Labyrinthitis — MCQs
Anti-vertigo drug which modulates calcium channels and has a prominent labyrinthine suppressant property is:
Destruction of the right labyrinth causes nystagmus to:
Which drug is used in treatment of vertigo?
Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of vertigo?
Most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)
Which of the following is the most common morbidity associated with Meniere's disease?
In a patient with right vestibular neuronitis, what will be the finding on the head impulse test?
What is the diagnosis shown in the following image?
Best surgery to relieve intractable vertigo in a Meniere's disease patient with profound hearing loss is?
The following test is useful for diagnosis of all except:
Labyrinthitis Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Anti-vertigo drug which modulates calcium channels and has a prominent labyrinthine suppressant property is:
- A. Cyproheptadine
- B. Cinnarizine (Correct Answer)
- C. Clemastine
- D. Cetirizine
Explanation: ***Cinnarizine*** - It is a **selective peripheral vestibular suppressant** that works by inhibiting calcium influx into the vestibular sensory cells. - Its **calcium channel blocking** properties help to reduce the excitability of vestibular organs, thereby alleviating vertigo symptoms. *Cyproheptadine* - This is a **first-generation antihistamine** with anticholinergic and antiserotonergic properties, primarily used for allergy and appetite stimulation. - It does not primarily act as a calcium channel modulator or have significant direct labyrinthine suppressant effects for vertigo. *Clemastine* - This is another **first-generation antihistamine** with anticholinergic effects, primarily used for allergic reactions [1]. - Its main action is blocking histamine H1 receptors, and it lacks the specific calcium channel modulating and vestibular suppressant properties relevant for vertigo treatment. *Cetirizine* - This is a **second-generation antihistamine** that selectively blocks H1 receptors and has minimal sedative effects [2]. - While it can be used for allergic conditions, it does not possess the calcium channel blocking or potent labyrinthine suppressant action required for effective vertigo management.
Question 2: Destruction of the right labyrinth causes nystagmus to:
- A. Rotatory nystagmus
- B. No nystagmus
- C. Right side
- D. Left side (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Left side*** - Destruction of the right labyrinth leads to a **reduction in tonic firing** from the right vestibular nerve. This creates an **imbalance** where the left labyrinth's signals are now relatively stronger. - The brain interprets this imbalance as if the head is turning to the left, causing **vestibulo-ocular reflex** to induce nystagmus with its **fast phase** to the left (away from the side of the lesion and towards the relatively intact labyrinth). *Rotatory nystagmus* - While nystagmus can have a rotatory component, the predominant direction of acceleration or slow phase will be either horizontal or vertical and indicates the **direction of the lesion** or excitation. - Describing nystagmus purely as "rotatory" does not specify the **direction of the fast component** in relation to the lesion. *No nystagmus* - **Unilateral destruction** of a labyrinth creates an acute imbalance in vestibular input, which **always results in nystagmus**. - Nystagmus is a key clinical sign of acute **vestibular dysfunction**, as the brain perceives an ongoing head movement that isn't occurring. *Right side* - A fast phase directed towards the right would imply either **excitation** of the right labyrinth or **destruction** of the left labyrinth. - In this case, destruction of the right labyrinth leads to nystagmus with its **fast phase away from the lesion**, meaning to the left.
Question 3: Which drug is used in treatment of vertigo?
- A. Metoclopramide
- B. Cisapride
- C. Cinnarizine (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Cinnarizine***- **Cinnarizine** is an antihistamine and calcium channel blocker known for its anti-vertigo and anti-emetic properties [2].- It works by suppressing the **vestibular system** and reducing the excitability of sensory hair cells in the inner ear [1].*Metoclopramide*- **Metoclopramide** is a **dopamine receptor antagonist** primarily used as an anti-emetic and for treating gastroparesis.- While it can alleviate nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, it does not directly treat the underlying sensation of **vertigo** itself by acting on the vestibular system.*Cisapride*- **Cisapride** is a **serotonin 5-HT4 receptor agonist** that acts as a gastroprokinetic agent, enhancing gastrointestinal motility [3].- It is not used for vertigo and has been associated with serious **cardiac arrhythmias**, leading to restricted use in many countries [3].*None of the options*- This option is incorrect because **Cinnarizine** is a well-established medication used in the treatment of vertigo [2].- Other options are not primarily indicated for vertigo treatment.
Question 4: Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of vertigo?
