **Modified Radical Mastoidectomy (Option A):** This is indicated for **Attico-antral disease** (unsafe CSOM with cholesteatoma) to exteriorize disease, not for simple central perforations (safe CSOM). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Central Perforation:** Defined as a perforation where there is a rim of residual tympanic membrane present circumferentially (associated with "Safe" or Mucosal CSOM). * **Traumatic Perforation:** 90% heal spontaneously. Avoid ear drops and water entry. * **Prerequisite for Surgery:** The ear must be dry for at least 6 weeks before performing a Myringoplasty to ensure a higher graft take-up rate. * **Graft of Choice:** Temporalis fascia (due to its low metabolic rate and proximity to the incision).

Question 267: Direction of water jet while doing syringing of ear should be:

A. Anteroinferior
B. Posterosuperior (Correct Answer)
C. Anterosuperior
D. Posteroinferior

Explanation: **Explanation:** The primary objective of ear syringing is to remove wax or a foreign body using the **"piston effect"** of water pressure. **Why Posterosuperior is Correct:** The external auditory canal (EAC) is not a straight tube; it has a natural curvature. By directing the water jet toward the **posterosuperior wall** of the canal, the water travels along the roof, reaches the tympanic membrane, and reflects back behind the wax bolus. This builds up pressure behind the obstruction, pushing it outward (the "piston effect"). This direction also follows the natural anatomy of the canal when the pinna is pulled upwards and backwards (in adults), minimizing the risk of direct trauma to the tympanic membrane. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Anteroinferior/Anterosuperior:** The anterior part of the canal has a "recess" (the anterior sulcus) near the drum. Directing water here can trap the wax further or cause the water to strike the drum directly, increasing the risk of perforation or pain. * **Posteroinferior:** This direction is less efficient at creating the necessary back-pressure and may simply push the wax deeper into the bony portion of the canal. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Temperature:** Water must be at **body temperature (37°C)**. If it is too cold or too hot, it induces the **caloric reflex**, leading to vertigo and nystagmus. * **Contraindications:** Never syringe if there is a history of **tympanic membrane perforation**, previous ear surgery, or an organic foreign body (like a seed) that might swell. * **Complications:** The most common complication is **injury to the EAC skin**, followed by tympanic membrane perforation and otitis externa.

Question 268: Aminoglycoside class of drugs causes hearing loss by damaging which structure?

A. Inner hair cells of the basal turn
B. Outer hair cells of the basal turn (Correct Answer)
C. Inner hair cells of the apical turn
D. Outer hair cells of the apical turn

Explanation: **Explanation:** Aminoglycosides (e.g., Gentamicin, Amikacin, Neomycin) are notorious for their vestibulocochlear toxicity. The primary mechanism of ototoxicity involves the generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) within the inner ear, leading to permanent damage to the sensory epithelium. **Why Option B is correct:** Aminoglycosides selectively target the **Outer Hair Cells (OHCs)** before affecting the Inner Hair Cells (IHCs). Furthermore, these drugs follow a specific anatomical gradient: they damage the **basal turn** of the cochlea first. Because the basal turn is responsible for perceiving high-frequency sounds, aminoglycoside-induced hearing loss typically begins as high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Options A & C:** Inner hair cells are generally more resilient than outer hair cells. While IHCs can be damaged in severe or prolonged toxicity, they are not the primary or initial site of injury. * **Option D:** The apical turn of the cochlea processes low-frequency sounds. In aminoglycoside toxicity, the apex is affected only after significant damage has already occurred at the base. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mnemonic:** "A" for Aminoglycosides = "A" for **A**ttacks the **B**ase (High frequency). * **Specific Toxicities:** * **Kanamycin, Amikacin, Neomycin:** Primarily **Cochleotoxic** (Hearing loss). * **Gentamicin, Streptomycin:** Primarily **Vestibulotoxic** (Vertigo/Ataxia). * **Genetic Predisposition:** Mutations in the mitochondrial **12S rRNA gene (m.1555A>G)** make individuals hypersensitive to aminoglycoside-induced deafness, even with a single dose. * **Monitoring:** High-frequency audiometry is the earliest clinical tool to detect damage.

Question 269: Referred otalgia from the base of the tongue or oropharynx is carried by which nerve?

