Neck Dissection Principles — MCQs
Anterior Mediastinal nodes are included in which level of lymph nodes?
A nerve injured during axillary lymph node dissection leads to loss of sensation in the medial side of the arm. Which nerve is injured?
A patient has carcinoma on the right side of anterior 2/3rd of the tongue with lymph node of size 4cm in level 3 on the left side of the neck. Stage of the disease is
Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?
The CT thorax image shows:
Most common complication of mastectomy is:
Mark the false statement regarding Hürthle cell carcinoma:
Secondaries in the neck with no obvious primary malignancy is most often due to which of the following?
What clinical appearance is associated with bilateral TMJ ankylosis?
Which of the following is/are a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy?
Neck Dissection Principles Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Anterior Mediastinal nodes are included in which level of lymph nodes?
- A. I
- B. V
- C. VI (Correct Answer)
- D. VII
Explanation: ***VI*** - Level VI lymph nodes are the **prevascular and retrotracheal nodes** located in the **anterior mediastinum** [1]. - According to the **IASLC (International Association for the Study of Lung Cancer)** lymph node mapping system, Level 6 nodes are specifically classified as anterior mediastinal nodes [1]. - These include nodes anterior to the superior vena cava and ascending aorta, and nodes between the trachea and esophagus [1]. *I* - Level I lymph nodes are located in the **low cervical, supraclavicular, and sternal notch** regions. - These are **extra-thoracic nodes** and not part of the mediastinal compartments. - They represent the highest mediastinal, supraclavicular, and sternal notch nodes [1]. *V* - Level V lymph nodes are the **subaortic (aortopulmonary window)** nodes [1]. - These are located in the space between the **aorta and pulmonary artery**, lateral to the ligamentum arteriosum [1]. - While mediastinal, they are specifically in the aortopulmonary window, not classified as anterior mediastinal. *VII* - Level VII lymph nodes are the **subcarinal nodes** located below the carina in the **middle mediastinum** [1]. - These nodes are positioned in the space beneath where the trachea bifurcates into the main bronchi [1]. - They are classified as middle mediastinal nodes, not anterior mediastinal nodes.
Question 2: A nerve injured during axillary lymph node dissection leads to loss of sensation in the medial side of the arm. Which nerve is injured?
- A. Long thoracic nerve
- B. Intercostobrachial nerve (Correct Answer)
- C. Medial pectoral nerve
- D. Accessory nerve
Explanation: ***Intercostobrachial nerve*** - The **intercostobrachial nerve** (T2) is the nerve most commonly injured during **axillary lymph node dissection** - It provides **sensory innervation to the medial side of the upper arm**, specifically the skin over the medial and posterior aspects of the arm [1] - This nerve arises from the **lateral cutaneous branch of the second intercostal nerve** and crosses the axilla to reach the arm [1] - Injury during axillary surgery results in **numbness or paresthesia** in the medial upper arm region, which is a well-recognized complication of breast cancer surgery with axillary node dissection [1] - Studies show **30-80% of patients** undergoing axillary dissection experience intercostobrachial nerve injury *Long thoracic nerve* - The **long thoracic nerve** (C5-C7) innervates the **serratus anterior muscle**, which is crucial for scapular protraction and rotation - Damage to this nerve causes **"winged scapula"**, where the scapula protrudes posteriorly - This is a **motor nerve**, not sensory, so injury does not result in sensory deficits in the arm *Medial pectoral nerve* - The **medial pectoral nerve** (C8-T1) primarily innervates the **pectoralis major** and **pectoralis minor** muscles [1] - This is a **motor nerve** playing a role in muscle function rather than sensation [1] - Injury would result in weakness of these muscles, not sensory loss *Accessory nerve* - The **accessory nerve** (cranial nerve XI) innervates the **sternocleidomastoid** and **trapezius muscles** - This nerve is located in the **posterior triangle of the neck**, not in the axilla - Injury would lead to weakness in shrugging the shoulders or turning the head, not sensory loss in the arm during axillary dissection
Question 3: A patient has carcinoma on the right side of anterior 2/3rd of the tongue with lymph node of size 4cm in level 3 on the left side of the neck. Stage of the disease is
- A. N0
- B. N3
- C. N2 (Correct Answer)
- D. N1
Explanation: ***N2 (Correct Answer)*** - The patient has a **contralateral lymph node** (left side neck node with right-sided primary tumor) measuring **4 cm**. - According to TNM 8th edition, this classifies as **N2c**: bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes ≤6 cm without extranodal extension (ENE-). - N2c is a subcategory of N2, making this the correct answer. - The 4 cm size is within the N2 range (>3 cm but ≤6 cm) and the contralateral location specifically indicates N2c. *N0 (Incorrect)* - **N0** indicates no regional lymph node metastasis. - This is clearly incorrect as the patient has a clinically evident 4 cm lymph node in level 3. *N3 (Incorrect)* - **N3a** requires a lymph node **>6 cm** in size, OR - **N3b** requires evidence of **extranodal extension (ENE+)**. - Since this node is 4 cm (not >6 cm) and there is no mention of extranodal extension, N3 is incorrect. *N1 (Incorrect)* - **N1** is defined as a single **ipsilateral** lymph node ≤3 cm without ENE. - This patient fails N1 criteria on two counts: the node is **contralateral** (not ipsilateral) and measures **4 cm** (exceeds 3 cm limit).