- A. Sense of pressure in the ear
- B. Infection of the inner ear
- C. Subjective sense of imbalance
- D. Sensation of spinning or whirling (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Sensation of spinning or whirling*** - Vertigo is medically defined as an **illusion of movement**, typically a sensation that the patient or their surroundings are spinning, rotating, or whirling. - This is the **hallmark feature** that distinguishes vertigo from other forms of dizziness according to **Harrison's Principles** and standard ENT textbooks. - The **vestibular system** provides spatial orientation, and when disrupted (as in **BPPV, Meniere's disease, vestibular neuritis**), it creates this false perception of rotational movement. - The spinning sensation can be subjective (patient feels they are moving) or objective (environment appears to move). *Incorrect: Subjective sense of imbalance* - This describes **disequilibrium** or nonspecific dizziness, NOT vertigo specifically. - Imbalance without rotational sensation suggests different pathologies like **cerebellar dysfunction, proprioceptive loss**, or multisensory deficit. - While vertigo can cause secondary imbalance, the **defining feature** is the illusory movement, not just imbalance alone. *Incorrect: Sense of pressure in the ear* - Aural fullness or ear pressure is an **associated symptom** in conditions like **Meniere's disease** or **eustachian tube dysfunction**. - This is not the definition of vertigo but rather a **concurrent symptom** that may accompany vestibular disorders. *Incorrect: Infection of the inner ear* - Inner ear infections like **labyrinthitis** or **vestibular neuritis** are **etiologies** (causes) that can produce vertigo. - An infection is a pathological process, not the definition of the symptom itself—many non-infectious causes also produce vertigo.
Question 5: Most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)
- A. Labyrinthitis
- B. Meniere's disease
- C. Presbycusis (Correct Answer)
- D. Vestibular Schwannoma
Explanation: ***Presbycusis*** - **Presbycusis**, or age-related hearing loss, is the most common cause of **sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)**, affecting a significant portion of the elderly population. - It typically results from **degenerative changes** in the inner ear, specifically the hair cells and nerve fibers, leading to a gradual, symmetrical, high-frequency SNHL. *Labyrinthitis* - **Labyrinthitis** is an inflammation of the inner ear that can cause sudden SNHL, often accompanied by **vertigo** and **tinnitus**. - While it causes SNHL, it is an acute condition and not the most common overall cause, especially when considering the prevalence of age-related hearing loss. *Meniere's disease* - **Meniere's disease** is characterized by recurrent episodes of **vertigo, fluctuating low-frequency SNHL, tinnitus**, and aural fullness. - It is a specific condition causing SNHL, but its prevalence is much lower than presbycusis, making it a less common overall cause. *Vestibular Schwannoma* - A **vestibular schwannoma** (acoustic neuroma) is a benign tumor that arises from the Schwann cells of the **vestibulocochlear nerve**. - It can cause **progressive unilateral SNHL**, tinnitus, and balance issues, but it is a relatively rare condition compared to presbycusis.
Question 6: Which of the following is the most common morbidity associated with Meniere's disease?
- A. Permanent hearing loss (Correct Answer)
- B. Secondary development of a craniopharyngioma
- C. Chronic otitis media
- D. Chronic otitis externa
Explanation: ***Permanent hearing loss*** - **Meniere's disease** is characterized by episodes of **vertigo**, **tinnitus**, ear fullness, and fluctuating hearing loss, which often progresses to permanent hearing loss over time. - The recurrent episodes of **endolymphatic hydrops** cause cumulative damage to the **cochlea** and **vestibular apparatus**, leading to irreversible sensorineural hearing loss. *Chronic otitis media* - This is an **infection** and **inflammation of the middle ear**, typically leading to tympanic membrane perforation or cholesteatoma. - It is distinct from Meniere's disease, which is a disorder of the **inner ear** with no direct pathological link to middle ear infections. *Chronic otitis externa* - This condition involves **inflammation of the external ear canal** and is usually caused by bacterial or fungal infections. - It is an outer ear condition and bears no etiological or symptomatic relationship to the inner ear pathology of Meniere's disease. *Secondary development of a craniopharyngioma* - A **craniopharyngioma** is a benign brain tumor arising from Rathke's pouch cells, typically located near the **pituitary gland**. - There is no known direct association or increased risk of developing a craniopharyngioma in patients with Meniere's disease.
Question 7: In a patient with right vestibular neuronitis, what will be the finding on the head impulse test?
- A. Head turned to right, corrective saccade to the left (Correct Answer)
- B. Head turned to left, corrective saccade to the right
- C. Head turned to right, no corrective saccade
- D. Head turned to left, no corrective saccade
Explanation: ***Head turned to right, corrective saccade to the left*** - In **right vestibular neuronitis**, the right vestibular apparatus is impaired, affecting the **vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR)** on that side. - During the head impulse test, when the head is rapidly turned **to the right** (toward the affected side), the impaired VOR cannot maintain eye fixation on the target. - The eyes initially move **with the head** (to the right), then a visible **corrective saccade** (catch-up saccade) brings them **back to the left** to refixate on the target. - This corrective saccade is the **hallmark positive finding** in head impulse test for right vestibular dysfunction. *Head turned to left, corrective saccade to the right* - This would indicate a **left vestibular lesion**, not right vestibular neuronitis. - When turning the head to the left with left vestibular dysfunction, a corrective saccade to the right would be observed. *Head turned to right, no corrective saccade* - This would indicate **normal VOR function** on the right side. - A normal response shows no corrective saccade because the eyes maintain fixation throughout the head turn. - This is the **opposite** of what is expected in right vestibular neuronitis. *Head turned to left, no corrective saccade* - This indicates normal VOR function on the left side. - In right vestibular neuronitis, turning the head to the left (away from the affected side) typically shows **normal VOR** with no corrective saccade needed.