A. Cranial nerve V
B. Cranial nerve VII
C. Cranial nerve IX (Correct Answer)
D. Cranial nerve X

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve)**. **1. Why it is correct:** Referred otalgia occurs because the ear shares a common sensory nerve supply with various structures in the head and neck. The **Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)** provides sensory innervation to the **base of the tongue, oropharynx, palatine tonsils, and the nasopharynx**. It also supplies the middle ear via its tympanic branch (**Jacobson’s nerve**). Due to this shared pathway, pathologies in the oropharynx (e.g., tonsillitis, peritonsillar abscess, or post-tonsillectomy pain) are perceived as pain in the ear. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal):** Specifically the mandibular branch (V3), carries referred pain from the **teeth, temporomandibular joint (TMJ), and anterior 2/3 of the tongue** via the auriculotemporal nerve. * **Cranial Nerve VII (Facial):** Supplies a small portion of the external auditory canal and concha. It is rarely a source of referred pain but is involved in primary otalgia (e.g., Herpes Zoster Oticus). * **Cranial Nerve X (Vagus):** Its auricular branch (**Arnold’s nerve**) carries referred pain from the **larynx, hypopharynx, and esophagus**. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Trotter’s Triad:** Associated with Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma; includes conductive hearing loss, palatal palsy, and ipsilateral neuralgia (CN V). * **Eagle’s Syndrome:** Elongated styloid process irritating CN IX, causing referred otalgia and throat pain. * **Rule of Thumb:** In an elderly patient with a normal ear examination but persistent otalgia, always rule out malignancy of the upper aerodigestive tract (Base of tongue/Larynx).

Question 270: Which of the following is NOT true about glomus jugulare tumors?

A. They are common in females.
B. They can cause sensorineural deafness.
C. They are a disease of infancy. (Correct Answer)
D. They can invade the labyrinth, petrous pyramid, and mastoid.

Explanation: **Explanation:** Glomus jugulare tumors (now more accurately termed **Paragangliomas**) are slow-growing, highly vascular tumors arising from the paraganglia located in the adventitia of the dome of the jugular bulb. **Why Option C is the correct answer:** Glomus jugulare is **not** a disease of infancy. It typically presents in the **4th to 6th decades of life** (middle age). Finding such a tumor in an infant would be extremely rare and atypical. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A (Common in females):** This is a true statement. There is a significant female predilection, with a female-to-male ratio of approximately **3:1 to 6:1**. * **Option B (Can cause sensorineural deafness):** While conductive hearing loss is more common (due to middle ear involvement), sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) occurs if the tumor invades the **inner ear (labyrinth)** or compresses the **8th cranial nerve**. * **Option D (Can invade labyrinth, petrous pyramid, and mastoid):** These tumors are locally invasive. They follow the path of least resistance but can erode bone, spreading into the mastoid air cells, the petrous apex, and the bony labyrinth. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Pulsatile Tinnitus:** The most common presenting symptom (often described as a "heartbeat in the ear"). * **Brown’s Sign:** Pulsation of the tumor seen on otoscopy that ceases when the ear canal pressure is raised above systolic pressure using a Siegle’s speculum. * **Aquino’s Sign:** Blanching of the tympanic mass upon carotid artery compression. * **Phelps’ Sign:** Loss of the bony plate between the jugular bulb and the carotid canal (seen on CT). * **Salt and Pepper Appearance:** Classic MRI finding (T2 weighted) due to high vascularity and flow voids. * **Treatment:** Surgery (for small tumors) or Radiotherapy (for large/inoperable tumors). Pre-operative embolization is often used to reduce bleeding.

Practice by Chapter

Tympanic Membrane Perforation

Practice Questions

Cholesteatoma

Practice Questions

Tympanoplasty Techniques

Practice Questions

Ossicular Chain Reconstruction

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Mastoidectomy

Practice Questions

Stapedectomy

Practice Questions

Implantable Hearing Devices

Practice Questions

Congenital Aural Atresia

Practice Questions

Otologic Trauma

Practice Questions

Glomus Tumors

Practice Questions

Facial Nerve Decompression

Practice Questions

Rehabilitative Audiology

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Otology — MCQs

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