Question 4: Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?
- A. I-IV
- B. I-V (Correct Answer)
- C. I-III
- D. II-VI
Explanation: ***I-V*** - A modified radical neck dissection typically removes lymph nodes from levels **I through V**, along with preservation of one or more non-lymphatic structures (sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, or spinal accessory nerve). - This extensive dissection addresses potential metastasis to these node groups from head and neck cancers, crucial for adequate oncologic clearance while aiming for functional preservation. *I-III* - This limited dissection would likely be insufficient for many head and neck cancers, as spread often extends beyond level III. - It would miss potential metastases in the lower jugular and posterior triangle nodes, increasing the risk of recurrence. *I-IV* - This dissection omits **level V**, which includes the posterior triangle nodes, a common site for metastatic spread, especially for cancers of the oropharynx, hypopharynx, and thyroid. - Excluding level V would be considered an incomplete radical or modified radical neck dissection in many clinical scenarios. *II-VI* - This option incorrectly excludes lymph nodes at **level I** (submental and submandibular nodes), which are critical draining sites for many oral cavity cancers. - Including level VI (anterior compartment nodes) is typically part of a central compartment neck dissection, often performed for thyroid cancer, but is usually not part of a standard modified radical neck dissection for other head and neck primaries unless specifically indicated.
Question 5: The CT thorax image shows:
- A. Descending aortic dissection
- B. Aortic aneurysm
- C. Ascending aortic dissection (Correct Answer)
- D. Aortic coarctation
Explanation: ***Ascending aortic dissection*** - The CT image shows a **classic intimal flap** separating the true and false lumens in the ascending aorta, which is the hallmark feature of an aortic dissection. - This represents a **Stanford Type A dissection** involving the ascending aorta, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring **immediate surgical intervention** due to high risk of complications including rupture, cardiac tamponade, and acute aortic regurgitation. - The presence of the intimal flap creating two distinct channels (true and false lumens) is pathognomonic for dissection. *Descending aortic dissection* - While the intimal flap is characteristic of dissection, the image specifically shows involvement of the **ascending aorta** (proximal to the left subclavian artery), not the descending thoracic aorta. - Descending aortic dissections (Stanford Type B) are typically managed **medically** with blood pressure control, unlike ascending dissections which require surgery. *Aortic aneurysm* - An **aortic aneurysm** represents focal dilatation of the aortic wall (>50% increase in diameter) without separation of the intimal layers. - While aneurysms can be a risk factor for dissection, the key finding here is the **intimal flap dividing the lumen**, which defines dissection rather than simple aneurysmal dilatation. - The image does not show the uniform circumferential enlargement typical of aneurysms. *Aortic coarctation* - **Aortic coarctation** is a congenital narrowing of the aorta, typically located at the aortic isthmus (near the ligamentum arteriosum), distal to the left subclavian artery. - CT would show focal narrowing with pre-stenotic dilatation and collateral vessel formation, not an intimal flap. - This is a completely different pathology without the characteristic dissection flap seen in this image.