Question 8: What is the diagnosis shown in the following image?
- A. Hyperinsulinism
- B. Conductive hearing defect
- C. Perichondritis (Correct Answer)
- D. Mucopolysaccharidosis
Explanation: ***Perichondritis*** - The image exhibits signs of **inflammation and swelling** of the external ear, consistent with **perichondritis**, an infection of the tissue surrounding the ear cartilage. - This condition can lead to **redness**, **pain**, and fluid collection (abscess formation) that distorts the ear's normal architecture. - Typically spares the **lobule** (which lacks cartilage) and presents as an **acute inflammatory condition**. *Hyperinsulinism* - **Hyperinsulinism** is a metabolic disorder characterized by excessive insulin secretion and has no relationship to external ear pathology. - This is not an appropriate option for an acute inflammatory ear condition shown in clinical images. *Conductive hearing defect* - A **conductive hearing defect** is a functional diagnosis, not a structural/pathological diagnosis visible on examination. - It refers to problems in sound transmission through the **external or middle ear**, but is not itself visible as inflammation or swelling. - The image shows an **acute inflammatory condition**, not a hearing disorder. *Mucopolysaccharidosis* - **Mucopolysaccharidoses** are lysosomal storage disorders that can cause progressive dysmorphic facial features, including ear structure changes. - However, these present with **chronic, diffuse structural changes** rather than acute inflammation and swelling. - The acute inflammatory presentation in the image is inconsistent with this genetic storage disorder.
Question 9: Best surgery to relieve intractable vertigo in a Meniere's disease patient with profound hearing loss is?
- A. Vestibular neurectomy
- B. Endolymphatic sac decompression
- C. Cochleosacculotomy
- D. Surgical Labyrinthectomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Surgical Labyrinthectomy** * **Labyrinthectomy** is the most effective surgical option for intractable vertigo in Meniere's disease when the affected ear also has **profound hearing loss**, as it completely ablates the vestibular function of the inner ear. * Since the patient already has profound hearing loss, the loss of residual hearing from this procedure is not a significant concern, making it an ideal choice for **vertigo control**. *Vestibular neurectomy* * **Vestibular neurectomy** is a highly effective procedure for intractable vertigo, as it aims to selectively cut the vestibular nerve while preserving hearing. * However, it is a more complex surgical approach compared to labyrinthectomy and is typically reserved for patients with **serviceable hearing** that they wish to preserve. *Endolymphatic sac decompression* * **Endolymphatic sac decompression** is a surgical procedure designed to improve the reabsorption of endolymph, thereby reducing the pressure and symptoms of Meniere's disease, including vertigo and hearing loss. * While it may improve vertigo symptoms, it is less consistently effective than ablative procedures for intractable vertigo and its primary benefit is to **preserve hearing**, which is not a priority in a patient with profound hearing loss. *Cochleosacculotomy* * **Cochleosacculotomy** involves making a small opening in the labyrinth to drain endolymph, aiming to reduce endolymphatic hydrops and alleviate vertigo. * Though it can help with vertigo, it carries a high risk of causing complete hearing loss in the operated ear and offers less reliable vertigo control compared to a labyrinthectomy, especially when profound hearing loss is already present.
Question 10: The following test is useful for diagnosis of all except:
- A. Ossicular discontinuity
- B. Otosclerosis
- C. Serous otitis media
- D. Postmeningitis deafness (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Postmeningitis deafness*** - The image illustrates a **tympanometer**, which primarily assesses the function of the **middle ear** and **eardrum mobility** within the context of air pressure changes. - **Postmeningitis deafness** typically results from **sensorineural hearing loss** due to damage to the **cochlea** or **auditory nerve**, which is a condition of the inner ear and cannot be directly diagnosed by tympanometry. *Ossicular discontinuity* - This condition involves a break or separation in the **ossicular chain**, leading to excessive mobility of the tympanic membrane. - Tympanometry in **ossicular discontinuity** typically shows a **Type Ad tympanogram**, characterized by abnormally high compliance due to the lack of resistance from the damaged ossicles. *Otosclerosis* - **Otosclerosis** involves abnormal bone growth around the **stapes** footplate, leading to its fixation and reduced mobility. - Tympanometry in otosclerosis typically yields a **Type As tympanogram**, indicating abnormally low compliance or a shallow peak. *Serous otitis media* - Also known as **otitis media with effusion**, this condition involves the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear without signs of acute infection. - Tympanometry in **serous otitis media** typically presents with a **Type B tympanogram**, characterized by a flat curve due to reduced or absent eardrum mobility caused by the fluid.
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