Question 6: Most common complication of mastectomy is:
- A. Seroma (Correct Answer)
- B. Hemorrhage
- C. Infection
- D. Lymphedema
Explanation: ***Seroma*** - **Seroma** formation is the most common complication after mastectomy, involving the accumulation of serous fluid in the surgical dead space. - This complication can lead to discomfort, delayed wound healing, and an increased risk of infection. *Hemorrhage* - While a serious complication, **hemorrhage** is less common than seroma formation. - Significant hemorrhage usually occurs intraoperatively or in the immediate postoperative period and is typically managed promptly. *Lymphedema* - **Lymphedema** is a chronic condition characterized by swelling of the arm due to impaired lymphatic drainage, often developing months to years after surgery. - Although highly significant and debilitating, its incidence is lower than acute complications like seroma. *Infection* - Surgical site **infection** is a potential complication but is generally less frequent than seroma due to careful aseptic techniques and prophylactic antibiotics. - Infections can range from superficial wound infections to more serious cellulitis.
Question 7: Mark the false statement regarding Hürthle cell carcinoma:
- A. It can be diagnosed by FNAC. (Correct Answer)
- B. Arises from Hürthle cells of the thyroid.
- C. Central neck dissection is performed in certain cases.
- D. It is not a variant of papillary thyroid cancer.
Explanation: ***It can be diagnosed by FNAC.*** - **Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)** alone cannot definitively diagnose Hürthle cell carcinoma because distinguishing between **benign Hürthle cell adenoma** and **malignant Hürthle cell carcinoma** requires evidence of **capsular or vascular invasion**, which cannot be assessed cytologically [1]. - FNAC results typically return as "**follicular neoplasm, Hürthle cell type**" or "**suspicious for Hürthle cell neoplasm**," necessitating surgical excision for definitive diagnosis [1]. *Arises from Hürthle cells of the thyroid.* - This statement is **true** because Hürthle cell carcinoma originates from **Hürthle cells** (also known as oxyphil cells or oncocytes), which are found in the thyroid gland. - These cells are characterized by abundant **eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm** due to a high concentration of mitochondria. *Central neck dissection is performed in certain cases.* - This statement is **true** because **central neck dissection** is considered in Hürthle cell carcinoma when there is evidence of **lymph node metastasis** or **high-risk disease features**. - While Hürthle cell carcinoma is less likely to metastasize to lymph nodes than papillary thyroid carcinoma, such an intervention may be necessary for staging and disease control. *It is not a variant of papillary thyroid cancer.* - This statement is **true** because Hürthle cell carcinoma is a distinct entity, classified as a variant of **follicular thyroid carcinoma**, not papillary thyroid carcinoma [1]. - It has a separate biological behavior and treatment strategy compared to papillary thyroid cancer. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1100-1101.
Question 8: Secondaries in the neck with no obvious primary malignancy is most often due to which of the following?
- A. Carcinoma of the Stomach
- B. Carcinoma of the Larynx
- C. Carcinoma of the Nasopharynx (Correct Answer)
- D. Carcinoma of the Thyroid
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical scenario of "Secondary in the neck with an unknown primary" refers to a metastatic cervical lymph node where the initial site of malignancy is not clinically apparent. **Why Nasopharynx is the correct answer:** Carcinoma of the Nasopharynx is notorious for being "clinically silent" in its early stages. Due to its anatomical location in the fossa of Rosenmüller, the primary tumor often remains small and asymptomatic while early lymphatic spread occurs. In approximately **50-60% of cases**, a painless neck swelling (usually involving the upper deep cervical or Level V nodes) is the first and only presenting symptom. This makes it the most common site for an occult primary in the head and neck region. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Carcinoma of the Stomach:** While it can metastasize to the left supraclavicular node (Virchow’s node/Troisier’s sign), it is a distant metastasis (Stage IV) and usually presents with significant constitutional or GI symptoms. * **Carcinoma of the Larynx:** These tumors typically present early with symptoms like hoarseness of voice (glottic) or throat pain/dysphagia (supraglottic), making the primary site "obvious" rather than occult. * **Carcinoma of the Thyroid:** While it frequently spreads to cervical nodes (especially papillary variety), the primary thyroid nodule is usually palpable or easily detected on initial physical examination. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of occult primary:** Nasopharynx (followed by Palatine Tonsil and Base of Tongue). * **Diagnostic Gold Standard:** Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC) is the first-line investigation for the neck mass. * **Work-up:** If the primary is not found on physical exam, the next steps include **CECT/MRI** from skull base to clavicle and **Panendoscopy** (Direct laryngoscopy, Esophagoscopy, and Bronchoscopy) with guided biopsies. * **EBV Association:** Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is strongly associated with the Epstein-Barr Virus.
Question 9: What clinical appearance is associated with bilateral TMJ ankylosis?
- A. Bird face appearance
- B. Vogel gesicht appearance
- C. Andy gump appearance
- D. All of the above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** Bilateral Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) ankylosis, especially when it occurs during the developmental years, leads to a characteristic facial deformity due to the failure of mandibular growth. **1. Why "All of the above" is correct:** The terms **Bird face appearance**, **Vogel gesicht appearance**, and **Andy Gump appearance** are all synonymous in clinical ENT and Maxillofacial surgery to describe the same morphological profile. * **Bird face / Vogel gesicht:** "Vogel gesicht" is simply the German translation for "Bird face." It describes the profile where the mandible is severely retruded (micrognathia/retrognathia), making the nose appear prominent and the face resemble a bird. * **Andy Gump appearance:** Named after a famous 1920s comic strip character, this term refers to the severe receding chin (retrognathia) seen in these patients. **2. Pathophysiology:** The mandibular condyle is the primary growth center of the mandible. Bilateral ankylosis results in the cessation of forward and downward growth of the lower jaw. This leads to: * Micrognathia (small jaw) and Retrognathia (receded jaw). * Secondary features like "Antegonial notching" and a double chin appearance. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Unilateral Ankylosis:** Results in facial asymmetry with the chin deviating **towards** the affected side. * **Bilateral Ankylosis:** Results in symmetrical recession (Bird face) without deviation. * **Most common cause:** Trauma (especially birth trauma or falls on the chin) followed by infections (Otitis media). * **Treatment:** Gap arthroplasty or Interpositional arthroplasty. Early surgery is crucial to prevent permanent growth restriction. * **Airway Concern:** These patients are difficult to intubate (Difficult Airway) due to limited mouth opening and retrognathia.
Question 10: Which of the following is/are a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy?
- A. Poor pulmonary reserve, Tumor involving pyriform sinus, Tumor involving pre-epiglottic space, Vocal cord fixation
- B. Tumor involving pyriform sinus, Tumor involving pre-epiglottic space, Vocal cord fixation, Postcricoid area extension
- C. Poor pulmonary reserve, Tumor involving pre-epiglottic space, Vocal cord fixation, Postcricoid area extension (Correct Answer)
- D. Poor pulmonary reserve, Vocal cord fixation, Postcricoid area extension
Explanation: **Explanation:** Supraglottic laryngectomy is a functional partial laryngectomy designed to preserve the phonatory and protective functions of the larynx while resecting tumors above the level of the true vocal cords. **Why Option C is Correct:** The success of this surgery depends on the integrity of the glottic closure and the patient's ability to tolerate inevitable postoperative aspiration during the rehabilitation phase. 1. **Poor Pulmonary Reserve:** This is a **major contraindication**. Patients must have adequate lung function (FEV1 > 50-60%) to tolerate the transient aspiration that occurs while relearning to swallow. 2. **Vocal Cord Fixation:** This indicates deep infiltration into the thyroarytenoid muscle or cricoarytenoid joint (T3 lesion), necessitating a total laryngectomy. 3. **Postcricoid Area Extension:** Involvement of this area or the interarytenoid space compromises the posterior glottic closure, making aspiration permanent and severe. 4. **Pre-epiglottic Space:** While early teaching suggested this was a contraindication, modern surgical oncology considers **extensive** involvement or extension to the **base of the tongue** (more than 1-2 cm) or **vallecula** as a contraindication because it necessitates a wider resection that prevents functional swallowing. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Options A & B:** These include "Tumor involving pyriform sinus." Involvement of the **medial wall** of the pyriform sinus is actually an indication for an *extended* supraglottic laryngectomy, not an absolute contraindication, provided the apex is free. * **Option D:** This is incomplete as it misses the critical anatomical boundary of the pre-epiglottic space/base of tongue involvement. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Safety" Margin:** The inferior limit of a supraglottic laryngectomy is the **ventricle**, just above the true vocal cords. * **Nerve Preservation:** Both **Superior Laryngeal Nerves** (internal branch) are often sacrificed, but at least one **Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve** must be preserved to maintain vocal cord mobility. * **Prerequisite:** The patient must have a motivated mental status and sufficient "tussive" (cough) force to clear the airway.
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